Anticoagulants, Antiplatelets, and Thrombolytics Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

anticoagulants

A

prevent clot formation of extension of existing clot. does not break down clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

antiplatelets

A

reduce platelet aggregation on the surface of the platelet. does not break down clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

thrombolytics

A

converts endogenous plasminogen to the fibrinolytic enzyme plasmin to dissolve newly formed blood clots. does break down clots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

intrinsic anticoagulant mechanisms (4)

A

fibrinolysis
tissue factor plasminogen inhibitor (TFPI)
protein C system
serine protease inhibitors (SERPINs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the main source of anticoagulation factors

A

capillary endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

prevention of blood coagulation outside of body (3)

A

siliconized containers (stored donated blood)
heparin in CPB or artificial kidney machines
citrate ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tissue factor plasminogen inhibitor

A

a polypeptide produced by endothelial cells. acts as natural inhibitor of extrinsic pathway by inhibiting TF-VIIa complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

protein C pathway (APC) 4 key elements

A

coagulation propagation is inhibited by this pathway, consists of

  1. protein C
  2. thrombomodulin
  3. endothelial protein C receptor
  4. protein S
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

protein C

A

enzyme with potent anticoagulant, profibrinolytic and anti inflammatory properties. activated by thrombin to form activated protein C (APC) and acts by inhibiting activated factors V and VII (with protein S and phospholipids acting as cofactors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

thrombomodulin

A

transmembrane receptor on endothelial cells. prevents the formation of the clot in the undamaged endothelium by binding to the thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

endothelial protein C receptor

A

another transmembrane receptor that helps activation of protein C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

protein S

A

vitamin K dependent glycoprotein, synthesized by endothelial cells and hepatocytes. activity is by virtue of free form while bound form acts as inhibitor of complement system and sup regulated in inflammatory states, which reduce protein S levels thus resulting in procoagulant state. it functions as a cofactors to APC in inactivation of FVa and FVIIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
SERPIN: antithrombin
binds to (which pathway?)
enhanced in
synthesized in
t1/2
A

(previously known at ATIII)
main inhibitor of thrombin
binds and inactivates thrombin, factor IIa, IXa, Xa, XIa and XIIa
enzymatic activity of AT is enhanced in presence of heparin and lovenox
endogenous AT synthesized in liver
plasma t1/2 2.5-3.8 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SERPIN: antithrombin deficiency

A

hereditary AT deficiency estimated to be 1 in 2-5k

acquired deficiency ie prolonged heparin infusions >4-5 days decreased plasma AT activity by 50-60% of normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

citrate ion

A

prevents coagulation of PRBC’s or any blood outside of body
any substance that deionized calcium will prevent coagulation
negatively charged citrate ion combines with positively charged calcium in the blood to cause an un ionized calcium compound
after injection, citrate ion is removed by the liver and is polymerized into glucose or metabolized.
-if there is liver damage or massive transfusion, citrate ion may not be removed quickly enough, and this can greatly depress the level of calcium in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

anticoagulants (5 groups)

A
vitamin K antagonists
unfractionated heparin
low MW heparin and fondaparinux
direct thrombin inhibitors
direct oral anticoagulants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

coumadins MOA

A

vitamin K antagonists, results in hemostatically defective vitk dependent coagulation proteins (II, VII, IX, X or 2,7,9,10)
effect caused by competing with vitamin K for reactive sites in enzymatic processes for formation of prothrombin and other clotting factors, thereby blocking action of vitamin K
platelet activity not altered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
coumadin PK
absorption 
protein binding
elimination t1/2************
contraindications
metabolism
A

rapidly and completely absorbed
97% protein bound
long elimination half life of 24-36h after PO admin
dont use in parturient-teratogenic
metabolized to inactive metabolites that are conjugated and excreted in bile and urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
coumadin use
dose
onset
duration of single dose
INR effects
measurement
A

effective in prevention of thromboembolisms
2.5-10mg PO, dose varies among patients
onset 3-4d
duration of single dose 2-4d
effects seen on INR in 8-12h due to depletion of factor VII, however full clinical effects are not appreciated for several days
measured by PT/INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

