Anxiety disorders and anxiolytics Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

Brain circuits regulating fear

A

Amygdala-centred circuit
Overraction of Amygdala->OFC->ACC

Avoidance: regulated by PAG. Fight, flight, freeze

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2
Q

Brain circuits regulating worry

A

Cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical circuit

Anxious misery, apprehensive expectation, obsessions

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3
Q

Endocrine output of fear

A

increased cortisol/CAD/T2DM/stroke

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4
Q

Autonomic output of fear

A

LC

increased atherosclerosis, cardiac ischemia, BP, HRV, MI, sudden death

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5
Q

Met variant of COMT, implications for cognitive function

A

More efficient information processing in DLPFC during cognitive tasks, lower COMT, higher DA in PFC, better information processing during tasks of executive function.

However under stress, ++DA, become “worriers”
Val carriers may handle stress better, lower DA, “warriors”

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6
Q

Neurotransmitters that regulate “worry” in CSTC circuit

A

5HT, GABA, DA, NE, Glutamate, voltage-gated ion channels

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7
Q

Neurotransmitters associated with “fear”

A

Amygdala- 5HT, GABA, glutamate, CRF/HPA, NE, voltage gated ion channels

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8
Q

GABA receptors- which are ion, which are protein coupled

A

A and C are ion

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9
Q

Which GABA receptor do benzodiazepines bind to

A

GABA-> benzo sensitive. Allosteric modulatory site

Action only mediated with concurrent binding of GABA
Positive allosteric modulator

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10
Q

Binding of gabapentin and pregabalin

A

a2delta voltage sensitive calcium channel- block release of excitatory neurotransmission when neurotransmission is excessive

Bind to open, overly active VSCCs in amygdala to reduce fear, and CSTC circuits to reduce worry.

Can be useful in those that do not respond to SSRI/SNRIs due to difference mechanism, and combination in partial responders.

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11
Q

Proposed mechanism of anxiolytic action of buspirone

A

5HT1A partial agonism both at presynaptic and post-cynaptic, increasing serotonergic activity in projections to the amygdala, PFC, striatum, thalamus.

Delayed effect, likely in relation to adaptive neuronal events and receptor events

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12
Q

Mechanism of anxiolytic action for NRI

A

++NE at B1 and a1 can ++anxiety

NET/NRI likely to over time desensitise these receptors, actually reducing symptoms of fear and worry in the long term.

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13
Q

Mechanism of benzodiazepines to alleviate worry

A

GABAergic agent such as benzo’s may alleviate worry by enhancing the actions of inhibitory GABA interneurons within the PFC.

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14
Q

Mechanism of agents that bind a2delta of presynaptic N and P/Q voltage sensitive calcium channels

A

Reduce the excessive release of glutamate in CSTC circuits, therefore reducing symptoms of worry.

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15
Q

Mechanisms of serotonergic agents to reduce worry

A

PFC, striatum and thalamus receive input from serotonergic neurons, which can have an inhibitory effect on output. Thus serotonergic agents may alleviate worry by enhancing serotonin input within CSTC circuits

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16
Q

Process of fear conditioning

A

Amygdala remembers fearful events
Increasing efficiency at glutamertergic synapses in lateral aygdala as sensory input comes from thalamus or sensory cortex
Input relayed to central amygdala, where fear conditioning also improves efficiency of neurotransmission ar another glutamate synapse.
Both synapses are restructured and permanent learning is embedded into the circuit by NMDA triggering LTP and synaptic plasticity, subsequent input from sensory cortex and thalamus, very efficiently triggers fear from the amygdala.

