Antiinfectives Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

what are high level chrmical sterilants

A

destroy all microorganisms

aldehydes, hypochlorites, peroxygenes

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2
Q

what are low level disinfectants

A

destroy most bacteria, some viruses and fungi

excludes TB, some viruses, fungi, bacterial spores, prions

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3
Q

what are some intermediate-level disinfectants

A

destroy all bacteria, most viruses and fungi

excludes some viruses, bacterial spores and prions; like alcohols, phenolics, iodine

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4
Q

what are antisepsis disinfectants

A

work on living tissues
decrease wound infections/normal skin flora prior to surgery
decrease spread of infection by hand cleansing

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5
Q

what are the properties of 4% chlorhexidine gluconate antiseptic

A

high activity in immediate, persistent, residual disinfectants

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6
Q

what are the properties of alcohol and chlorhexidine antiseptic

A

high activity in immediate, persistent and residual disinfectants

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7
Q

what factors affect choice of chemical agent

A

higher bioburden required higher concentrations and longer expsore times
biofilms are more resistant to disinfectants

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8
Q

what is transient bacteria

A

gram negative

like e.coli

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9
Q

what is resident bacteria

A

gram positive

staph.a

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10
Q

what effect does organic matter have on sterilisation

A

can reduce antimicrobial capacity

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11
Q

what effect do divalent cations have on sterilisation

A

reduced activity and stabalise cell walls, block disinfectant adsorption sites

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12
Q

what effect does dilution have on sterilisation

A

higher conc of disinfectant increases efficacy and reduces exposure time, but dilution does not affect killing capacity of all disinfectants in the same way

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13
Q

what is the suspension test

A

dilutions of disinfectant added to standardised bacterial suspension in water and albumin at set temp
at specific time interval, sample removed, disinfectant neutralised, determines viable count

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14
Q

what validation does the suspension test give

A

know viable count of innoculum, experimental conditions validation, neutraliser toxicity validation, disinfectant neutralisation validation

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15
Q

what qualatative test estimates bacteriostasis

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

estimation of bacteriostasis

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16
Q

how are minimum inhibitory concentrations tested

A

double dilutions of test agent prepared, innoculated with test organism, incubate overnight, score for growth, MIC is lowest conc with no growth

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17
Q

what is the disc susceptability test

A

agar spread with test organism, filter paper disc impregnates with known conc test agent placed on plate, zone of growth inhibition indicates antimicrobial activity, measure, compare to standards

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18
Q

how to evaluate antiseptics with time kill

A

for each microorganism and antimicrobial; dilute each test agent, innoculate with test organism, at designated time intervals remove sample/neutralise antimicrobial and determine viable count

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19
Q

what classes of agent are used as disinfectants

A

organic acids and esters, aliphatic alcohols, aldehydes, biguanides, halogens, hydrogen peroxide and peracetic acid, phenolics, surface acting agents

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20
Q

what are the advantages of using aliphatic alcohols

A

broad antimicrobial activity- active against bacteria including fungi, rapid kill, water soluble, relatively non-toxic, no residues

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21
Q

what are the disadvantages of using aliphatic alcohols

A

non sporicidal, isopropranolol not virucidal, poor penetration of organic matter, high dilution coefficient, flammable

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22
Q

what are examples of aliphatic alcohols

A

ethanol, isopropanol

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23
Q

what are examples of aldehydes

A

glutaraldehyde, formaldehyde

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24
Q

what are advantages of aldehydes

A

broad spectrum, sporicidal, rapid kill, not affected by organic matter

25
what are disadvantages of aldehydes
unstable, activity lowered by polymerisation, toxic
26
what is an example of biguanides
chlorhexidine
27
what are advantages of biguanides
good bacterial activity, non toxic
28
what are disadvantages of biguanides
not active against mycobacteria or viruses, not sporicidal or virucidal, not very soluble in water, activity decreased by anionic compounds
29
what are some examples of halogens
Cl2 active against bacteria, fungi, viruses and spores irritant
30
what are some advantages of hypochlorites
readily available, cheap/compatible, broad spectrum, rapid kill
31
what are some disadvantages of hypochlorites
corrosive, irritant, inactivated by organic matter, unstable
32
what are advantages of using iodine
broad spectrum, rapid kill, less affected by pH/temp/organic matter compared to Cl2 compounds
33
what are some disadvantages of using iodine
stains skin and fabric, irritant
34
what are idophores
allow slow release of I2 from a complex
35
what are some examples of iodophores
povidone-iodine
36
what are some advantages of peroxygen compounds
powerful antimicrobials and sporicides, active in presence of organic matter
37
what are some disadvantages of peroxygen compounds
unstable in sunlight, irritant, corrosive
38
what are some advantages of phenolics
good antimicrobial activity, poor sporicide, cheap
39
what are some disadvantages of phenolics
activity decreased by dilution, some are harmful/toxic, some have strong odour, some corrosive
40
what are examples of substituted phenols
phenolic tar acids, cresols, xylenols, ethyl phenols
41
what are some advantages of substituted phenols
broad spectrum, rapid kill, cheap, not affected by organic matter
42
what are some disadvantages of substituted phenols
not sporicidal, leave residues
43
what are cationic surface-active agents
quaternary ammonium compounds
44
what are advantages of cationic surface agents
water soluble, most effective, stable, non-toxic, non-corrosive, broad spectrum, active at low conc
45
what are some disadvantages of cationic surface active agents
not sporicidal, activity decreased by organic matter
46
what are examples of drugs with narrow therapeutic window
theophylline, digoxin, lithium, amoniglycosides, antiepileptic drugs
47
what does TDM stand for
therapeutic drug monitoring
48
what is TDM
intervention that improves pt response and decreases adverse reactions, intervention to optimise clinical outcome and manage pt condition with measured drug conc
49
what are some commonly monitored drugs
anticonvulsants (primidone, valoprate), antiarrythmias (digoxin, lidocaine), antiasthmatics (theophylline), immunosuppressives (cyclosporin), antidepressants (lithium, TCAs), antineoplasics (methotrexate), abx (aminoglycides, glycopeptides)
50
what is the ideal therapeutic level for gentamicin
5-10microns/mL
51
what are some reasons for TDM
narrow therapeutic range, assessment of adherance to medication, suspected toxicity, lack of response, unpredictable dose, no clear endpoint to observable therapeutic success, C-at steady state, assess therapy following change in dosing regime, change in pt state, drug interaction, toxicity and disease symptoms are similar
52
what are the physiochemical properties of gentamicin
very water soluble, poorly lipid soluble, poor oral absorption
53
what is the primary phase of aminoglycoside action
rapid, drug conc dependent action
54
what is the secondary phase of aminoglycoside action
slow, independentt of drug conc, postantibiotic effect is prolonged, surviving bacteria may not be able to metabolise for up to 8hours after extracellular aminoglycoside has been washed away exposure of surviving bacteria to second dose of amoniglycoside before they have recovered from the first impairs bactericidal effect of second dose
55
what are the risks of using gentamicin
nephro and ototoxicity can occur after accumulation in tissues important to ensure that preak drug concs are high enough but also that values sufficiently low to avoid accumulation
56
how does gentamicin work
active transport into cells of the inner ear and renal proximal tubule kidneys are the major site of drug deposition
57
what is gentamicin toxicity related to
the duration of the treatment
58
how to reduce nephrotoxicity of gentamicin
once daily administration; saturable uptake into renal cortex