INR goals with coumadin: 2-3x normal range (5)

A
afib
VTE tx
PE tx
prevention of VTE in high risk surgery
tissue heart valves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

INR goals with coumadin: 2.5-3.5x normal range (3)

A

mechanical heart valve
prevention of recurrent MI
hx VTE with INR 2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

coumadin management before minor surgery

A

discontinue 1-5 days preop for PT 20% within baseline. reinstitute regimen 1-7d postop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

coumadin surgical management: immediate surgery (24-48h) or active bleeding

A

give vitamin K 2.5-20mg PO or 1-5mg IV at a rate of 1mg/min

PT to normal range within 4-24h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

coumadin surgical management: emergency

A

FFP or 4 factor concentrate aka Kcentra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
heparin endogenously, what exogenous heparin is usually a mixture of
naturally occurring polysaccharide that inhibits coagulation. heparin is released endogenously by mast cells and basophils. mixture of glycosaminoglycans that produce anticoagulant effect by binding to and enhancing naturally occurring effects of antithrombin
26
why would heparin be a problem for those that do not consume animal products
heparin is derived from porcine intestine or bovine lung
27
Unfractionated heparin MOA
binds to antithrombin (antithrombin III). enhances the ability of antithrombin 1000 times to inactivate a number of coagulation enzymes. functions as anticoagulant by accelerating normally occurring antithrombin induced neutralization of activated clotting factors neutralized thrombin prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
28
Unfractionated Heparin MW, binding
large MW only about 1/3 of administered heparin binds to antithrombin, and this fraction is responsible for its anticoagulant effect
29
United States Pharmacopoeia (USP) and heparin
USP defines 1 unit of activity as amount of heparin that maintains fluidity of 1mL of citrated plasma for one hour after re calcification. heparin must contain at least 120 USP units/mL because commercial preparations vary in the number of USP units per mL, it is prescribed in units
30
``` Unfractionated heparin PK lipid solubility population you can use it with protein binding DOA monitoring t1/2 prolongation ```
poor lipid solubility (large molecule), cannot cross lipid barriers in large amounts safe in obstetrics since it does not cross placenta circulates bound to plasma proteins DOA 1.5-4h most commonly monitored via biologic activity aka clotting time in seconds decrease in body temp prolonged t1/2 so during bypasses or neurosurgery
31
how is injected heparin destroyed
the enzyme heparinase
32
dose-response relationship of heparin
100units/kg IV elimination t1/2 56min | 400 units/kg IV elimination t1/2 152 min
33
lab tests used to monitor heparin (3)
aPTT: expect 1.5-2.5 times pre drug value (30-35s) ACT: baseline, 3-5 min post admin, 30m-1h intervals post admin. may need to redose to keep ACT up HEPSTEM
34
clinical uses of heparin (7) and ACT's for: vascular or non CBP cases, interventional aneurysm clipping/coiling, CPB
SQ VTE and PE prophylaxis: ERAS cases, ortho cases, post MI, hemodialysis warfarin bridge vascular or non CBP cases vary ACT >200-300 seconds interventional aneyurysm clipping/coiling >250 seconds CPB- act> 400-480 seconds (inadequate <180)
35
heparin dosing example: prophylaxis for thromboembolism
5000 units SQ q8-12h TBW
36
heparin dosing example: tx of thromboembolism
5000 units IV TBW followed by continuous infusion for goal PTT 1.5-2.5 times control value
37
heparin dosing example: cardiopulmonary bypass
400 units/kg IV TBW
38
heparin dosing example: vascular interventions
100-150units/kg IV TBW
39
heparin SE (8)
``` hemorrhage, hematomas thrombocytopenia, HIT allergic reaction hypotension with large doses altered protein binding chronic exposure can progress to reduction of antithrombin activity ```
40
intraspinal hematoma incidence and patients with increased likelihood of this occurring (5)
incidence .1 per 100,000 patients per year -more likely to occur in anti coagulated or thrombocytopenia patients, patients with neoplastic disease, liver disease, alcoholism