If VMPFC unable to suppress the fear response at level of amygdala, fear conditioning.
Hippocampus remembers context of fear conditioniing and makes sure fear is triggered when fearful stimulus and all its associated stimuli are encountered

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17
Q

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) differs from acute
stress disorder in that
A. acute stress disorder occurs earlier than PTSD
B. PTSD is associated with at least three dissociative
symptoms
C. reexperiencing the trauma is not found in acute stress
disorder
D. avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma is
only found in PTSD
E. PTSD lasts less than 1 month after a trauma

A

The answer is A
Acute stress disorder is a disorder that is similar to posttraumatic
stress disorder (PTSD), but acute stress disorder occurs earlier
than PTSD (within 4 weeks of the traumatic event) and remits
within 2 days to 1 month after a trauma (not PTSD).
PTSD shows three domains of symptoms: reexperiencing the
trauma; avoiding stimuli associated with the trauma; and experiencing
symptoms of increased autonomic arousal, such as enhanced
startle. Flashbacks, in which the individual may act and
feel as if the trauma is recurring, represent a classic form of reexperiencing.
Other forms of reexperiencing symptoms include
distressing recollections or dreams and either physiological or
psychological stress reactions on exposure to stimuli that are
linked to the trauma. Symptoms of avoidance associated with
PTSD include efforts to avoid thoughts or activities related to
trauma, anhedonia, reduced capacity to remember events related
to trauma, blunted effect, feelings of detachment or derealization,
and a sense of a foreshortened future. Symptoms of increased
arousal include insomnia, irritability, hypervigilance, and exaggerated
startle. The diagnosis of PTSD is only made when
symptoms persist for at least 1 month; the diagnosis of acute
stress disorder is made in the interim.
Acute stress disorder is characterized by reexperiencing,
avoidance, and increased arousal, similar to PTSD. Acute stress
disorder (not PTSD) is also associated with at least three dissociative
symptoms

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18
Q
The risk of developing anxiety disorders is enhanced by
A. eating disorders
B. depression
C. substance abuse
D. allergies
E. all of the above
A

The answer is E (all)
Disorders that may enhance the risk for the development of anxiety
disorders include eating disorders, depression, and substance
use and abuse. In contrast, anxiety disorders have been shown
to elevate the risk of subsequent substance use disorders and
may comprise a mediator of the link between depression and the
subsequent development of substance use disorders in a clinical
sample.
Several studies have also suggested that there is an association
between anxiety disorders and allergies, high fever, immunological
diseases and infections, epilepsy, and connective
tissue diseases. Likewise, prospective studies have revealed that
the anxiety disorders may comprise risk factors for the development
of some cardiovascular and neurological diseases, such as
ischemic heart disease and migraine

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19
Q
Which of the following is not a sign of poor prognosis in
obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
A. Childhood onset
B. Coexisting major depression
C. Good social adjustment
D. Bizarre compulsions
E. Delusional beliefs
A

The answer is C
Agood prognosis for people with obsessive-compulsive disorder
(OCD) is indicated by good social and occupational adjustment,
the presence of a precipitating event, and an episodic nature of
symptoms. About one-third of patients with OCD have major
depressive disorder, and suicide is a risk for all patients with
OCD. A poor prognosis is indicated by yielding to (rather than
resisting) compulsions, childhood onset, bizarre compulsions,
the need for hospitalization, a coexisting major depressive disorder,
delusional beliefs, the presence of overvalued ideas (i.e.,
some acceptance of obsessions and compulsions), and the presence
of a personality disorder (especially schizotypal personality disorder). The obsessional content does not seem to be related
to the prognosis

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20
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anxiety and
gender differences is true?
A. Women have greater rates of almost all anxiety disorders.
B. Gender ratios are nearly equal with OCD.
C. No significant difference exists in average age of
anxiety onset.
D. Women have a twofold greater lifetime rate of agoraphobia
than men.
E. All of the above

A

The answer is E (all)
The results of community studies reveal that women have greater
rates of almost all of the anxiety disorders. Despite differences
in the magnitude of the rates of specific anxiety disorders across
studies, the gender ratio is strikingly similar. Women have an
approximately twofold elevation in lifetime rates of panic, generalized
anxiety disorder, agoraphobia, and simple phobia compared
with men in nearly all of the studies. The only exception
is the nearly equal gender ratio in the rates of OCD and social
phobia.
Studies of youth report similar differences in the magnitude
of anxiety disorders among girls and boys. Similar to the gender
ratio for adults, girls tend to have more of all subtypes of anxiety
disorders irrespective of the age composition of the sample.
However, it has also been reported that despite the greater rates of
anxiety in girls across all ages, there is no significant difference
between boys and girls in the average age at onset of anxiety.

