antimicrobial stewardship, sti, covid, global health Flashcards

(147 cards)

1
Q

antimicrobial stewardship

A

coordinated interventions designed to improve and measure the appropriate use of antibiotic agents by promoting the selection of the optimal drug regimen including dosing, duration of therapy, and route of administration

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2
Q

goals of antimicrobial stewardship

A
  • optimize clinical outcomes
  • minimize toxicity and AEs
  • reduce infection costs
  • prevent resistance
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3
Q

what is the biggest reason we need stewardship?

A

resistance

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4
Q

two ways resistance spread?

A

animals
humans after antibiotic course

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5
Q

resistant pathogens of threat

A

urgent:
1) carbapenem-resistant acinetobacter
2) carbapenem-resistant enterobacterales
- klebsiella (KPC), enterobacter

serious:
3) ESBL (extended-spectrum beta lactamase) producing enterbacerales
- klebsiella, enterobacter
4) vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE)
5) multidrug resistant pseudomonas aeruginosa
6) methicillin resistant staph aureus (MRSA)

concerning:

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6
Q

does bacterial colonization mean we treat?

A

not always –> colonization does not mean infection
*catheters will always grow bacteria!!!

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7
Q

problems with antibacterial prescribing

A
  • low threshold to prescribe
  • broad spectrum empiric therapy never deescalated
  • suboptimal regimens used –> want narrowest spectrum!!
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8
Q

consequences of inappropriate antibiotic therapy

A

patient:
- inadequate treatment
- AEs
- allergic reactions
- superinfections
- resistance
- selection for problem pathogens like c diff

society:
- resistance
- collateral damage (ruin natural biome –> c diff)
- inc healthcare costs

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9
Q

benefits of antimicrobial stewardship

A
  • improve patient outcomes
  • dec AEs
  • minimize resistance/maximize susceptibility
  • resource optimization
  • reduce healthcare cost without dec quality of care
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10
Q

UTI treatment requirements

A

NOT if bacteria in urine but not symptoms (asymptomatic bacteriuria)

UNLESS
1) pregnant
2) urologic procedure (inc risk goes into blood during procedure)

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11
Q

UTI symptoms that indicate treatment

A

ONLY
1) dysuria (painful/burning urination)
2) inc frequency
3) inc urgency
4) superpubic pain

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12
Q

IV MRSA options

A
  • vancomycin
  • linezolid
  • daptomycin
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13
Q

PO pseudomonas options

A

ONLY fluoroquinolones
- ciprofloxacin
- levofloxacin
- delafloxacin

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14
Q

linezolid considerations

A
  • toxicity if use more than 2 weeks (bone marrow suppression)
  • SSRI interaction
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15
Q

CDC 7 core elements of hospital antimicrobial stewardship programs (ASP) essentials

A

1) hospital leadership commitment
2) accountability
3) pharmacy expertise
4) action
5) tracking
6) reporting
7) education

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16
Q

linezolid DDI

A

SSRIs

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17
Q

daptomycin DDI

A

statins

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18
Q

pharmacy based stewardship interventions

A

a) document indication
b) IV to PO switch
c) dose adjust/optimization
d) time sensitive automatic stop orders
e) penicillin allergy assessment
f) detection/prevention of antibiotic DDIs
g) formulary restriction and preauthorization

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19
Q

duration of antibiotics for a complicated intra-abdominal infection with adequate source control?

A

4 days
STOP-IT trial!

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20
Q

what type of allergy can Bactrim cause

A

type IV –> delayed, cell-mediated (T cells) not antibody mediated!!

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21
Q

type I allergies

A

IgE mediated –> release histamine and other mediators from mast cells and basophils

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22
Q

severe penicillin allergy definition and options

A

definition
- anaphylaxis, hives, SOB, serious skin reaction (SJS, TENS, DRESS)

