Animal care, pharmacology and surgery

Question 1

importance of patient history and client interaction

Answer 1

foundations on which sound medical and nursing interventions are based. Pay attention to the observations and concerns of the client, vet and staff.

Question 2

communication

Answer 2

best clinical interview focuses on the patient.

Question 3

5 vowels of a good interview

Answer 3

A- audition- listening carefully to the client’s story. E-evaluation- sorting data to determine which is important and which is irrelevant. I-inquiry- probing into the significant areas requiring more clarification. O-observation-observing nonverbal communication, body language, and facial expressions regardless of what is said. U-understanding- the clients concerns and apprehensions; enables interviewer to play more emphatic role

Question 4

obtaining a history

Answer 4

info gathered while obtaining a history should alert the vet team to potential problems

Question 5

introductory statement

Answer 5

introduce and explaining what he or she will be doing

Question 6

patient characteristics

Answer 6

VAA obtains certain preliminary info such as patient characteristics

Question 7

age

Answer 7

congenital diseases are predominant in young animals, and degenerative diseases can prevail in adults or older animal

Question 8

breed

Answer 8

certain ones are predisposed to particular problems

Question 9

gender

Answer 9

certain conditions are gender specific

Question 10

reproductive status

Answer 10

dogs spayed at an early age are less likely to develop mammary tumours than intact dogs

Question 11

questions for origin, prior ownership, and current env’t

Answer 11

where patient originated, where traveled, recently boarded, indoor, outdoor, free roaming or confined to house or yard, other animals, pets appetite, weight gains/losses, dry or wet food, brand name of food, amount of food consumed

Question 12

past medical history

Answer 12

provides info about patients health before current illness, or anything else ie meds

Question 13

vaccine schedule

Answer 13

some clients are not familiar with this, questions related to exposure to viruses or heartworm

Question 14

presenting complaint

Answer 14

history of present complaint helps determine when animal was last normal, if condition is acute or chronic, previous meds and dosages, response to previous therapy, duration of progression of clinical signs

Question 15

open ended questions

Answer 15

when did you first notice the problem, can you describe in detail the signs you observed, was there any change in routine

Question 16

physical exam importance

Answer 16

all observations must be recorded accurately, including visual inspection, palpation, auscultation, and percussion.

Question 17

systematic method of physical exam

Answer 17

1. record temp, pulse and respirations. 2.evaluate disposition, activity level and overall body condition. 3. record each body system, integumentary, cardiac, genitourinary, nervous, ears, lymphatic, gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, eyes, mucosa

Question 18

vital signs

Answer 18

body temp, respiratory rate and effort, heart rate and rhythm and indications of perfusion

Question 19

auscultation

Answer 19

listening to sounds produced by the body done with a stethoscope

Question 20

weight

Answer 20

animal must be still to record an accurate weight and done at every visit regardless of reason

Question 21

normothermia

Answer 21

maintenance of normal body temperature

Question 22

hypothermia

Answer 22

abnormally low body temperature

Question 23

hyperthermia

Answer 23

abnormally high body temperature

Question 24

pulse

Answer 24

normal heart ranges: dogs 17-160 beats/ min, cats 150-210 beats/ min.

Question 25

respiration

Answer 25

common sounds: harsh or static sounds, crackles or popping sounds, wheezing, upper airway, muffled or absent lung sounds, noisy breathing

Question 26

bathing

Answer 26

protect eyes and ears. prevent water from entering the external ear canal by placing small cotton ball in each ear

Question 27

skin care

Answer 27

watch for skin irritations

Question 28

nail trimming

Answer 28

important to general care, avoid the quick

Question 29

anal sac

Answer 29

normally secreats on its own, if not it can be emptied as part of the routine

Question 30

ear care

Answer 30

must be examined carefully to avoid damage to the tympanic membrane

Question 31

topical meds

Answer 31

applied to the skin. area usually shaved and cleaned (flea control)

