cardiac pharm - adrenergic agents Flashcards

(119 cards)

1
Q

what are the CNS neurotransmitters

A

epi, NE, dopamine, serotonin, GABA, Ach

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2
Q

what are the natural catecholamines

A

epi, norepi, dopamine

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3
Q

what are the synthetic catecholamines

A

isoproterenol and dobutamine

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4
Q

what is the potency of catechols at alpha receptors

A

NE>epi>isoproterenol

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5
Q

what is the potency of catecholamines at the beta receptors

A

isoproterenol > epi > norepi

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6
Q

where are alpha 1 receptors found and what does activation cause

A

vasculature, gut, heart, glands

activation causes vasoconstriction and relaxation of the GI tract

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7
Q

where are alpha 2 receptors found and what does activation cause

A

found pre-synaptically in peripheral vascular smooth muscle, coronaries, brain

activation causes inhibition of NE release and inhibition of SNS outflow leading to decreased BP and HR and inhibition of CNS activity

found post-synaptically in coronaries, CNS

activation causes constriction and sedation and analgesia

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8
Q

where are beta one receptors found and what does activation cause

A

found in myocardium, SA node, ventricular conduction system, coronaries, kidney.

activation causes increase in inotropy, chronotropy, myocardial conduction velocity, coronary relaxation, and renin release

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9
Q

where are beta 2 receptors found and what does activation cause

A

found in vasc, bronchial, and uterine smooth muscle, smooth muscle of skin, myocardium, coronaries, kidneys, GI tract

causes vasodilation, bronchodilation, uterine relaxation, gluconeogenesis, insulin release, potassium uptake by cells

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10
Q

what are the 2 synthetic non-catechols

A

ephedrine and phenylephrine

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11
Q

is ephedrine indirect or direct acting

A

both

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12
Q

is phenylephrine direct or indirect acting

A

direct

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13
Q

what is a side effect of repeated doses of ephedrine

A

tachyphylaxis (aka rapidly diminishing response to successive doses of drug, rendering it less effective)

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14
Q

what is a side effect of phenylephrine related to HR

A

reflex bradycardia

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15
Q

what is the pressor of choice for OB

A

phenylephrine

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16
Q

describe alpha1 second messenger/output

A
  1. phospholipase C activated
  2. you get inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG)
  3. activates protein kinase C which increases free Ca2+
  4. Calmodulin activation = increased CB formation = contraction

vasoconstriction

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17
Q

describe alpha 2 second messenger/output

A
  1. inhibits adenylate cyclase
  2. decreased CAMP
  3. increased K conductance (hyperpolarization)

decreased norepi release

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18
Q

describe beta 1 and 2 second messenger/output

A
  1. activated adenylate cyclase
  2. increased CAMP
  3. increased kinase activation and phosphorylation