options
- alternate agent
OR
- desensitize IF no other non beta-lactam option

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23
Q

non-severe penicillin allergy definition and options

A

definition
- skin rash

options
- challenge a cephalosporin or carbapenem

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24
Q

penicillin cross reactivity with cephalosporins

A

very low
1st gen is more reactive than 3rd and 4th gen
check R1 side chain

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25
penicillin cross reactivity with carbapenems
very low check R1 side chain
26
penicillin cross reactivity with aztreonam
NONE --> CAN USE IF SEVERE PENICILLIN ALLERGY! BUT caution if ceftazidime or cefiderocol allergy
27
cephalosporin cross reactivity with aztreonam
SAME SIDE CHAIN: ceftazidime, cefiderocol therefore do not use if allergy to these ones!
28
penicillin allergy alternatives
- vancomycin - fluoroquinolones - clindamycin - aztreonam BUT inc cost, inc MDR, inc AE risk, inc c diff risk
29
how to assess penicillin allergy?
what happened? --> severity when? --> dec overtime anything similar? check inpatient and outpatient for similar **if have taken similar and tolerated after the documented allergy --> probably less severe, can use again!
30
penicillin skin testing
1) puncture testing (superficial) histamine (+ control), saline (- control), penicillin think PPD 2) intradermal testing (deeper) 3) low dose PO penicillin or amoxicillin
31
when do you use penicillin skin testing
type 1 hypersensitivities (IgE mediated)
32
desensitization process
- TEMPORARILY allows drug toleration - ONLY if alternatives cannot be used - start low dose, double every 15 min if tolerating - IV preferred, could do SQ or PO
33
which drugs get formulary restricted?
- broad spectrum - last resort - if have shortage - expensive
34
biggest rule of stewardship
use the most narrow spectrum that will treat the infection
35
empiric treatment steps
1) identify the most likely pathogen based on location and type of infection 2) select antibiotic based on the pattern of susceptibility for that most likely pathogen - antibiogram! STILL ORDER THE CULTURE!
36
what is an antibiogram
susceptibility rates of bacteria OVER A DEFINED PERIOD OF TIME - % of organism isolates that were susceptible
37
definitive treatment steps
the culture gives exact organism AND ITS EXACT SUSCEPTIBILITY therefore, use that and consider PK parameters and if can get to site of infection NO ANTIBIOGRAM!!
38
MSSA drugs of choice
nafcillin (IV) oxacillin dicloxacillin cefazolin (IV) cephalexin
39
MRSA drugs of choice
ceftaroline vancomycin daptomycin linezolid in addition (if community acquired): bactrim clindamycin doxycycline
40
pneumonia 3 most common organisms
SMH strep pneumo morax catt h influenzae
41
streptococci drugs of choice
penicillins cephalosporins vancomycin only if strep pneumoniae: levofloxacin moxifloxacin NOT CIPRO --> DOESN'T COVER!
42
what do cephalosporins not cover?
LAME listeria acinetobacter MRSA (except ceftaroline) enterococcus
43
enterococci drugs of choice
ampicillin vancomycin daptomycin linezolid NOT CEPHALOSPORINS
44
what does ertapenem not cover?
ertAPEnem acinetobacter pseudomonas enterococcus
45
pseudomonas drugs of choice
piperacillin/tazobactam cefepime ceftazidime cefiderocol carbapenems (not ert) aztreonam aminoglycosides fluoroquinolones (not moxi) --> only po option!
46
acinetobacter drugs of choice
VERY RESISTANT --> need susceptibilities!! ampicillin/sulbactam (the sulbactam is active) cefiderocol meropenem
47
penicillinases drugs of choice
*add a beta-lactamase inhibitor amox/clavulanate ampi/sulbactam piper/tazobactam
48
cephalosporinases drugs of choice
carbapenems
49
ESBL drugs of choice
carbapenems piperacillin/tazobactam
50
CRE (carbapenem resistant enterobacteriacae) drugs of choice
cefiderocol if KPC (klebsiella): ceftazidime /avibactam meropenem/vaborbactam imipenem/cilastatin/relebactam
51
oral anaerobes drugs of choice
above diaphragm peptostreptococcus, prevotella CLINDAMYCIN amox/clav, ampi/sulb, pip/tazo carbapenems
52
intestinal anaerobes drugs of choice
