Antibiotics Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

The gram positive bacterias usually end in US, OC, ER and UM (sound masculin) except which one?

A
  • Listeria spp
  • Nocardia spp
  • Gemella spp
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2
Q

Gram negative bacterias usually end in A or ER except which one?

A
  • Proteus spp
  • Haemophilus spp
  • Acinetobacter spp
  • Bacteroides spp
  • Vibrio spp
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3
Q

Which b-lactams cross the BBB appreciably?

A

–Penicillin IV (high dose)

–Ampicillin IV (high dose)

–Third generation cephalosporins IV (high dose)

–Cefepime

–Carbapenems

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4
Q

Adverse reactions of All b-lactams?

A

–GI upset

–Diarrhea (b-lactamase inhibitors; cefixime/Suprax)

–Drug induced neutropenia

–Seizures

–Anaphylaxis

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5
Q

Why are Carbapenems used?

A

BROAD SPECTRUM: Like BROAD SPECTRUM b-lactams/b-lactamase inhibitor combinations

  • Gram-positives (MSSA), gram-negative, anaerobes
  • Usually resistant to b-lactamases
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6
Q

Do Cephalosporins work against Gram-positive Enterococcus spp / Listeria spp?

A

Non

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7
Q

Which generation of Cephalosporins works againts gram-negative Pseudomonas spp / Campylobacter spp?

A

3rd (Only ceftazidime) and 4th

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8
Q

Penicillins and b-lactamase inhibitors are used against what bacteria?

A
  • S. aureus
  • Most gram-positive organisms including Enterococcus and Listeria spp
  • Most gram-negative respiratory pathogens (Haemophilus and Moraxella spp)
  • Most gram-negative enteric bacteria
  • Most anaerobes (gram-positive and gram-negative)
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9
Q

What can you use against Pseudomonas spp?

A

Timentin and Pip/tazo (Penicillins and b-lactamase inhibitors)

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10
Q

S. aureus choice of antibiotic?

A

Cloxacillin

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11
Q

E Coli choice of antibiotic?

A

Ampicillin IV

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12
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa choice of antibiotic?

A

–Ticarcillin

–Piperacillin

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13
Q

Which type of antibiotic is time dependant?

A
  • Beta-lactam group (Penicillins and their derivatives)
  • Macrolides and ketolides
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14
Q

Type of antibiotic that is concentration dependant?

A

aminoglycosides

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15
Q

Which antibiotics have such good bioavailability that po = IV availability?

A

–Clindamycin po = IV

–Fluoroquinolones po = IV

–Septra po = IV

–Tetracyclines po = IV

–Metronidazole po = IV

–Linezolid po = IV

LIMITED BY GI TOLERANCE AND ABSORPTION

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16
Q

Which b-lactams have activity against MSSA?

A

–Cloxacillin po/IV (and methicillin)

– b-lactam/b-lactamase combinations (po/IV)

–1st and 2nd generation cephalosporins po/IV

•3rd generation IV NOT that good – just OK

–Cefepime

–Carbapenems

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17
Q

Which b-lactams have activity against Pseudomonas spp?

A

–Ticarcillin and Piperacillin (IV)

–Timentin and Pip/tazo (IV)

–Ceftazidime (IV)

–Cefepime (IV)

–Carbapenems (IV)

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18
Q

Which b-lactams have activity against anaerobes?

A

–Penicillin (po/IV)

–All b-lactam/b-lactamase combinations (po/IV)

–Carbapenems (IV)

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19
Q

What is the Antibacterial spectrum of Vancomycin?

A

Gram-positive including anaerobic gram-positive

Very good activity against Clostridium difficile (oral treatment)

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20
Q

Pharmacological key points of Vancomycin?

A
  • BBB penetration, mainly with inflammation
  • Need higher levels to penetrate BBB, bone and cartilage, heart tissue
  • Need higher levels when dealing with MRSA
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21
Q

Adverse reactions of Vancomycin?

A

Nephrotoxicity: Usually with accumulation (high trough levels)

When administered over short period (<1 hr): Histamine release (Red-man syndrome)

22
Q

What is the antibacterial spectrum of Macrolides/Ketolides?

A

Gram-positives

  • S. pneumoniae (if S)
  • Group A Streptococcus (if S)

Gram-negatives

  • Campylobacter spp
  • Bordetella pertussis

Atypical bacteria

  • Mycoplasma spp, Chlamydia spp, Clamydophila spp

Non-tuberculous mycobacteria

  • Clarithromycin, azithromycin
23
Q

Do macrolides cross the BBB?

24
Q

What is the Antibacterial spectrum of Aminoglycosides?