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21
Q

Which of the following epidemiological statements is
true regarding anxiety disorders?
A. Panic disorder has the lowest heritability.
B. The mean age of onset is higher in girls.
C. The age of onset is earlier than that of mood disorders.
D. Rates in males peak in the fourth and fifth decades of
life.
E. All of the above

A

The answer is C
Anxiety disorders have been shown to have the earliest age of
onset of all major classes of mental and behavioral disorders
with a median onset by the age of 12 years. This is far earlier
than the onset of mood disorders or substance use disorders and
comparable to that of impulse control disorders. Women have
greater rates of anxiety disorders than men. This difference in
gender rates can be seen as early as 6 years of age. Despite the
far more rapid increase in anxiety disorders with age in girls than
in boys, there are no gender differences in the mean age at onset
of anxiety disorders (not higher in girls) or in their duration.
Female preponderance of anxiety disorders is present across all
stages of life but is most pronounced throughout early and midadulthood.
The rates of anxiety disorders in men are also rather
constant throughout adult life, but the rates in women peak in
the fourth and fifth decades of life and decrease thereafter.
Studies show a three- to fivefold increased risk of anxiety
disorders among first-degree relatives of persons with anxiety
disorders. Twin studies reveal that panic disorder has the highest
heritability and has been shown to have the strongest degree of
familial aggregation, with an almost sevenfold elevation in risk.

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22
Q

Sigmund Freud postulated that the defense mechanisms
necessary in phobias are
A. regression, condensation, and dissociation
B. regression, condensation, and projection
C. regression, repression, and isolation
D. repression, displacement, and avoidance
E. repression, projection, and displacement

A

The answer is D
Sigmund Freud viewed phobias as resulting from conflicts centered
on an unresolved childhood oedipal situation. In adults,
because the sexual drive continues to have a strong incestuous
coloring, its arousal tends to create anxiety that is characteristically
a fear of castration. The anxiety then alerts the ego to exert
repression to keep the drive away from conscious representation
and discharge. Because repression is not entirely successful in
its function, the ego must call on auxiliary defenses. In phobic
patients, the defenses, arising genetically from an earlier phobic
response during the initial childhood period of the oedipal
conflict, involves primarily the use of displacement—that is, the
sexual conflict is transposed or displaced from the person who
evoked the conflict to a seemingly unimportant, irrelevant object or situation, which has the power to elicit anxiety. The phobic object
or situation selected has a direct associative connection with
the primary source of the conflict and has thus come naturally
to symbolize it. Furthermore, the situation or object is usually
such that the patient is able to keep out of its way and by the
additional defense mechanism of avoidance to escape suffering
from serious anxiety.
Regression is an unconscious defense mechanism in which
a person undergoes a partial or total return to early patterns of
adaptation. Condensation is a mental process in which one symbol
stands for a number of components. Projection is an unconscious
defense mechanism in which persons attribute to another
person generally unconscious ideas, thoughts, feelings, and impulses
that are undesirable or unacceptable in themselves. In
psychoanalysis, isolation is a defense mechanism involving the
separation of an idea or memory from its attached feeling tone.
Dissociation is an unconscious defense mechanism involving the
segregation of any group of mental or behavioral processes from
the rest of the person’s psychic activity. Table 16.1 describes
a more current view of seven of the psychodynamic themes in
phobias

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23
Q

Anxiety disorders
A. are greater among people at lower socioeconomic
levels
B. are highest among those with higher levels of education
C. are lowest among homemakers
D. have shown different prevalences with regard to social
class but not ethnicity
E. all of the above