below diaphragm Bacteriodes --> B. fragilis METRONIDAZOLE amox/clav, ampi/sulb, pip/tazo carbapenems
53
c diff drugs of choice
1st: fidaxomicin PO 2nd: vancomycin PO metronidazole IV (if fulminant)
54
HECK Yes organisms
Hafnia alvei Enterobacter cloacae Citrobacter freundii Klebsiella aerogenes Yersinia enterocolitica
55
HECK Yes organisms drugs of choice
cefepime piperacillin/tazobactam ?? carbapenems AVOID 3rd gen cephalosporins --> ceftriaxone
56
what do you avoid in HECK Yes organisms? why?
ceftriaxone (3rd gen cephal) inducible AmpC - appear S on report, after exposure will inc AmpC beta lactamases and get resistant
57
which HECK Yes organisms are highest risk for inducible AmpC
ECK enterobacter cloacae citrobacter freundii klebsiella aerogenes
58
what is the only case you can use ceftriaxone in AmpC organsism?
to treat uncomplicated cystitis
59
syphilis risk factors/more common in
men black 20-29 yrs
60
what is unique about syphilis?
STAGES!! (3)
61
cause and transmission of syphilis
cause: spirochete --> treponema pallidum transmission: direct mucocutaneous contact aka sexual transmission
62
syphilis stage 1
primary - chancre at infection site --> genitals (penis, vagina, rectum, anus) OR lips/mouth - symptomatic OR asymptomatic **epidermal/local signs and symptoms
63
syphilis stage 2
secondary - only 25% develop second stage (NOT ALL) - develops within 6 months - rash, lymphadenopathy, fatigue, organ involvement, fever, rash - 75% risk of hematogenous dissemination (bacteremia) **systemic signs and symptoms
64
syphilis stage 3
latency early latency - within 1-2 years - asymptomatic late latency - complicated organ involvement - CV, gummoatous lesions - **neurosyphilis of brain and spinal cord (neurologic complications)
65
syphilis asymptomatic screening/Dx
screen if risk factors - acquisition: black, male, 20-29 - transmission: pregnant
66
syphilis symptomatic screening/Dx
if risk factors (transmission, acquisition) then presumptive Dx - 2 tests - treponemal: if every infected - nontreponemal: if active infection
67
primary, secondary, early latency syphilis treatment
benzathine penicillin G IM into butt 2.4 million U x1
68
late latency syphilis treatment
benzathine penicillin G IM into butt 2.4 million U qweek for 3 weeks total!!!
69
neurosyphilis and ocularsyphilis treatment
1st: aqueous crystalline penicillin G IV 18-24 million U /day --> continuous IV or 3-4 mill U q4h 10-14 days! 2nd: aqueous crystalline penicillin G IM into butt 2.4 million U QD + probenecid PO 500 mg QID both for 10-14 days!
70
what does chlamydia commonly impact/cause in men and women?
women - impacts cervix - cervicitis - could be PID, urethritis --> serious men - nongonococcal urethritis
71
chlamydia risk factors/most common in
women 15-24 black
72
treatment for chlamydia
1st: doxycycline 100mg po BID x 7 days 2nd: azithromycin 1g po x1
73
treatment for chlamydia in pregnancy
1st: azithromycin 1g po x1
74
gonorrhea symptom onset
appear LATER --> within 10 days
75
gonorrhea presentation
urethritis cervicitis PHARYNGITIS pid
76
what can untreated gonorrhea lead to?
bacteremia (hematogenous dissemination) arthritis meningitis
77
gonorrhea risk factors/more common in
men black
78
unique about gonorrhea
pharyngitis later onset of symptoms (w/i 10 days) high resistance to antibiotics
79
first line gonorrhea treatment
1st: ceftriaxone 250mg IM x 1
80
first line gonorrhea treatment if PCN allergy
azithromycin 2g PO x1 + gentamicin 240mg IM x 1
81
first line gonorrhea treatment in pregnancy
ceftriaxone 250mg IM x1 + azithromycin
82
first line gonorrhea treatment in disseminated infection
ceftriaxone qd for >7 days THEN cefixime + azithromycin
83
is PID medically urgent?
YES
84
inpatient PID treatment
cefotetan/cefoxitin IV + doxycycline PO + metronidazole IF abcesses 14 days
85
outpatient PID treatment
ceftriaxone/cefoxitin (+ probenecid) IM x1 + doxycycline PO + metronidazole IF abcesses 14 days
86
can you change the dosage form of PID treatment
yes, can change to PO throughout treatment
87
what is EPT used for
chlamydia ONLY (and gonorrhea ig lol)
88
EPT chlamydia treatment
azithromycin 1g PO x1
89
EPT gonorrhea
cefixime 400mg PO x1 + azithromycin 1g PO x1