41
IV heparin and neuraxial anesthesia
1 hour delay between needle placement and heparin administration catheter should be removed 1 hour before heparin administration and 2-4h after last heparin dose monitor PTT or ACT
42
HIT definition and clinical confirmation
heparin dependent antibodies that aggregate platelets and leads to consumption which produces thrombocytopenia clinically confirmed with laboratory tests for antibodies
43
Mild or type 1 HIT
30-40% of heparin treated patients get this. non immune mediated PLT count <100,000cells/mm^3 typically presents 3-15 days after initiation of therapy
44
severe or type II HIT
.5-6% of heparin treated patients get this immune mediated plt count <50,000 cells/mm^3 typically presents 6-10 days after initiation of therapy
45
heparin allergic reactions and 3 sx
since heparin is obtained from animal tissues, caution should be used in patients with preexisting allergy history. fever, urticaria, hemodynamic changes can be found with a true allergic reaction
46
antithrombin deficiency and heparin
patients with antithrombin deficiency will have resistance to heparin no antithrombin=nothing for heparin to bind to occurs in up to 22% of patients undergoing cardiac surgery patient who received intermittent or continuous heparin therapy may manifest a progressive, paradoxical reduction of antithrombin this decrease in antithrombin may paradoxically increase thrombotic tendency. estrogen containing contraceptives also decrease antithrombins ability to inhibit Xa
47
treatment to restore normal antithrombin values when heparin resistance is secondary to antithrombin deficiency
2-4units FFP in adults | antithrombin concentrate
48
heparin reversal and dose
protamine for heparin neutralization 1-1.5mg for each 100units of heparin administered (take into account how long case has been and metabolized heparin)
49
LMWH derived from
standard commercial grade unfractionated heparin by chemical depolymerization to yield fragments approx 1/3 the size of heparin. depolymerization results in changes to anticoagulant profile, PK and effects on platelet function
50
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) MOA and dose example
binds to and accelerates antithrombin. inhibits factors Xa and IIa (Xa>IIa) factor Xa catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, so enoxaparins inhibition of this process results in decreased thrombin activity and prevention of fibrin clot formation. (smaller, less protein binding) DVT prophylaxis dose example: 30mg SQ q12h
51
Enoxaparin advantages
reduced dosing frequency, lack of need for monitoring more predictable PK response fewer effects on platelet function reduced risk for HIT
52
Enoxaparin disadvantages
more expensive surgery must be delayed for 12 hours after last dose protamine only neutralizes about 65% of anti factor X activity. a more complete reversal must be with FFP but still dont have a great reversal for LMWH
53
Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOAC's) uses examples
``` alternatives to warfarin (tx of VTE, prevention of embolic CVA, prophylaxis in patients undergoing surgery direct thrombin (IIa) inhibitor: dabigatran direct factor Xa inhibitor: rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban ```
54
DOAC advantages
rapid onset with peak effect 2-4h predictable pharmacodynamics minimal drug interactions no required routine lab monitoring
55
Dabigatran (Pradaxa) type of drug elimination
direct thrombin IIa inhibitor "the renal elimination one". decrease dose in renal patients t1/2 12 hours unless reduced renal function
56
Dabigatran monitoring
challenging to monitor- coagulation assay dilute thrombin time aPTT ROTEM
57
Dabigatran reversal:
Idarucizumab (Praxbind) specific for this drug binds to dabigatran with 350x higher affinity than thrombin t1/2 45 minutes
58
direct factor Xa inhibitors (3)
rivaroxaban (Xarelto) Apixaban (Eliquis) Edoxaban (Savaysa)
59
Direct factor Xa inhibitors: metabolism monitoring
metabolism: mostly hepatic, 65-70% monitoring: still challenging. coagulation assay or anti Xa, which is not widely available ROTEM is not sensitive PT can be helpful for rivaroxaban only
60
