Antibiotics I & II Review Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q
  • fungal overgrowth
  • most common type of superinfection
  • continue administration of antibacterial agent
  • treat w/ antifungal , ex: oral nystatin for GI
A

intestinal candidiasis

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2
Q
  • life threatening
  • discontinue admin of antibacterial agent
  • treat w/ oral vancomycin (not absorbed, treats locally)
A

staphylococcal enterocolitis

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3
Q
  • life threatening, caused by c/ difficile
  • discontinue admin of antibacterial
  • treat w/ oral metronidazole (or vancomycin)
  • often caused by clindamycin
A

pseudomembranous colitis

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4
Q

-aminoglycosides, vancomycin, minocycline cause what organ directed toxicity?

A

ototoxicity

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5
Q

chloramphenicol and sulfonamides cause what organ directed toxicity?

A

hematopoietic

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6
Q

tetracyclines, macrolides, isoniazid, sulfonamides, and ampho B cause what organ directed toxicity?

A

hepatotoxicity

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7
Q

aminoglycosides, vancomycin, ampho B, cephalosporins, and sulfonamides cause what organ directed toxicity?

A

renal

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8
Q

primaquine, sulfonamides, and nitrofurantoin cause what idiosyncratic response?

A

hemolytic anemia (in G6PDH deficiency)

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9
Q

tetracyclines, sulfonamides, and fluoroquinolones cause what idiosyncratic response?

A

photosensitivity

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10
Q

sulfonamides can cause what hypersensitivity reaction?

A

stevens johnson

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11
Q

beta lactams and vanocmycin blocks enzymatic steps in the _______ space, and other ICWs (fosfomycin, cycloserine) act at _______ sites

A

periplasmic

intracellular

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12
Q

penicillins primarily useful against gram positive microbes?

A

pen G, pen V

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13
Q

nafcillin, methcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin are __________ penicillincs

A

anti-staph

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14
Q

ampicillin, amoxacillin, piperacillin, ticarcillin are extended spectrum penicillins with increased ________ activity

A

gram negative

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15
Q

antipseudomonal penicillins effective against proteus and pseudomonas? use in combo with aminoglycoside

A

piperacillin, ticarcillin

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16
Q

beta lactam drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis but are less susceptible to penicillinases, bactericidal

A

cephalosporins

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17
Q

cefazolin and cephalexin are ____ generation cephalosporins

A

1st

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18
Q
  • good activity against gram positive and modest gram negative
  • treat staph and strep cellulitis
  • DOC for surgical prophylaxis
A

cefazolin (1st gen)

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19
Q

cefaclor, cefoxitin, cefuroxime, cefotetan are _____ generation cephs

A

2nd (fur ox with two fac tets)

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20
Q
  • increased activity against gram negative bacteria (Ecoli, Kelbsiella, Proteus, haemophilus, moraxella catarrhalis)
  • PID, diverticulitis, surgical prophylaxis for abdominal, bronchitis
A

uses for 2nd gen cephalosporins (cefaclor, cefoxitin, cefuroxime, cefotetan)

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21
Q

-ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftazidime, cefpodoxime are ______ generation cephs

A

3rd

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22
Q
  • decreased gram (+) but increased gram negative (enterobacter, serratia)
  • pseudomonas activity
  • meningitis
  • CAP, lyme disease, osteomyelitis, gonorrhea
  • penetrate CNS, so many useful in meningitis
A

3rd gen cephalosporin use

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23
Q

cefipime a ____ generation cephalosporin

A

4th

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24
Q
  • extensive gram positive and gram neg activity
  • increased resistance to beta lactamases
  • reserve for situations such as neutropenic fever
A

4th gen ceph (cefepime)