90
when do you screen for chlamydia or gonorrhea
if sexually active and have s/s
91
what Dx/screening test is used for gonorrhea and chlamydia
NAATs (nucleic acid amplification tests) ALWAYS test for both if testing for one!! --> similar s/s, common coinfection!
92
importance of communicable disease
**MOST IMPORTANT CONTRIBUTOR TO MORTALITY AND MORBIDITY HISTORICALLY - decline in North - are infectious diseases --> most are treatable and cureable - POVERTY plays huge role
93
major international health organizations
- WHO - world bank - intergovernmental agency - multilateral agencies: UN, UNICEF
94
measures of global health
1) morbidity - disease state, disability, poor health due to any cause - incidence, prevalence, incidence of developing new medical condition 2) mortality - number of deaths adjusted to population per time 3) disability adjusted life years (DALY) - measures time lived with disability and time lost due to premature mortality 4) quality adjusted life years (QALY) - expected survival + expected QOL - measures the value placed on expected years of survival
95
other social determinants of health that impact global health
- vulnerable settings - primary healthcare - non-communicable diseases - mental health - air pollution and climate change - maternal and child health - nutrition - injuries - sexual and gender violence
96
poverty and infectious disease
poverty is a cycle!! poverty --> low income --> poor sanitation and healthcare --> INFECTIOUS DISEASE --> dec work/productivity --> low income --> ....
97
other impacts on poverty and infectious disease
- variations in political/gov infrastructure - variations in economic, social, cultural factors - who controls government and makes health policy - war, conflict, natural disasters - climate differences --> insect vectors, intermediate hosts, weather patterns
98
infectious disease considerations
- resistance - vaccine hesitancy - diarrheal and respiratory illness - global influenza pandemic - "big four": HIV, malaria, hep C< TB - neglected tropical infections - high threat pathogens
99
top 10 infectious diseases
0.5) COVID 1) HIV/AIDS 2) ebola 3) SARS 4) malaria 5) anthrax 6) cholera 7) bubonic plague 8) influenza 9) typhoid fever 10) small pox
100
malaria organism
plasmodium parasites most common: P falciparum
101
malaria transmission
mosquitos
102
malaria disease impacts
infects RBCs
103
malaria s/s
mild: flu like severe: organ failure --> hemoglobinuria (hemorrhaging)
104
how fast do you want to treat malaria?
within 24-48 hours, can progress quickly
105
uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria first line
artemether + lumefantrine - IM or PO - fewer AE
106
second line uncomplicated malaria
artesunate + amodiaquine - IV or PO - caution: hepatic and renal impairments - more AE: GI, QT, ...
107
duration and dosage form
mild --> po severe --> iv 3 days
108
when do covid symptoms appear
5-6 days after infection
109
which is the most common covid presentation
mild-moderate
110
why did covid spread rapidly?
superspreaders asymptomatic spread mild spread
111
disease course of covid
stage 1: early infection - all viral response phase - mild s/s - mild clinical s/s stage 2: respiratory phase - viral response dec - host inflammatory response inc - SOB, hypoxia - abnormal chest imaging stage 3: hyperinflammation phase - all host inflammatory reponse - SIRS, shocks, ARDS, sepsis - inc inflammation markers --> IL-6, BNP, CRP, D-dimer
112
what is ARDS
acute respiratory distress syndrome - stage 3 of covid (hyperinflammatory) - so much fluid in lungs that there is little gas exchange - need to be in ICU
113
covid complications/risk factors
*these cause mortality, not really the virus itself - CV --.> inc MI - DM --> inc DKA, inc ARDS - hepatobiliary - GI - renal -- inc AKI - neurologic - thyrotoxicosis - muscultocutaneous --> rash - hematologic --> lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
114
covid variants
1) original 2) delta variant - inc tranmissability - dec vaccine efficacy - inc disease severity 3) omicron - inc inc transmissability - dec dec vaccine efficacy - many subvariants *major today are subvariants of omicron **need to consider the predominant variant at the time of publications!!!