A

The answer is A
Community studies have consistently found that rates of anxiety
disorders in general are greater among those at lower levels
of socioeconomic status and education level. Anxiety disorders
are negatively associated with income and education levels. For
example, there is almost a twofold difference between rates of
anxiety disorders in individuals in the highest income bracket and
those in the lowest and between those who completed more than
16 years of school and those who completed less than 11 years of
school. In addition, certain anxiety disorders seem to be elevated
in specific occupations. Anxiety disorders are higher in homemakers
and those who are unemployed or have a disability. Several
community studies have also yielded greater rates of anxiety
disorders, particularly phobic disorders, among African Americans.
The reasons for ethnic and social class differences have not
yet been evaluated systematically; however, both methodological
factors and differences in exposure to stressors have been
advanced as possible explanations.

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24
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder
A. is least likely to coexist with another mental disorder
B. has a female-to-male ratio of 1:2
C. is a mild condition
D. has about a 50 percent chance of a recurrence after
recovery
E. has a low prevalence in primary care settings

A

The answer is D
Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a chronic (not mild) condition,
and nearly half of patients who eventually recover experience
a later recurrence. GAD is characterized by frequent, persistentworry
and anxiety that is disproportionate to the impact of
the events or circumstances on which theworry focuses. The distinction
between GAD and normal anxiety is emphasized by the
use of the words “excessive” and “difficult to control” in the criteria
and by the specification that the symptoms cause significant
impairment or distress. The anxiety and worry are accompanied
by a number of physiological symptoms, including motor tension
(i.e., shakiness, restlessness, headache), autonomic hyperactivity
(i.e., shortness of breath, excessive sweating, palpitations),
and cognitive vigilance (i.e., irritability). The ratio of women to
men with the disorder is about 2:1 (not 1:2). The disorder usually
has its onset in late adolescence or early adulthood, although
cases are commonly seen in older adults. Also, some evidence
suggests that the prevalence is particularly high (not low) in primary
care settings. This is because patients with GAD usually
seek out a general practitioner or internist for help with a somatic
symptom. GAD is probably the disorder that most (not least) often
coexist with another mental disorder, usually social phobia,
specific phobia, panic disorder, or a depressive disorder