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25
- MRSA activity, gram negs except pseduomonas | - approved for cSSSIs and CAP
5th gen cephalosporin (ceftaroline)
26
- monobactam, only gram negative activity - no anaerobe activity - for pseudomonas use w/ an aminoglycoside - beta lactamase resistant - no cross reactivity to penicillin allergies
aztreonam
27
- broad spectrum: gram (+), (=), and anaerobes - beta lactamase resistant - inactivated by renal dipeptidase (co admin cilastatin) - cross sensitivity w/ penicillin allergies - pseduomonas resistance rapid, so use w/ aminoglycosides
carbapenems: imipenem, meropenem, doripenem, ertapenem
28
vancomycin inhibits _________ by binding to D-ala D-ala terminus of petidoglycan monomer
transglycosylation
29
vancomycin bactericidal for _______ bacteria
gram positive
30
vancomycin used systemically for ______
MRSA
31
vancomycin enhances oto and nephro toxicity of ________
aminoglycosides
32
- used for infections caused by gram positive, penicillin resistant organisms - s. aureus, MRSSA, enterococci, C diff alternative treatment
vancomycin
33
- newer ICWS, gram positive and negative activity - inhibits cytoplasmic step in cell wall precursor synthesis - actively transported by G6P transporter into bacteria - approved for single dose therapy of UTI - actively excreted by kidney
fosfomycin
34
- topical antibiotic only, for gram (+) organisms | - markedly nephrotoxic
bacitracin
35
-inhibit dihydrofolate synthesis, bacteriostatic (-cidal when combined with trimethoprim)
sulfonamides (sulfamethoxazole, sulfadizaine)
36
- inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, bacteriostatic | - combo for UTIs, shigella, salmonella, pneumocystis, toxoplasmosis
trimethoprim, pyrimethamine (protozoa), methotrexate (mammalian)
37
-inhibit prokaryotic enzymes topoisomerase II, bactericidal
fluoroquinolones
38
- prototype quinolone | - oral, rapidly glucoronidated and actively excreted in urine
nalidixic acid
39
all fluoroquinolones have what suffix?
-floxacin
40
- actively excreted in urine, blocked by probenicid | - treat gram (-) rods of urinary and GI tracts, some gram (+), otitis externa
fluoroquinolones
41
-excellent activity against many gram (-) bacteria (gonococcus, psuudomonas, mycobacteria, chlamydia)
2nd gen fluoroquinolones (cipro, ofloxacin)
42
- 3rd gen fluoroquinolone, given 2X daily | - greater gram (+) activity (strp pneumo, enterococci, MRSA), resp infections)
levofloxacin
43
-broadest spectrum fluoroquinolones, respiratory
4th gen (moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin)
44
- chronic infections with long dormant periods separating intermittent active periods - intracellular pathogens - requires constant prolonged treatment with multiple drugs
tuberculosis and leprosy
45
_______ favored over rifampin for HIV patients on HAART cocktails b/c of less DDIs
rifabutin
46
- may involve oxidative stress, urinary tract antiseptic - excreted in urine 50% as active drug - treats UTI, gram positive or negative, most effective at acidic urine pH - adverse: headaches, anorexia, GI, hemolytic anemia if G6PDH deficient - pseudomonas and proteus resistant
nitrofurantoin
47
- alter permeability and damage bacterial cytoplasmic membrane, leakage - gram (-) only - topically - systemically as last resort for pseudomonas - nephrotoxic
polymixins (colistin, polymixin E, polymixin B)
48
- binds cell membrane of susceptible organisms, causes rapid depolarization - gram (+) only - IV - treats complicated skin infections - used for vancomycin resistant bacteria
daptomycin
49
- binds bacterial isoleucyl transferase RNA synthetase, inhibits protein synthesis - topical: for impetigo caused by s aureus and s. pyogenes - intranasal for MRSA
mupirocin
50
abx of choice for: | H pylori
amoxicillin, clarithromycin, omerprazole
51
abx of choice for: listeria
ampicillin
52
abx of choice for: neisseria gonorrhea
ceftriaxone, cefexime
53
abx of choice for: H. influenza, klebsiella
3rd gen cephalosporins
54
abx of choice for: borrelia burgdorferi, Rickettsiae?
doxycycline
55
abx of choice for: legionella
erythromycin
56
abx of choice for: candida
fluconazole, miconazole, nystatin
57
abx of choice for: mycobacterium tuberculosis
isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide
58
abx of choice for: mycoplasma pneumonia, legionella, corynebacterium diptheria, chlamydia
macrolides
59
abx of choice for: trichomonas, c diff
metronidazole
60
abx of choice for: treponema pallidum, bacillus anthracis, clostridium, bacteroides
penicillin G
61
abx of choice for: campylobacter, shigella
fluoroquinolones
62
abx of choice for: vibrio cholera
tetracycline
63
abx of choice for: salmonella, shigella
TMP-SMX
64
abx of choice for: C diff
metronidazole, vancomycin
65
prophylaxis for surgical procedures?
cefazolin
66
prophylaxis for surgery where anaerobe present?
cefoxitin, cefotetan
