Antibiotics Flashcards

(92 cards)

1
Q

What aspects of bacterial machinery can be inhibited by abx?

A
Cell wall synthesis
Protein synthesis
DNA/RNA synthesis
Folate synthesis
Membrane integrity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cell wall synthesis inhibitors

A

Beta-lactams (penicillin, cephalosporin, carbapenems, monobactams)

Glycopeptides and lipoglycopeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do glycopeptides and lipoglycopeptides differ mechanistically from the beta lactams?

A

Beta lactams bind to and inhibit transpeptidase while glycopeptides and lipoglycopeptides bind to cell wall precursors and prevent cross linking/extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which abx relies on renal dipeptidase inhibitor celastatin?

A

Imipenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What differentiates second generation cephalosporins from cephamycins?

A

The bacterial spectrum

Cephamycins are active against B.fragilis and some Serratia spp. and the purely second generation cephalosporins (cefaclor, cefprozil, and cefuroxime) are not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the general spectrum of coverage for the monobactam aztreonam

A

Gram-negative aerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the protein synthesis inhibitors that bind the 50s ribosomal subunit?

A

Oxazolidinones
Macrolides and ketolides
Streptogramins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the protein synthesis inhibitors that bind the 30s ribosomal subunit?

A

Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Glycylcyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference in MOA between oxazolidinones and streptogramins?

A

Oxazolidinones bind to P site on ribosome and prevent initiation of protein synth

Streptogramins have 2 headed mechanism as they are given in combined ratio — quinupristin inhibits polypeptide elongation and induces early termination of protein synth; dalfopristin impedes polypeptide chain formation and induces conformational change in 50S ribosomal subunit that enhances quinupristin binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why are macrolides grouped with the ketolides? What distinguishes a macrolide from a ketolide?

A

Grouped together bc similar MOAs, chemical structure, and adverse effects

Their bacterial coverage differs; ketolides can be active in macrolide resistant strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What antibiotic acts as a DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitor?

A

Fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What proteins do fluoroquinolones inhibit?

A

Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some side effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

Abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, C.diff induced colitis, HA, dizziness

Achilles tendon rupture

QT prolongation (moxifloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 2 folate synthesis inhibitors?

A

Sulfonamides

Benzylpyrimidines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the antibiotic that works as a membrane integrity inhibitor?

A

Polymyxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why are sulfonamides and benzylpyrimidines synergistic?

A

Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole inhibit subsequent steps in THF biosynthetic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Are polymyxins active against gram positive bacteria? Why?

A

No, because they do not have an outer membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Major mechanisms of antibiotic synergism

A

Blockade of sequential steps in metabolic sequence (TMP/SMX)

Inhibition of enzymatic inactivation (beta-lactamase inhibitors)

Enhancement of antimicrobial agent uptake (penicillins and vancomycin can increase uptake of aminoglycosides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Major mechanisms of antibiotic antagonism

A

Inhibition of cidal activity by static agents (tetracyclines and penicillins)

Induction of enzymatic inactivation (P.aeruginosa and some other bacteria possess inducible beta-lactamases; some beta lactam abx are potent inducers of beta-lactamase production — imipenem, cefoxitin, ampicillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is a mechanism underlying the resistance of strains of S.pneumoniae to fluoroquinolones?

A. Reduced topoisomerase sensitivity to inhibitors
B. Increased synthesis of PABA
C. Formation of methyltransferases that change receptor structure
D. Structural changes in porins
E. Formation of drug-inactivating hydrolases

A

A. Reduced topoisomerase sensitivity to inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most likely mechanism of resistance for MRSA to methicillin?

A. Methylation of the binding site
B. Active efflux of drug from bacteria
C. Beta-lactamase production
D. Phosphorylation of the drug by bacterial enzymes
E. Structural modifications of transpeptidase

A

E. Structural modifications of transpeptidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

37 y/o female presents to clinic with low grade fever and sore throat. PE reveals tonsillar exudate and gram stain reveals high number of bacteria. A dx is made and penicillin G is prescribed because the identified tonsillar exudate has been shown to be sensitive to penicillin G.

Which of the following bacteria is most likely to be causing this patient’s infection?

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

67 y/o woman presents to ED with nausea, vomiting, fever, and altered consciousness. Her vitals are BP 90/50 mm Hg, pulse 115 bpm, respirations 20/min and temp 103.6 F. PE reveals pt in distress with nuchal rigidity. Empirical IV therapy is initiated with ampicillin, ceftriaxone, and vancomycin.

Which of the following best explains the common mechanism of action that all 3 of these drugs possess?