relaxes smooth muscle and stimulated cardiac contractility

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19
Q

what does the alpha 1 receptor activation do at the iris

A

contraction of radial muscle = dilates pupil = mydriasis

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20
Q

what does alpha 1 do at the prostate and uterus

A

contract

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21
Q

what is alpha 2’s affect on platelets

A

aggregation

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22
Q

what is alpha 2s action on vascular smooth muscle

A

post-synaptic = contraction

pre-synaptic = dilation

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23
Q

beta 1 role at kidneys

A

stimulation of renin release

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24
Q

beta 2 role at mast cells

A

decreased histamine release

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25
beta 2 role at pancreas
increased insulin release
26
beta 2 role at liver
glycogenolysis
27
what does beta 2 activation do to potassium
increases potassium uptake
28
dopamine 1 receptor location and action
at smooth muscle post synaptic: dilates renal, mesenteric, coronary, cerebral blood vessels
29
dopamine 2 receptor location and action
at nerve endings pre synaptic: - modulates transmitter release, nausea and vomiting
30
what does the joint national committee on prevention, detection, and treatment of high blood pressure say is a normal BP
SBP <120 DBP<80 age 18-59 with no co-morbidities and 60 or older with diabetes and/or chronic kidney disease <140/90 is ok age 60 or older with no diabetes or chronic kidney disease <150/90 is ok
31
what is the first line treatment of hypertension
thiazide diuretic
32
hypertensive urgency
DBP >120 with evidence of progressive end organ damage goal: decrease DBP to 100-105 within 24 hours (clonidine)
33
hypertensive crisis
DBP > 120 with evidence of end organ failure goal: decrease DBP to 100-105 ASAP (nitroprusside, nitroglycerin, labetalol, fenoldapam)
34
name the alpha antagonists and whether they are competitive or non-competitive
competitive: phentolamine, prazosin, yohimibine covalent bond/non-competitive: phenoxybenzamine
35
name the non-selective alpha receptor antagonists
phenoxybenzamine | phentolamine
36
name the alpha 1 selective antagonists
prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, alfuzosin, tamsulosin
37
name the alpha 2 selective antagonist
yohimbine | tolazoline
38
what are the mixed alpha and beta antagonists
labetalol and carvedilol
39
what are the non selective beta antagonists (first generations)
``` Propanolol nadolol penbutolol pindolol timolol ```
40
what are the second generation beta one selective antagonists
``` acebutolol atenolol bisoprolol esmolol metoprolol ```
41
what are the third generation non selective beta antagonists
carteolol carvedilol bucindolol labetolol
42
what are the third generation beta 1 selective antagonists
betaxolol caliprolol nebivolol
43
name a beta antagonist more selective for beta 2
butoxamine
44
what are the CV effects of alpha 1 antagonism
decreased PVR and lowered BP | postural hypotension due to failure of venous constriction upon standing
45
what are the CV effects of alpha 2 antagonism
increased NE release from nerve terminals results in tachycardia due to stimulation of beta receptors in the heart
46
GU effects of alpha antagonists
blockade in prostate and bladder cause muscle relaxation and ease micturition \aka you can pee easier
47
alpha antagonist eye effect
miosis
48
alpha antagonist airway effect
increased nasal congestion
49
phenoxybenzamine moa
binds covalently to alpha 1 and 2 receptors (nonselective, however more affinity for 1) to cause decreased SVR and vasodilation with less associated tachycardia
50
pharmacokinetics of phenoxybenzamine
pro drug with 1 hour onset time long acting with elimination half time of 24 hours
51
phenoxybenzamine uses
for pheo patients in preop raynauds
52
preop dose of phenoxybenzamine for patients with pheo
0.5-1 mg/kg
53
phentolamine moa
non selective alpha antagonist that produces a decrease in SVR and vasodilation and causes reflex mediated AND alpha-2 associated increases in HR and CO
54
uses of phentolamine and associated doses
intraoperative management of hypertensive emergency (30-70 mcg/kg) - pheochromocytoma manipulation - autonomic hyperreflexia extravascular administration of sympathomimetic agents (2.5-5 mg) tola said you may see a drip in the OR of 0.1-2mg/min
55
prazosin moa
selective alpha 1 antagonist that is less likely to cause tachycardia and dilates both arterioles and veins
56
uses of prazosin
preop prep of patients with pheo essential HTN (combined with thiazides) decreasing afterload in patients with heart failure Raynauds
57
why do people use yohimibine
it is an alpha 2 selective blocker that increases release of norepi from post-synaptic neuron and is used for orthostatic hypotension and impotence/ED
58
what are terazosin and tamsulosin and what are my biggest concerns
long acting selective alpha 1 antagonists that are effective in prostatic smooth muscle relaxation orthostatic hypotension is biggest concern so prescribers should start slow so patients can adjust
59
when was propanolol released according to that graph?
1965ish might be a good bonus
60
what do beta receptor antagonists do
disallow sympathomimetics from provoking a beta response on the heart, airway, blood vessels, JG cells, and pancreas
61
beta antagonist effects on heart
bradycardia, decreased contractility, decreased conduction velocity, improve O2 supply and demand balance
62
beta antagonist effects on airway
bronchoconstriction and bronchospasm
63
beta antagonist effects on the blood vessels
vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles, increase PVD symptoms
64
beta antagonist effects on JG cells
decreased renin release which is an indirect way of decreasing BP
65
beta antagonist effects on pancreas
decreased stimulation of insulin release by epi/norepi at beta one and then beta 2 antagonism can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia
66
beta antagonist moa
selective binding to beta receptors | competitive and irreversible inhibition - aka large doses of agonists will overcome antagonism
67
what happens to the beta adrenergic receptors in patients who chronically take beta antagonists
upregulation - so if we stop them suddenly perioperatively, expect hypertension/tachycardia
68
which beta blocker would you choose for patients who have asthma, copd, smoking hx
an alpha 1 selective like metoprolol
69
what is the elimination half life of esmolol
10 minutes
70
what is the T1/2 of metop
3-4 hours
71
what is the T1/2 of labetalol
5 hours
72
what do we use beta blockers for
``` treatment of hypertension management of angina decrease mortality in treatment of post MI patients suppression of tachyarrythmias prevention of excessive SNS activity ```
73
what are some relative contraindications to beta blockers
pre-existing AV heart block or cardiac failure reactive airway disease diabetes without BS monitoring hypovolemia (d/t decreased CO and BP)
74
how should you give adrenergic antagonists to patients with pheo
give an alpha antagonist before you give a beta antagonist otherwise you will drop their heart rate and they will still be working against a crazy afterload
75
what detrimental CV effect can happen when you take a beta antagonist and inhalational agents
hypotension
76
beta antagonism and IOP
these decrease aqueous humor production so good for patients with glaucoma because IOP is decreased timolol
77
what happens to your lipid panel with beta antagonists
can cause decreased concentration of HDL which may increase risk for CAD (chronic use)
78
propanolol moa
nonselective beta antagonist which decreases HR and contractility at beta 1 and increases vascular resistance at beta 2
79
concerns for patients taking propanolol chronically
decreased clearance of amide LAs d/t a decrease in hepatic blood flow inhibiting metabolism in liver - risk for LA toxicity decreased pulmonary clearance of fentanyl (both are basic lipophilic amines)
80
what is the HR goal for propanolol
55-60
81
propanolol cardiac effects
decreased hr, contractility, co increased PVR, coronary vascular resistance also decreased renin release
82
dose of propanolol
0.0k mg/kg IV or 1-10 mg give slowly 1mg q5min
83
protein binding of propanolol
90-95%
84
metabolism of propanolol
significant 1st pass effect (90-95%) | metabolized in liver
85
elimination half time of propanolol
2-3 hours and will be increased in low hepatic blood flow states
86
metoprolol moa
beta one selective but dose related
87
metabolism and elimination of metoprolol
first pass effect (60%) metabolized in liver elimination half time = 3-4 hours
88
dose of metop
``` PO = 50-400 mg IV = 1-15mg max ```
89
dose of metop
``` PO = 50-400 mg IV = 1-15mg max ```
90
atenolol moa
most selective beta 1 antagonist and thought to have the least CNS effects advantageous to those who need beta 2
91
pharmacokinetics of atenolol
given PO NOT metabolized in liver excreted in renal system and so elimination half time is increased in patients with renal disease (normally 6-7 h)
92
uses of atenolol
antihypertensive also given to people who get nervous public speaking
93
esmolol moa
rapid onset and short duration beta 1 selective blocker
94
onset of action of esmolol
60 second
95
duration of action of esmolol
10-30 minutes
96
metabolism of esmolol
plasma esterase these aren't the same ones that metabolize succ so there is no effect
97
does esmolol cross BBB or placenta
NO it has poor lipid solubility
98
esmolol used for
to treat HTN and tachycardia associated with DL pheo surges thyrotoxicosis thyroid storm
99
side effects of timolol eye gtts
hypotension and bradycardia and increased airway resistance
100
Nadalol moa/pk
non selective beta blocker with no significant metabolism renal and biliary elimination T1/2 of 20-40h so they only take it 1x a day
101
betaxolol considerations
cardioselective beta one blocker elimination half time = 11-22h single dose daily for HTN topical for glaucoma with less risk of bronchospasm than timolol so good choice for patients with glaucoma and asthma
102
labetalol moa
combined alpha and betal non-selective antagonist IV B:A = 7:1 PO B:A = 3:1 decreases systemic BP via alpha 1 with attenuated reflex tachy via beta 2 blockade so decreased HR, SVR, and BP with unaffected CO
103
PK of labetalol
conjugation with glucuronic acid, <5% recovered unchanged in urine elimination half life of 5-8h - prolonged in liver disease but not affected by kidney disease
104
when is the max drop in BP after IV admin of labetalol
5-10 minutes after admin
105
dose of labetalol
0.1-0.5 mg/kg IVP usually give 5 mg at a time for mild hypertension in OR
106
what do we use labetalol for
intraoperative HTN and hypertensive crisis | can be used in hypotensive technique without an increase in HR
107
side effects of labetalol
orthostatic hypotension, bronchospasm, heart block, CHF, bradycardia
108
centrally acting agents moa
centrally acting partial alpha 2 agonists, acting at CNS non-adrenergic binding sites and alpha 2 reduce sympathetic outflow from vasomotor centers in the brain stem
109
uses for alpha 2 agonists
``` htn induce sedation decreased anesthetic reqs improve periop hemodynamics analgesia ```
110
what is clonidine
a centrally acting alpha 2 agonist that decreases BP and CO due to decreased HR and peripheral resistance`
111
risk of abrupt cessation with clonidine
rebound hypertension - so continue periop
112
side effects of clonidine
``` brady sedation dry mouth impaired concentration nightmares depression vertigo EPS lactation in men ```
113
PK of clonidine
given PO or TD patch | 50/50 hepatic metabolism and renal excretion
114
withdrawal syndrome of clonidine
occurs with doses >1.2 mg/day 18h after d/c of last dose lasts for 24-72 hours treatment = rectal or TD clonidine
115
ephedrine dose
5-10 mg IVP
116
phenylephrine dose
100mcg/ml increments IVP | 15mcg/min gtt
117
epi dose
1-20 mcg/min
118
dopamine dose
low (dopa) = 3-5 mcg/kg medium (beta) = 6-10 mcg/kg high (alpha)= >10 mcg/kg
119
dobutamine dosing
1-20 mcg/kg/min