Antimycobacterials Flashcards

1
Q

what is the purpose of drug combinations in the chemotherapy of mycobacterial infections?

A

to delay the emergence of resistance and to enhance antimycobacterial activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 5 major drugs used to treat TB?

A

INH, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, and streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

initiation of treatment of pulmonary TB usually involves a __(#) combination regimen.

A

3 to 4 drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

this drug is a structural congener to pyridoxine; its MOA involves inhibition of mycolic acids.

A

INH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

true or false: resistance to INH develops quickly when the drug is used alone

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

deletions of the following genes are associated with what level of resistance? katG and inhA

A

high-level and low-level respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

true or false: INH is equally effective on both active and latent TB cells

A

false; bactericidal for growing cells, but LESS effective for dormant organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the liver metabolism of INH follows what mechanism?

A

acetylation and is under genetic control (fast vs. slow acetylators)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

INH half life is approximately how long in fast acetylators? in slow?

A

60 to 90 minutes vs. 3 to 4 hours; note: population of fast acetylators is more common amongst Asians than Europeans or Africans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

will fast acetylators require lower or higher doses of INH to have the same therapeutic effect as slow acetylators?

A

higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which drug is given as the sole drug in treatment of latent TB?

A

INH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the MC toxic effect of INH?

A

neurotoxicity including peripheral neuritis, muscle twitching and insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the treatment for the neurotoxicity associated with INH?

A

pyridoxine (25-50 mg/d orally)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

true or false: INH is hepatotoxic and may cause abnormal liver function tests

A

true - it may also inhibit hepatic metabolism of several drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the expected manifestation of the use of INH in patients with G6PDH deficiency?

A

hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the MOA for rifampin?

A

inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

17
Q

true or false: rifampin is easily well distributed throughout the CNS

18
Q

what is the DOC for treatment of latent TB in INH intolerant patients?

A

rifampin; note, this will also be the DOC for INH resistant strains

19
Q

rifampin may be used in conjunction with what other Ab to treat MRSA and PRSP?

A

vancomycin

20
Q

true or false: rifampin strongly induces liver drug-metabolizing enzymes and enhances the elimination rate of many drugs.

21
Q

which drug, also a derivative of rifamycin, is equally effective as an antimycobacterial agent and is LESS likely to cause drug interactions?

22
Q

what is the name of the rifamycin derivative that has been used in travelers’ diarrhea?

23
Q

true or false: rifampin is the preferred DOC for the tx of TB or other mycobacterial infections in AIDS patients.

A

false; rifabutin is preferred

24
Q

this drug works by inhibiting arabinosyl transferases involved in the synthesis of arabinogalactan.

A

ethambutol

25
the most common adverse effects of ethambutol are what?
dose dependent vision disturbances and possible retinal damage (only after prolonged use)
26
what are the two most common toxic side effects of pyrzinamide?
polyarthralgia and hyperuricemia (asymptotic)
27
what is the one aminoglycoside that is now commonly used to treat drug resistant strains of M. tuberculosis?
streptomycin (typically in combination)
28
what is indicated for treatment of tuberculosis caused by streptomycin resistant strains?
amikacin
29
what does the first-line standard regimen for pulmonary TB consist of?
INH, rifampin, and pyrazinamide - typically after 2 months pyrazinamide is stopped and the 2 drug regimen is continued for the next 4 months (in HIV negative patients)
30
if resistance to INH is high, how is the initial regimen for pulmonary TB adjusted?
the initial drug regimen should now include ETB or streptomycin; TB resistant to only INH can be treated with 6 months of RIF+pyrazinamide+ETB or streptomycin.
31
what is recommended as primary prophylaxis for pulmonary TB in patients with CD4 less than 50/μL?
clarithromycin or azithromycin with or without RIF