67
prophylaxis for GBS?
ampicillin, penicillin
68
prophylaxis for pneumocytsis, UTIs?
TMP-SMX
69
prophylaxis for h influenza, meningococcal infxn?
rifampin
70
prophylaxis for malaria?
chloroquine
71
prophylaxis for M. avium in AIDS?
azithromycin
72
prophylaxis for dental procedures?
amoxicillin, azithromycin, clindamycin
73
-aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, tigecycline and spectinomycin target the ______ ribosomal subunit
30S
74
chloramphenicol, macrolides, tilethromycin, linezolid, and quinupristin-dalfopristin target the _______ ribosomal subunit
50S
75
________ irreversibly inhibit the 30S subunit, making them bactericidal
aminoglycosides
76
- reversible binding to 30S subunit - bacterostatic - chelate metal ions, not absorbed so don't admin with food/milk/antacids - concentrates in teeth, bone, liver, bile, kidney - cross placenta and excreted in milk
tetracyclines
77
- mycoplasma, chlamydia, rickettsiae, H pylori - prophylaxis for plasmodiium falciparum - helpful for lyme disease - ability to accumulate intracellulary
tetracyclines
78
- tetracycline analog - used for CAP, skin and suture infections, intra abdominal infxn (MRSA, E. faecalis) - FDA black box warning for mortality
tigecycline
79
- cause superinfections - impaired liver functions - photosensitization - calcium chelation
adverse effects of tetracyclines
80
- impaired influx/increased efflux by active transport protein pump - overuse has fostered emergence of resistance
tetracyclines
81
- reversible inhibitor of protein synthesis (50S subunit) , bacteriostatic - CNS levels = serum levels - glucoronidation in liver is rate limiting step for clearance
chloramphenicol
82
- adverse: - anemia due to bone marrow depression, usually reversible - aplastic anemia: irreversible and fatal - gray baby syndrome: newborns are poor glucoronidators - DDIs, inhibits enzymes
chloramphenicol
83
- powerful antibacterial limited by toxicity - typhoid fever, RMSF - alternate for bacterial meningitis, topical for eye infexns
chloramphenicol
84
- bacteriostatic or -cidal depending on dose - 50S IPS - acid labile - use enteric coat or ester - CNS, crosses placenta - excreted in bile, half life 2-5 hours except one drug
macrolides (erythryomycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin)
85
- GI distress - cholestatic jaundice - microsomal enzyme inhibition - used for atypical pneumonia (mycoplasma, legionnaire's, chlamydia), back for penicillin sensitive patients
macrolides
86
-plasmid mediated resistance to staph, strep, pneumococci
macrolides
87
newer macrolide with less GI effects, given with ethambutal for m avium
clarithromycin
88
-macrolide with minimal P450 inteactions, tissue levels 100X plasma levels (half life 2-4 days), active against m. avium, shorter dosing period
azithromycin
89
- ketolide - treatment of CAP - may prolong QT interval - hepatic failure, respiratory failure in myasthenia gravis - DDIs CYP3A4
telithromycin
90
- lincosamide - 50S IPS - good for bacteroides fragilis - with primaquine treats pneumocystis in AIDS - with pyrimethamine for toxoplasmosis - adverse: clostridium superinfections, hepatotoxicity
clindamycin
91
- significant CYP3A4 inhibitor - complete cross resistance b/w two components - no cross resistance with other IPS - bacteriostatic against E faecium, cidal against others - e. faecalis is resistant - approved for vanco and MDR e. facium and MRSA
streptogramins (quinupristin, dalfopristin)
92
- binds 23S rRNA of 50S subunit - no cross resistance with other IPS - IV or oral - for vanco resistant e faecium, MRSA - adverse: bone marrow suppression, inhibits MAO - serotonin syndrome
linezolid
93
gentamicin, streptomycin, tobramycin, amikacin, neomycin (topical)
aminoglycosides
94
- bactericidal, inactivate 30S subunit irreversibly | - interfere w/ initiation, misread mRNA, break up polysomes
aminoglycosides
95
- IV, no significant host metabolism - glomerular filtration, high concentrations in proximal tubules - rapid resistance alone - anaerobes resistant (oxygen dependent uptake)
aminoglycosides
96
- once daily dosing, removes factor of time maintaining concentration - nephrotoxic: exacerbated in vanco, cephs, ampho B, cisplatin and other nephrotoxics - ototoxicity - neuromuscular blockade in MG, common during surgery
aminoglycosides
97
- use for infections with aerobic gram negatives - ecoli, proteus, klebsiella, serratia, enterobacter - cell wall inhibitors are synergistic - treats pseduomonas in combo with penicillins - tuberculosis
aminoglycoside uses
98
- postantibiotic effect - useful for non resistant gram (-) infections - use older first
aminoglycosides
99
order of use of aminoglycosides for pseudomonas?
gentamycin > tobramycin > amikacin
100
- related to aminoglycosides and tetracyclines (30S IPS) | - useful against drug resistant gonococci and patients allergic to cephalosporins
spectinomycin