115
neutralizing monoclonal antibodies
- pre-exposure and symptomatic - not FDA approved - bind to binding site therefore prevent entry into host cells - NOT ACTIVE AGAINST OMICRON -- DO NOT USE
116
paxlovid generic, dose, duration
nirmatrelvir/ritonavir 300mg/100mg --renal impaired--> 150mg/100mg 5 days ONLY NO MORE
117
nirmatrelvir/ritonavir indication
outpatient, high risk (atleast 1 risk factor), 12+, positive test, within 5 days of symptoms onset
118
paxlovid ddi
CYP 3A4 inducer --> many bc ritonavir
119
molnupiravir dose, duration
800mg po q12h - no renal/hepatic dose adjust 5 days ONLY
120
molnupiravir ddis
few high barrier to resistance
121
molnupiravir CI
PREGNANCY AND BREASTFEEDING
122
molnupiravir indication
outpatient mild-mod illness high risk (1 or more risk factors) 18+ not pregnant/breastfeeding within 5 days of symptoms positive test
123
order of therapies for outpatient, mild-mod illness, high risk, not on supplemental o2
1st: nirmatrelvir/ritonavir 2nd: remdesivir 3rd: molnupiravir --> only if no other options
124
therapies for outpatient, mild-mod illness, no supplemental o2, not high risk
symptoms management ONLY
125
remdesivir dosage form, dose, duration
IV ONLY 200mg IV LD --> 100mg IV qd - caution GFR < 30!! 5 days
126
remdesivir AEs
well tolerated overall - inc LFT - phlebitis - extremity pain
127
remdesivir indication
don't need all: outpatient OR inpatient, mild-mod disease, no oxygen, high risk, little oxygen - only use in severe if no other option (severe = O2sat < 94%) 1) hospitalized, no o2, high risk 2) hospitalized, some o2
128
remdesivir CI
GFR < 30 maybe on ventilation on ECMO
129
is remdesivir FDA approved?
YES
130
remdesivir benefit
dec time to clinical recovery NO mortality benefit broad antiviral activity
131
corticosteroid drug, dose, duration, route
dexamethasone 6 mg qd IV or PO 10 days or until discharge
132
dexamethasone indication
hospitalized (all!)
133
IL-6 antagonists
sarilumab --> not fda approved tocilizumab --> FDA APPROVED
134
tocilizumab dose, route, duration
IV 8mg/kg (max 800mg) x1 (over 1hr)
135
tocilizumab AE
inc LFT neutropenia, thrombocytopenia general infection SERIOUS INFECTIONS - TB, bacterial, fungal, bowel preforation ****NEED TO SCREEN TB AND INFECTION RISK BASELINE!
136
tocilizumab indication
1) hospitalized, need o2/vent/ecmo, getting dexamethasone 2) hospitalized, severe/progressive, inc inflammatory markers (CRP > 75) 1) hospitalized, o2, rapidly inc o2 demand, systemic inflammation 2) hospitalized, need HFNC o2 or NIV 3) hospitalized, need vent or ecmo
137
tocilizumab regimen
ALWAYS WITH SYSTEMIC GLUCOCORTICOIDS (they are the standard)
138
baricitinib dose, duration, route
PO 4mg qd 14 days or until discharge
139
baricitinib AE
infection thrombosis CAUTION: current infection, with IL-6 tocilizumab bc of immunosuppression risk
140
baricitinib indication
1) hospitalized, severe, need o2/vent 2) hospitalized, need o2/vent/ecmo/niv 3) hospitalized, need o2, rapidly inc o2 need, systemic inflammation 4) hospitalized, need nfnc or niv 5) hospitalized, need vent/ecmo
141
baricitinib regimen
with dexamethasone FDA approved
142
first line hospitalized, need o2/vent/ecmo/niv
dexamethasone + IV tocilizumab / PO baricitinib
143
is it SOC to give antibiotics for covid
NO - bacterial coinfection with COVID is uncommon
144
is it SOC to give therapeutic anticoagulation in covid
covid: inc time to clot, but have some disseminated clots --> concern over bleed risk if hospitalized, on supplemental o2, d-dimer > 4xULN (aka > 2000), no ICU: THERAPEUTIC heparin all else (less severe and more severe): PROPHYLATIC heparin
145
definition of high risk
**pretty much everyone, especially in hospital - cancer - CKD - chronic lung - chronic liver - CF - DM - diability - heart issue --> HF, CAD - HIV - mental health - dementia - obese - immunodeficiency - pregnant - smoking - SOT - TB
146
what is not included in the risk factors for high risk
- asthma - HTN
147
which COVID-19 therapies are FDA approved
- remdesivir - tocilizumab - baricitinib