general management of DOAC treated patients undergoing surgery: minimal bleeding risk
likely safe to undergo with no DOAC interruptions | ex) minor dental procedures, cataracts, skin biopsies
61
general management of DOAC treated patients undergoing surgery: low bleeding risk procedures
generally recommended to stop DOAC 24 h prior to elective surgery ex hernia repair
62
general management of DOAC treated patients undergoing surgery: high bleeding risk
generally recommended interruption of DOAC therapy 48h prior to elected surgery. longer interruption interval necessary for dabigatran and impaired renal function ex) cardiac, intracranial surgeries
63
antiplatelets agent classes (3)
cyclooxygenase inhibitors (asa, NSAIDS) P2Y12 receptor antagonists glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitors
64
antiplatelets MOA and indications
suppress platelet function (inhibit platelet aggregation) for the prevention of thrombosis antiplatelet therapy is indicated for patients at risk for CVA's, MI, or other vascular thrombosis complications.
65
mechanisms for platelet suppression include
COX inhibition TXA2 inhibition ADP receptor antagonism GP IIb/IIIa receptor antagonism
66
aspirin MOA and dose
exerts antithrombotic effects by inhibiting platelet aggregation. inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis by interfering with activity of cyclooxyrgenase 1 and 2 enzymes and subsequent release of ADP by platelets and their aggregation effects are irreversible and last the life of the platelet dose: 81-325mg
67
ASA and cyclooxygenase
cyclooxyrgenase is nonfunctional because acetyl group of ASA causes acetylation of cyclooxygenase. cyclooxygenase is the rate limiting enzyme in the conversion of arachidonic acid to thromboxane A2
68
NSAIDS (3 drugs)
ketorlac naprosyn ibuprofen
69
NSAIDS MOA and DOA
``` same MOA as aspirin, nonselective COX inhibitors. reversible depress thromboxane A2 and production by platelets more temporary (24-48h) and are often held prior to surgery ```
70
management of ASA in the preoperative period: primary prophylaxis
for hyperlipidemia in the absence of established CV disease ASA 81-325mg probably hold but at discretion of surgeon
71
management of ASA in preop period: secondary prophylaxis
for afib, previous MI, stent. probably will continue but assessment and talking with surgeon will help.
72
hold asa in these specific circumstances:
intracranial, middle ear, posterior eye or intramedullary spine surgery, possibly in prostate surgery. decision should be documented
73
P2Y12 receptor antagonist examples (2)
clopidogrel | ticagrelor
74
P2Y12 receptor antagonist MOA discontinue window platelet function studies reversal
inhibitors of platelet activator and aggregation through irreversible binding of its active metabolite to P2Y12 class of ADP receptors on platelets - must dc 7 days prior to surgery - platelet function studies are unreliable for clopidogrel, but inhibit of the P2Y12 ADP receptor is available - platelet transfusion is useful for emergent surgery and restoring hemostasis
75
Clopidogrel
pro drug and must be metabolized by CYP450 enzymes to produce active metabolite that inhibits platelet aggregation for the life of the platelet
76
Ticagrelor
does not need hepatic activation and might work better for patients with genetic variants. recent PLATO trial suggests that ticagrelor has better mortality rates in treating patients with ACS (v clopidogrel)
77
indications for P2Y12 receptor antagonists
secondary prevention of MI, CVA Acute coronary stenting acute coronary syndrome peripheral artery disease
78
P2Y12 and PCI/stents
PCI causes endothelial and medial damage that heals by neointimal formation, usually within 2-6 weeks with bare metal stents. however, with drug eluding stents, re endothelialization and neointimal healing are delayed, keeping stent struts exposed, which causes platelet aggregation and thrombus formation. as a general approach, elective surgical procedures should be delayed by at least 6 weeks after BMS and 6 months after DES placement.
79
``` ASA secondary prevention and reduced mortality withdrawal consideratons synergistic drug periop ACS ```