A. Inhibition of THF synthesis
B. Misreading of mRNA template code
C. Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis
D. Blockade of peptidyl-transfer RNA translocation
E. Enhancement of DNA gyrase activity
A

C. Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A 5 y/o boy presents with ear pain despite being tx with amoxicillin. Your pediatrician partner suggests changing the pt’s prescription to amoxicillin + potassium clavulanate.

Which of the following best explains the advantage of this proposed drug combo over amoxicillin monotherapy?

A. Extended antibacterial spectrum against P.aeruginosa
B. Inhibition of bacterial inactivation of amoxicillin
C. Inhibition of renal excretion of amoxicillin
D. Increased influx of amoxicillin into bacteria
E. Decreased amoxicillin hypersensitivity

A

B. Inhibition of bacterial inactivation of amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Female presents with leg pain and blood cultures reveal MRSA. Treatment is initiated with antibiotic that binds to P site on 50S ribosomal subunit and prevents the formation of ribosomal n-formylmethionine tRNA complex. Which of the following drugs was most likely given? ``` A. Linezolid B. Tigecycline C. Gentamicin D. Imipenem E. Tetracycline ```
A. Linezolid
26
70 y/o male presents with c/o HA, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss. Medical hx reveals that pt had been receiving an antibiotic for 2 weeks to treat a UTI d/t serratia marcescens. The drug used was most likely a member of which of the following abx classes? ``` A. Cephalosporins B. Polymyxins C. Tetracyclines D. Aminoglycosides E. Glycopeptides ```
D. Aminoglycosides
27
A 42 y/o female presents with c/o dysuria. Medical hx reveals recurrent UTIs and congenital long QT syndrome. Analysis of clean-catch midstream urine sample shows many gram-negative rods. Which of the following abx would be contraindicated in this pt? ``` A. Moxifloxacin B. Aztreonam C. TMP/SMX D. Ceftriaxone E. Meropenem ```
A. Moxifloxacin
28
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Penicillin G
Penicillin
29
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Ampicillin Amoxicillin
Aminopenicillins
30
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Methicillin Nafcillin Oxacillin Dicloxacillin
Penicillinase-resistant penicillins
31
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Ticarcillin Carbenicillin Piperacillin Mezlocillin
Anti-pseudomonal penicillins
32
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Cefazolin Cephalexin
First generation cephalosporins
33
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Cefuroxime Cefaclor Cefprozil
Second generation cephalosporins
34
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Cefotetan Cefoxitin
Cephamycins
35
Which drug class does the following list belong to: ``` Cefotaxime Cefixime Cefdinir Ceftibuten Ceftazidime Ceftriaxone Cefpodoxime proxetil Cefditoren pivoxil ```
Third generation cephalosporins
36
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Cefepime
Fourth generation cephalosporin
37
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Ceftaroline fasamil Ceftolozane
Fifth generation cephalosporins
38
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Imipenem Meropenem Doripenem Ertapenem
Carbapenems
39
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Aztreonam
Monobactam
40
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Vancomycin
Glycopeptides
41
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Telavancin Dalbavancin Oritavancin
Lipoglycopeptides
42
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Clavulanic acid Sulbactam Tazobactam
Beta-lactamase inhibitors
43
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Linozolid Tedizolid
Oxazolidinones
44
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Erythromycin Clarithromycin Azithromycin Fidaxomicin
Macrolides
45
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Telithromycin
Ketolides
46
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Quinupristin Dalfopristin
Streptogramins
47
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Doxycycline Tetracycline Minocycline Demeclocycline
Tetracyclines
48
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Tigecycline
Glycylcylines
49
Which drug class does the following list belong to: ``` Streptomycin Gentamycin Tobramycin Amikacin Neomycin Paromomycin Kanamycin Netilmicin ```
Aminoglycosides
50
Which drug class does the following list belong to: ``` Moxifloxacin Ciprofloxacin Enoxacin Ofloxacin Pefloxacin Gatifloxacin Gemifloxacin Levofloxacin ```
Fluoroquinolones
51
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Sulfamethoxazole
Sulfonamides
52
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Trimethoprim
Benzylpyrimidines
53
Which drug class does the following list belong to: Polymyxin B Colistin
Polymyxins
54
MOA of penicillins
Inhibit growth of bacteria by interfering with transpeptidation reaction - thus inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis
55
___ = gateway for penicillin to access cell wall in gram- bacteria
Porins