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25
``` Physiological activity associated with PTSD include all except A. decreased parasympathetic tone B. elevated baseline heart rate C. excessive sweating D. increased circulating thyroxine E. increased blood pressure ```
The answer is D According to current conceptualizations, PTSD is associated with objective measures of physiological arousal. This includes elevated baselines heart rate, increased blood pressure, and excessive sweating. Furthermore, evidence from studies of baseline cardiovascular activity revealed a positive association between heart rate and PTSD. The finding of elevated baseline heart rate activity is consistent with the hypothesis of tonic sympathetic nervous system arousal in PTSD. Disturbance in autonomic nervous system activity in individuals with PTSD is characterized by increased sympathetic and decreased parasympathetic tone. Preliminary evidence suggests that this autonomic imbalance can be normalized with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor treatment. There is no change in blood level of thyroxine in those with PTSD
26
``` Unexpected panic attacks are required for the diagnosis of A. generalized anxiety disorder B. panic disorder C. social phobia D. specific phobia E. all of the above ```
The answer is B Unexpected panic attacks are required for the diagnosis of panic disorder, but panic attacks can occur in several anxiety disorders. The clinician must consider the context of the panic attack when making a diagnosis. Panic attacks can be divided into two types: (1) unexpected panic attacks, which are not associated with a situational trigger, and (2) situationally bound panic attacks, which occur immediately after exposure in a situational trigger or in anticipation of the situational trigger. Situationally bound panic attacks are most characteristic of social phobia and specific phobia. In generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety cannot be about having a panic attack
27
Isolated panic attacks without functional disturbances A. usually involves anticipatory anxiety or are phobic B. are part of the criteria for diagnostic panic disorder C. occur in less than 2 percent of the population D. rarely involve avoidance E. none of the above
Some differences between the DSM-IV-TR and earlier versions in the diagnostic criteria of panic disorder are interesting. For example, no longer is a specific number of panic attacks necessary in a specific period of time to meet criteria for panic disorder. Rather, the attacks must be recurrent, and at least one attack must be followed by at least 1 month of anticipatory anxiety or phobic avoidance. This recognizes for the first time that although the panic attack is obviously the seminal event for diagnosing panic disorder, the syndrome involves a number of disturbances that go beyond the attack itself. Isolated panic attacks without functional disturbances are not diagnosed as panic disorder. Furthermore, isolated panic attacks without functional disturbance are common, occurring in approximately 15 percent of the population.
28
Which of the following is not a component of the DSMIV- TR diagnostic criteria for OCD? A. Children need not recognize that their obsessions are unreasonable. B. Obsessions are acknowledged as excessive or unreasonable. C. Obsessions or compulsions are time consuming and take more than 1 hour a day. D. The person recognized the obsessional thoughts as a product of outside him- or herself. E. The person attempts to ignore or suppress compulsive thoughts or impulses.
d the obsessions must be acknowledged as excessive or unreasonable (with the exception that children need not acknowledge this fact), there must be attempts to suppress these intrusive thoughts, and the obsessions or compulsions are time consuming to the point of requiring at least 1 hour a day, among other diagnostic criteria. As part of the criteria, however, is not that the thoughts are a product of outside the person, as in thought insertion, but that the person recognizes that the thoughts are a product of his or her own mind.
29
All of the following are true for the course of panic disorder except A. patients become concerned after the first one or two panic attacks B. excessive caffeine intake can exacerbate symptoms C. comorbid depression increases risk for committing suicide D. the overall course is variable E. patients without comorbid agoraphobia have a higher recovery rate
The answer is A After the first one or two panic attacks, patients may be relatively unconcerned about their condition.With repeated attacks, however, the symptoms may become a major concern. Patients may attempt to keep the panic attacks secret and thereby cause their families and friends concern about unexplained changes in behavior. Panic disorder, in general, is a chronic disorder, although its course is variable, both among patients and within a single patient. The frequency and severity of the attacks can fluctuate. Panic attacks can occur several times a day or less than once a month. Excessive intake of caffeine or nicotine can exacerbate the symptoms. Depression can complicate the symptom picture in anywhere from 40 to 80 percent of all patients. Although the patients do not tend to talk about suicidal ideation, they are at increased risk for committing suicide. Recovery rates appear to be higher in patients without comorbid agoraphobia than in those who meet criteria for both conditions. Family interactions and performance in school and at work commonly suffer. Patients with good premorbid functioning and symptoms of brief duration tend to have a good prognosis
30
``` Tourette’s disorder has been shown to possibly have a familial and genetic relationship with A. generalized anxiety disorder B. obsessive-compulsive disorder C. panic disorder D. social phobia E. none of the above ```