Question 32

oral meds

Answer 32

most commonly used and as tablets and liquid

Question 33

rectal meds

Answer 33

inserted into the rectum

Question 34

nasal meds

Answer 34

inserted into the nasal cavity to be absorbed through the nasal mucosa (respiratory vaccines)

Question 35

opththalmic meds

Answer 35

applied onto the eye to treat many parts of the eye anatomy (ointments)

Question 36

otic meds

Answer 36

instilled in the ear canal (ear mites)

Question 37

parenteral meds

Answer 37

injected via a sterile syringe and needle

Question 38

intreadermal meds

Answer 38

injected into the epidermis of the skin (local anesthesia)

Question 39

subcutaneous meds

Answer 39

injected into the subcutaneous layer of the skin

Question 40

intramuscular meds

Answer 40

into the muscle

Question 41

intravenous meds and nutrition

Answer 41

absorbed directly into the blood stream

Question 42

urinary tract catheterization

Answer 42

access to bladder via the urethra

Question 43

gastric intubation

Answer 43

tubes inserted through the mouth to the stomach (short term feeding)

Question 44

wound

Answer 44

disruption of cellular and anatomic functional continuity. can either be acute or chronic

Question 45

types of acute wounds

Answer 45

surgical incisions, blunt trauma, bite wounds, burns, gunshots

Question 46

types of chronic wounds

Answer 46

decubital (pressure) ulcers, diabetic ulcers, vascular ulcers

Question 47

contaminated wounds become infected under the following circumstances

Answer 47

foreign bodies are present, excessive necrotic tissue is left in the wound, excessive bleeding results in higher levels of iron, local tissue defenses are impeded, vascular supply is altered, dirt and debris is present

Question 48

clean wounds

Answer 48

surgical wounds

Question 49

clean contaminated wounds

Answer 49

minor contamination

Question 50

contaminated

Answer 50

fresh traumatic injuries

Question 51

dirty

Answer 51

grossly infected or contaminated

Question 52

using antibacterials in a surgical wounds depends on

Answer 52

patients condition, immune status, er or elective surgery, location of the wound, duration of procedure, surgeons experience

Question 53

first aid

Answer 53

in the field and or before transport to a treatment facility, the wound should be protected with a bandage

Question 54

wound assessment

Answer 54

evaluation of the wounds location, size and depth, drainage, exudate, and signs of infection

Question 55

lavage

Answer 55

cleaning and debridement of wounds begins after the surrounding area has been cleaned. with a sterile solution ans gentle scrubbing are the primary methods for cleaning the wound

Question 56

anesthesia and analgesics

Answer 56

local, regional or general anesthesia may be used for wound management, analgesics can help reduce hemorrhage and prolong the anesthetic effect

Question 57

debridement

Answer 57

removal of devitalized or necrotic tissue is called debridement

Question 58

wound closure

Answer 58

a wound should be closed only when the vet is certain that all devitalized and contaminated tissue is removed. nature provides natural bandages as part of normal healing, artificial methods assist in the process

Question 59

functions of a bandage

Answer 59

protects, keeps wounds clean or sterile dressings in place, absorb exudate and debride a wound, vehicle for therapeutic agents, indicator of wound secretions, pack the wound, provide support for bony anatomic structures, support and stabilize soft tissues, secure splints, prevent weight bearing, provide compression to control hemorrhage, dead space and tissue edema, discourage self grooming, restrict motion, provide patient comfort, provide anesthetic appearance

Question 60

discharge info

Answer 60

strict confinement initially and then restricted activity during healing process, prevents licking or chewing (elizabethan collar), monitor for signs of excessive discomfort

Question 61

nursing care for recumbent patients

Answer 61

major concern id decubital (bed sores, pressure sores)

Question 62

chemical name

Answer 62

describes the drugs chemical composition

Question 63

generic name (nonproprietary)

Answer 63

not capitalized, most are referred to by the generic name in vet clinics

Question 64

trade name (proprietary)