56
Penicillin G fights what bacteria?
Gram+ cocci = S.pneumo, S.pyogenes, S.viridans Certain gram-negative cocci = N.meningiditis Spirochetes like T.pallidum C.perfringens
57
Adverse effects of penicillin G
Anaphylaxis (d/t HSR to beta lactam ring) | Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
58
Bacteria killed by aminopenicillins
E.coli Proteus Salmonella Shigella With beta lactamase inhibitors, can fight H.influenzae, E.coli, Klebsiella spp., proteus spp., and B.fragilis
59
What bacteria are penicillinase resistant penicillins effective against
S.aureus | S.epidermidis
60
Major mechanism of abx resistance to anti-pseudomonal penicillins
Beta-lactamase production
61
What bacteria are anti-pseudomonal penicillins effective against?
``` P.aeruginosa Klebsiella pneumoniae E.coli H.influenzae B.fragilis ```
62
T/F: cephalosporins have an almost identical MOA to penicillins
True
63
Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to cephalosporins
Beta-lactamase production Altering porins Altering transpeptidase Upregulation of efflux pumps
64
First gen cephalosporins generally have better coverage against gram ____ organisms, while third generation have better coverage against gram ____ organisms
Positive; negative [note that second gen fall somewhere in the middle with 50/50 +/- coverage]
65
Most common side effect to cephalosporin use
HSR to beta lactam ring = maculopapular rash several days after therapy; sometimes accompanied by eosinophilia and fever
66
Only 3rd gen cephalosporin effective against p.aeruginosa
Ceftazidime
67
______ is an abx that may displace bilirubin d/t its high affinity for serum albumin. This can potentially lead to jaundice in neonates, thus, ____ is the preferred agent
Ceftriaxone; cefotaxime
68
Due to its high affinity for Ca, ceftriaxone can lead to ____
Biliary pseudolithiasis (gallstones)
69
Which generation cephalosporin fights p.aeruginosa as well as provides excellent coverage against enterobacter spp, but has POOR activity against B.fragilis?
Fourth gen cephalosporin (cefepime)
70
Which 5th gen cephalosporin is active against MRSA since it has increased binding to transpeptidase?
Ceftaroline [this drug also effective against pseudomonas spp. - hard to tx! — note this one has gram+ coverage]
71
T/F: all carbapenems require combination with a renal dipeptidase inhibitor: celastatin
False; only imipenem requires this
72
MOA of carbapenems
Inhibition of transpeptidase - inhibiting cell wall synth (same as cephalosporins and penicillin)
73
T/F: like penicillin and cephalosporins, carbapenems have the issue of abx-resistance d/t degradation by beta-lactamases
False
74
Mechanisms of abx resistance to carbapenems
Porin alteration | Upregulation of enzymes toxic to carbapenems
75
Carbapenems as a class are good agents for targeting gram ___ bacteria
Negative
76
Adverse rxns to carbapenems
``` Reactions at infusion site Skin rash Diarrhea Vomiting Nausea Renal failure Seizures ```
77
MOA of monobactams
Binds and inhibits gram-negative specific sub-type of transpeptidase —> cell wall loses its rigidity
78
T/F: aztreonam has no activity against gram positives or anaerobes
True
79
T/F: penicillin allergic pts are able to tolerate aztreonam
True
80
Aztreonam should not be given to pts allergic to what drug?
Ceftazidime
81
Adverse effects of aztreonam
Hepatotoxicity | Skin rash
82
MOA of glycopeptides
Bind D-alanyl-D-alanine terminus of cell wall precursor units with very high affinity —> prevents peptidoglycan synth
83
Primary glycopeptide resistant strain of enterococci
E.faecium
84
How must vancomycin be administered?
IV
85
Vancomycin is effective against what?
Many gram+ bacteria [Almost all gram negative bacilli and mycobacteria are RESISTANT to vancomycin]
86
Adverse effects of vancomycin
Hypotension Tachycardia Flushing (“red man syndrome”) Nephrotoxicity
87
MOA of oxazolidinones
Bind P site on 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing initiation of protein synth by preventing formation of n-fMet tRNA complex Primarily bacteriostatic, but bactericidal against streptococci!
88
Mechanisms of resistance to Oxazolidinones
Point mutations on 23S rRNA that makes up Oxa. binding site on 50S subunit
89
Oxazolidinones are acitve against a large majority of what type of bacteria
Gram+ [they have poor coverage of gram-neg]
90
Adverse effects of oxazolidinones
Myelosuppression, thrombocytopenia, lactic acidosis, optic neuritis, peripheral neuropathy (mitochondrial toxicity), drug-drug interactions (MAOs, SSRIs)
91
MOA of macrolides and ketolides
Bind reversibly to 50S subunit of bacterial ribosome, preventing translocation of tRNA from A site to P site, thus halting protein synth They can also elicit conformational change in bacterial ribosome which can result in indirect inhibition of transpeptidation Lastly, they can inhibit the formation of the 50S subunit Bacteriostatic!
92
4 main mechanisms of resistance to macrolides and ketolides
Drug efflux Production of methylase Degradation Mutations in 50S ribosomal subunit