- secondary prevention with ASA reduces mortality up to 30% in high risk groups - withdrawal of ASA in patients with CAD is associated with 2-4x increase in death/MI - ASA and P2Y12 receptor antagonists act synergistically - 10% of ACS in the perioperative period are precipitated by preop cessation of ASA
80
stents and high risk
patients with stents are at a high risk of thrombotic events especially in first 3 months after insertion
81
Platelet Glycoprotein IIb/IIIA antagonists MOA, uses
act at corresponding fibrinogen receptor that is important for platelet aggregation blocks fibrinogen which is final common pathway of platelet aggregation utilized in ACS, angioplasty failures, and stent thrombosis can inject this drug directly into thrombosis in IR
82
Platelet Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist drug examples (3)
abciximab (ReoPro) Tirofiban (Aggrastat) Eptifibatide (Integrillin)
83
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist monitoring, t1/2, SE, reversal
effects can be monitored with ACT's and reversible with the clarance of the drug ACT maintained between 200-400 seconds most of these agents are renally excreted and have half lives around 2.5h except abciximab which has 12 hour t1/2 and clinical effects lasting 48h platelet counts should be monitored, and therapy discontinued if thrombocytopenia develops (<100,000 cells/mm3) effects of these drugs can be reversed with platelet transfusions
84
herbal anticoagulants (6)
``` garlic ginko ginseng black cohosh fish oil feverfew ```
85
garlic
inhibits platelet aggregation, discontinue for 7d
86
gingko
inhibits platelet activating factor, discontinue for 36h
87
ginseng
inhibits platelet aggregation and lowers BG. check PT/PTT/glucose, d/c for 24 hours (preferably 7d)
88
black cohosh
claims to be useful for menopausal symptoms. contains small amounts of anti inflammatory compounds, infusing salicylic acid
89
fish oil
claims to prevent/treat atherosclerotic CV disease (800-1500mg/day). also used to decrease triglycerides (>4g/day). dose dependent bleeding risk increases with dose >3g/day
90
feverfew
claims to prevent migraines. increases risk of bleeding because it individually inhibits platelet aggregation. has additive effects with other anti platelet drugs. also has additive effects with warfarin
91
fibrinolysis
when blood clot is initially formed, it is a semi solid mass consisting of platelets and a fibrin mesh that traps WBC's and plasma the clot solidifies as platelets contract and squeeze out water
92
plasminogen
serum protein that is absorbed into clot at its formation. cleaved into plasmin which breaks down fibrin and fibrinogen. tissue plasminogen activator and urokinase type plasminogen activators are released from capillary endothelium
93
thrombolytics, fibrin specific (3)
alteplase (TPA) reteplase tenecteplase
94
thrombolytics, non fibrin specific
streptokinase
95
thrombolytics MOA
possess inherent fibrinolytic effects or enhances body fibrinolytic system by converting endogenous pro enzyme plasminogen to fibrinolytic enzyme plasmin. more capable of dissolving newly formed clots.
96
what does plasmin break down
fibrin
97
active form of plasminogen
plasmin
98
uses of thrombolytics, risk, window of use
used to restore circulation through previously occluded vessel (STEMI, acute ischemic CV, acute massive PE) - bleeding most common risk - usually 6 hour window
99
contraindications of thrombolytics
trauma, severe HTN, active bleeding, pregnancy
100
alteplase window of use administration considerations t1/2
fibrin specific thrombolytic drug synthesized by endothelial cells limited to use in the first 3-6h of ischemic CVA can be administered systemically or directly into embolism short t1/2 (about 5 min) so usually bolus then do gtt
101
streptokinase
protein produced by beta hemolytic streptococci not an enzyme, instead noncovalently binds to plasminogen and converts it to plasminogen activator complex that acts on other plasminogen molecules to generate plasmin t1/2 20 minutes as a bacterial product, may stimulate antibody production and subsequent allergic reactions least expensive of thrombolytic drugs, therefore used internationally.
102
thrombolytic adverse effects
``` bleeding re thrombosis (anticoagulants such as heparin are usually co administered and continued after thrombolytic therapy) ```