Answer 64

given by manufacturer, capitalized because it is a proper noun

Question 65

generic drug names and trade

Answer 65

Ibuprofen, aspirin, acetaminophen. Tylenol, Excedrin, Advil

Question 66

solid drug

Answer 66

tablet, capsule, enteric-coated tablet, sustained release, implant

Question 67

semisolid

Answer 67

suppositories, liniment, ointment, cream, paste

Question 68

liquid

Answer 68

syrup, elixir, tincture, lotion, injectable

Question 69

enteric-coated tablets

Answer 69

special covering that protects the drug from the harsh acidic env't of the stomach, prevents tablet from dissolving until it enters the intestine

Question 70

elixers

Answer 70

solutions of drugs dissolved in sweetened alcohol

Question 71

tinctures

Answer 71

alcohol solutions meant for topical application on the skin

Question 72

valid prescription includes

Answer 72

name, address and telephone number of person who wrote the prescription, date it was written, owners info and animal name and species, Rx symbol, drug name,concentration and # of units dispensed, Sig directions for client, signature of person who wrote the prescription, registration # of drug id controlled substance

Question 73

abbreviations used

Answer 73

bid, od, os, po, prn, twice daily, right eye, left eye, by mouth, as needed...q8h, qd, sid, stat, tid, every 8 hours, every day, once daily, immediately, three times daily

Question 74

proper drug storage

Answer 74

improperly stored can degenerate or become inactivated, providing a little or no benefit

Question 75

controlled substances (schedule drugs)

Answer 75

potential for physucal addiction, psychological addiction and or abuse. must be stored under lock and key, written records must be kept

Question 76

drug classifications

Answer 76

manufacturers are required to identify a controlled substance on its label with an upper C, followed by a Roman numeral this denotes the drugs theoretical potential for abuse

Question 77

drug classifications

Answer 77

C1- not used in vet medicine, C2- high potential for abuse, C3- some potential for abuse, C4- low potential for abuse, C5- over the counter meds

Question 78

surgery suite

Answer 78

vet assistant will usually prepare the patient, surgical instruments and operatory, usually includes a prep area, scrub area and surgery room

Question 79

surgery prep area

Answer 79

ideally adjacent to surgery room, patient prep and storage of surgical supplies

Question 80

scrub area

Answer 80

may be a small area with the scrub sink, autoclave and room to gown and glove, transitional area where the staff can prepare to move into the surgery room

Question 81

surgery room

Answer 81

ideally a separate room that should only be used for surgery, large enough for staff to move around and free of any clutter

Question 82

aseptic technique

Answer 82

term used to describe all the precautions taken to prevent contamination and ultimately infection of a surgical wound

Question 83

4 main factors determine whether infection occurs

Answer 83

number of microorganisms (high number), virulence of microorganisms (ability to cause disease_, susceptibility of the animal( natural resistance), route of exposure to microorganisms

Question 84

nosocomial infections

Answer 84

those which are acquired in a hospital setting

Question 85

4 main sources of potential contamination

Answer 85

operative personnel, surgical instruments and equipment, patient, surgical env't

Question 86

sterilization

Answer 86

destruction of all microorganisms

Question 87

disinfection

Answer 87

destroys pathogenic microorganisms on nonliving objects

Question 88

autoclave

Answer 88

uses high temp and pressurized steam to sterilize instruments

Question 89

common terminology

Answer 89

-ectomy to remove, -otomy to cut into, -ostomy surgical opening, -rrhaphy surgical repair, -pexy surgical fixation, -plasty surgical alteration of shape or form

Question 90

ovariohysterectomy

Answer 90

spay, surgical removal of the ovaries and uterus

Question 91

orchiectomy

Answer 91

neuter or castration, surgical removal of the testes

Question 92

laparotomy

Answer 92

incision into the abdominal cavity, often through the flank

Question 93

gastrotomy

Answer 93

incision into the stomach

Question 94

preop evaluation

Answer 94

patient characteristics, medical history, physical exam, diagnostic testing

Question 95

patient requirements before procedure

Answer 95

withhold food for 8-12 hrs and water 2-4hrs before anesthesia. clipping hair and scrubbing the skin at the surgical site

Question 96

staff prep

Answer 96

scrubbing, gowning, and gloving