A

GRAM-NEGATIVE

25
Adverses effects of Aminoglycosides?
* Renal toxicity (high accumulated levels) * Vestibular and cochlear toxicity (long period, irreversible) * Muscular blockade (never give if NMD)
26
What are the 3 important types of Fluoroquinolones?
1. Ciprofloxacin po/IV (Cipro) 2. Levofloxacin po/IV (Levaquin): “The respiratory quinolone” 3. Moxifloxacin po (Avelox)
27
What is the Antibacterial spectrum of Fluoroquinolones?
À PARTIR DE LA DEUXIÈME GÉNÉRATION * *S. pneumoniae* * MSSA * Enteric gram negative rods * *Pseudomonas* spp * Atypicals
28
What is the Antibacterial spectrum of Sulfonamides?
Gram-positive and gram-negative: * Enterobacteriaceae * Shigella * S.maltophilia (PARASITE) * B.cepacia * Chlamydia * Nocardia * Pneumocystis jeroveci * Toxoplasma \*\* NOT ENTEROCOCCUS
29
What is the Antibacterial spectrum of Cyclines?
1. Minocycline: topical for acne 2. Tetracyclines: gram-negative enteric rods, anaerobes, atypical bacteria 3. Tigecycline: gram-negative enteric rods, gram-positive, anaerobes, atypical
30
What is the mechanisms of action of Clindamycin?
* Inhibition of protein synthesis * Bacteriostatic time-dependent activity
31
What is the Antibacterial spectrum of Clindamycin?
ONLY gram-positive: * S.pneumoniae * S aureus
32
What are the Adverse reactions of Clindamycin?
* May cause moderate diarrhea * Associated with C.difficile colitis
33
What is the Antibacterial spectrum of Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
* ANAEROBES: **vaginosis** * parasites * anti-inflammatory in bowel
34
Why is used Rifamycins?
* TB * Post-exposure prophylaxis: - N. meningitides (meningitis and/or meningococcemia) - H. influenzae (meningitis)
35
What is the adverse effect of Rifamycins?
* MAJOR drug interactions between Rifampin and Rifabutin: both are metabolized in the liver and induce CYP-450 enzymes * Coloration of fluids
36
What is the antibiotic of choice for non-complicated cystitis treatment and UTI prophylaxis?
Nitrofurantoin
37
What are the antibiotics specifically used for multiresistant gram-positive bacteria?
* Oxazolidinones: Linezolid * Streptogramins: Quinipristin/Dalfopristin * Daptomycin * Ceftaroline for MRSA
38
What are the adverse reaction sof Linezolid?
* Risk of thrombocytopenia * Inhibitor of monoamine oxydase
39
What should absolutely be avoided when using Flagyl antibiotic?
ALCOHOL
40
What are the empiric antibiotics for a febrile neonate?
Ampicillin IV + Gentamicin IV ± third generation cephalosporin for meningitis (Cefotaxime IV)
41
What are the empiric antibiotics for a febrile baby (1-3 months old)
Ampicillin IV + Gentamicin IV Ampicillin IV + Vancomycin IV + third generation cephalosporin for meningitis (Ceftriaxone IV)
42
What is the treatment of Cystitis UTI?
TMP/SMX (Septra) for 3 days OR Quinolone (Cipro) also for 3 days
43
What is the treatment of Pyelonephritis UTI?
Ampicillin (to cover possible enterococcus) and aminoglycoside (To cover gram negatives: Genta/Tobra) Oral of IV depending of severity
44
What is the treatment of Gonorrhoeae?
Combination: * Ceftriaxone (intra-muscular) x 1 dose, or Cefixime (by mouth) x 1 dose * Azithromycin x 1 dose
45
What is the treatment of Chlamydia?
Azithromycin (oral) x 1 dose or doxycycline
46
What is the treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis (flagella)?
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
47
What is the treatment of Syphilis​?
* Primary, Secondary or early latent: Penicillin IM x 1 * Late latent or latent of unknown duration; teritary: Penicillin IM weekly x 3 doses * Neurosyphilis: Penicillin IV for 10-14 days
48
What is the antibiotic of choice against Enterococcus anaerobes?
Fluroquinolones 4th generation
49
Best treatment of endocarditis?
1. Nafcillin (beta lactam) 2. Aminoglycoside
50
Best treatment of endocarditis with prostethic valve infection?
1. Nafcillin (beta lactam) 2. Aminoglycoside 3. Vancomycin
51
Treatment of choice of S. Aureus osteomyelitis?
Cloxacilin or Cefazolin OR VANCOMYCIN IF METHICILLIN RESISTANT