Antimicrobials Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

Penicillin MOA and uses

A

bactericidal - messes with cell walls - peptidoglycan

broad spectrum - good for a lot of things - gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how is PCN excreted

A

renal
plasma concentration decreases by half in first hour
anuria increases elimination half time by 10x
if you’re giving a probenecid, excretion is reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PCN big problem

A

beta-lactam ring = hypersensitivy in up to 10% of people

cross-sensitivity 3% of the time with cephalosporins because they share the ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

second generation penicillins?

A

amoxicillin and ampicillin - wider range of activity including gram neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a good abx substitue for patients with documented IgE mediated anaphylactic reaction to B-lactum abx?

A

clindamycin or vanc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cephalosporins MOA and use

A

cefazolin (ancef)
bactericidal, broad spectrum, but more widely used because low toxicity
higher generations = more reactive to gram neg

*also renal excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the macrolides, MOA, and use

A

Erythromycin, azithromycin
bacteriostatic or bactericidal - dose-dependent
block protein synthesis
broad spectrum - respiratory probs, STIs - chlamydia, gram positives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

macrolides metabolism and excretion

A

CYP450 metabolism (can act like an inducer and increase serum concentraion of theophylline, warfarin, cyclosporine, methylprednisone, digoxin)

excreted in bile

good for renal patients**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

macrolides side effects

A

INCREASED PERISTALSIS - gi upset
qt prolongation = torsades

thrombophlebitis so give in a good IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clindamycin (linomycins) - MOA, use

A

bacteriostatic
ACTIVE WITH ANAEROBES
commonly used for GU females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

clindamycin probs

A

CAN CAUSE C DIFF
bad for liver disease

POTENTIATE BLOCKADE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vancomycin MOA and use

A

bactericidal - impairs cell wall synthesis
gram positives!!!
Drug of choice for MRSA
used in combo with aminoglycosides for endocarditis
used for cardiac/ortho procedures with implants
CROSSES BBB (slowly unless meningeal inflammation)
used for bacteria resistant to other abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

vanc PK

A

renal excretion - half time is up to 6 hours and can be prolonged up to 9 days with renal failure patients (give them half the dose once a week)

poor PO absorption - give IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vanc dosing and adminstration

A

10-15mg/kg
give IV SLOW over 60 minutes
1 gram mixed in 250 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

vanc side effects

A

rapid administration = profound hypotension
red man syndrome from histamine release
ototoxicity (with concentration >30mcg/ml) and nephrotoxicity (rare except when in combo with aminoglycosides)
give in big IV - phlebosclerotic

RETURN OF neuromuscular blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what can you administer with vanc to decrease histamine effects

A

give within 1 hr of induction:

1mgkg benadryl
4mg/kg cimetidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Aminoglycosides what are they/uses. MOA

A

Bactericidal, inhibits protein synthesis good for TB and aerobic gram neg and pos

streptomycin - we don’t use
kanamycin - we don’t use
gentamicin - broad spectrum
amikacin - pseudomonas, infections caused by a gentamicin or tobramycin resistant gram neg bacilli
neomycin - skin, eye, mucous membrane (think neosporin), decrease bacteria in intestine before GI surgery

usually given in combo with a beta lactam for gram neg therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

aminoglycoside excretion

A

renal - glom filtration

2-3 hour elimination half time increased 20-40x with renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

aminoglycoside SE

A

ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, skeletal muscle weakness

POTENTIATES NDMR BLOCKADE - reversal may not be sustained with calcium or neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

fluroquinolones (ciprofloxacin and moxifloxacin) use and MOA

A

Bactericidal, broad spectrum
good for gram neg and mycobac
complicated GI/GU infection

cipro - resp infections, TB, anthrax, bone/soft tissue infection

moxi - sinusitis, bronchitis, abd infection

21
Q

fluroquinolones PK

A

rapid GI absorption
penetration to body fluid and tissue = excellent
renal excretion - required renal dosing
CYP450 inhibitor

22
Q

fluroquinolone SE

A

TENDON RUPTURE
muscle weakness in MG
dizzy, insomnia, N/V

moxi = qt prolongation and SJS

23
Q

Sulfonamides (sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim) MOA/use

A

bacteriostatic - prevent bacteria from being able to synthesize folic acid

good for UTIs, IBS, Burns

24
Q

sulfonamides PK and SE

A

liver acetylated and renal excretion - needs renal dosing

skin rash to anaphylaxis
hepatotoxicity - thrombocytopenia, increase coagulant effects, hemolytic anemia
allergic nephritis
photosensitivity
drug fever
25
Metronidazole - MOA/use
bactericidal ``` good fore anaerobic gram neg CNS - crosses BBB c-diff endocarditis abd sepsis preop prophylaxis for colorectal ```
26
metronidazole side effects
dry mouth metallic taste nausea avoid alcohol
27
antimycobacterial first line agents
CSF penetration!! - used in combo therapy Rifampin - bactericidal Isoniazid - bacteriostatic (cidal with cell dividing) Pyrazinamide - bateriostatic Ethambutol - bacteriostatic used in combo therapy for 2 months of 3-4 agents and then a minimum of 4 more months with 2 of them
28
name the statics
``` sulfonamides clindamycin macrolides (dose dependent) isonazid (non-rapid dividing) pyrazidimide ethambutol ```
29
abx that cross BBB
Vancomycin Metronidazole Antimycobacterials
30
Non-renal excretions abx
``` clinda = liver sulfonamides = liver and renal macrolides = excreted in bile ```
31
abx that effect NDMR
``` aminoglycosides = potentiate blockade clindamycin = potentiate blockade vancomycin = return of blockade ```
32
ABX that act like cyp450 inhibitors
macrolides | fluroquinolones
33
Antifungals - Amphotericin B
given for yeast/fungi poor PO absorption slow renal excretion - impairs renal function in 80% of patients on the drug (monitor plasma creatinine levels) Side effects - fever, chills, hypotension with infusion, hypokalemia, allergic reactions, seizure, anemia, thrombocytopenia not compatible with saline
34
how do antivirals work
there are some cell surface receptors unique to viruses and this gives a location for potential drug therapies it is difficult to kill virus and not host
35
acyclovir
used to treat herpes may cause renal damage thrombophlebitis patients may complain of headaches during IV infusion
36
interferons
bind to receptors on host cell membranes and induce the production of enzymes that inhibit viral replication - degrade viral mrna treatment for hep b/c side effects: flu like symptoms, autoimmune conditions, changes in CV, thyroid, and hepatic functions, alopecia, decreased mental concentration, depression, irritability
37
antiretroviral drugs
TRIPLE THERAPY chosen from 6 classes - nucleoside/non-nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors - protease inhibitors - fusion inhibitors - CCR5 receptor antagonists - integrase inhibitors CRNAs should note that there are adverse effects with these drugs = liver toxicity, peripheral neuropathy, nephro-toxicity, neuromuscular weakness inhibit cyp450
38
goals of antimicrobial therapy
- inhibit microorganisms at concentrations that are tolerated by the host - seriously ill/immunocompromised select bacteriocidal - narrow spectrum before broad spectrum or combo therapy to preserve normal flora
39
surgical site infections outcomes
SSIs develop in 2-5% or 30million surgical patients that cost 1 billion dollars/year cause increased re-admissions, increased length of stay, and increased hospital cost
40
SSI definition
an infection related to an operative procedure that occurs at or near the surgical incision within 30 days of the procedure purulent drainage from site positive culture obtained from surgical site that was closed initially surgeon's diagnosis of infection surgical site that requires reopening due to tenderness, swelling, redness, or heat
41
surgical risks for ssi
procedure type skill of surgeon Use of foreign material or implantable device or implantable device degree of tissue trauma
42
patient risks for ssi
diabetes, smoking, obesity, malnutrition, steroid use, immunosuppressive therapy, intraoperative hypothermia, trauma, prosthetic heart valves
43
anesthesia impact on SSI
timely and appropriate use of abx maintain normothermia proper med admin
44
SCIP goals
``` give abx one hour prior to incision discontinue within 24 hours after surgery end time glucose control periop temp management VTE prophylaxis ```
45
dose of amoxicillin
2 gram po
46
dose of ampicillin
2 gram IV
47
clindamycin dose
600 mg IV
48
cefazolin dose
1 gm IV