The answer is B An interesting set of findings concerns the possible relationship between a subset of cases of OCD and certain types of motor tic syndromes (i.e., Tourette’s disorder and chronic motor tics). Increased rates of OCD, Tourette’s disorder, and chronic motor tics were found in the relatives of Tourette’s disorder patients compared with relatives of control subjects whether or not the patient had OCD. However, most family studies of probands with OCD have found elevated rates of Tourette’s disorder and chronic motor tics only among the relatives of probands with OCD who also have some form of tic disorder.Taken together, these data suggest that there is a familial and perhaps genetic relationship between Tourette’s disorder and chronic motor tics and some cases of OCD. Cases of the latter in which the individual also manifests tics are the most likely to be related to Tourette’s disorder and chronic motor tics. Because there is considerable evidence of a genetic contribution to Tourette’s disorder, this finding also supports a genetic role in a subset of cases of OCDs
31
All of the following have been noted through brain imaging in patients with panic disorder except A. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) studies have shown pathological involvement of both temporal lobes B. generalized cerebral vasoconstriction C. right temporal cortical atrophy D. increased blood flow to the basal ganglia E. positron emission tomography scans have implicated dysregulation of blood flow in panic disorder
The answer is D Structural brain imaging studies, such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), in patients with panic disorder have implicated pathological involvement in the temporal lobes, particularly the hippocampus. One MRI study reported abnormalities, especially cortical atrophy, in the right temporal lobes of these patients. Functional brain imaging studies, such as positron emission tomography (PET), have implicated dysregulation of cerebral blood flow. Specifically, anxiety disorders and panic attacks are associated with cerebral vasoconstriction, which may result in central nervous system symptoms such as dizziness and in peripheral nervous system symptoms that may be induced by hyperventilation and hypocapnia. Increased blood flow to the basal ganglia has not been noted in patients with panic disorder
32
A patient with OCD might exhibit all of the following brain imaging findings except A. longer mean T1 relaxation times in the frontal cortex than normal control subjects B. significantly more gray matter and less white matter than normal control subjects C. abnormalities in the frontal lobes, cingulum, and basal ganglia D. decreased caudate volumes bilaterally compared with normal control subjects E. lower metabolic rates in basal ganglia and white matter than in normal control subjects
The answer is E Brain imaging studies of patients with OCD using PET scans have found abnormalities in frontal lobes, cingulum, and basal ganglia. PET scans have shown higher (not lower) levels of metabolism and blood flows to those areas in OCD patients than in control subjects.Volumetric computed tomography scans have shown decreased caudate volumes bilaterally in OCD patients compared with normal control subjects. Morphometric MRI has revealed that OCD patients have significantly more gray matter and less white matter than normal control subjects. MRI has also shown longer mean T1 relaxation times in the frontal cortex in OCD patients than is seen in normal control subjects
33
Buspirone (Buspar) acts as a A. dopamine partial agonist useful in the treatment of OCD B. serotonin partial agonist useful in the treatment of OCD C. dopamine partial agonist useful in the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder D. serotonin partial agonist useful in treatment of generalized anxiety disorder E. none of the above
The answer is D Buspirone (Buspar) is a serotonin receptor partial agonist and is most likely effective in 60 to 80 percent of patients with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Data indicate that buspirone is more effective in reducing the cognitive symptoms of GAD than in reducing the somatic symptoms. The major disadvantage of buspirone is that its effects take 2 to 3 weeks to become evident in contrast to the almost immediate anxiolytic effects of the benzodiazepines.
34
Which of the following choices most accurately describes the role of serotonin in OCD? A. Serotonergic drugs are an ineffective treatment. B. Dysregulation of serotonin is involved in the symptom formation. C. Measures of platelet binding sites of titrated imipramine are abnormally low. D. Measures of serotonin metabolites in cerebrospinal fluid are abnormally high. E. None of the above
The answer is B Clinical trials of drugs have supported the hypothesis that dysregulation of serotonin is involved in the symptom formation of obsessions and compulsions. Data show that serotonergic drugs are an effective treatment, but it is unclear whether serotonin is involved in the cause of OCD. Clinical studies have shown that measures of platelet binding sites of imipramine and of serotonin metabolites in cerebrospinal fluid are variable, neither consistently abnormally low nor abnormally high.
35
Which of the following medical disorders are not associated with panic disorder due to a general medical condition? A. Cardiomyopathy B. Parkinson’s disease C. Epilepsy D. Sj¨ogren’s syndrome E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
The answer is D A high prevalence of generalized anxiety disorder (not panic disorder) symptoms has been reported in patients with Sj¨ogren’s syndrome. Sj¨ogren’s syndrome is a chronic autoimmune disease in which a person’s white blood cells attack their moistureproducing glands. The hallmark symptoms are dry eyes and dry mouth; however, it may also cause dysfunction of other organs. The symptoms of anxiety disorder caused by a general medical condition can be identical to those of the primary anxiety disorders. A syndrome similar to panic disorder is the most common clinical picture. Patients who have cardiomyopathy may have the highest incidence of panic disorder secondary to a general medical condition. Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle (myocardium). One study reported that 83 percent of patients with cardiomyopathy awaiting cardiac transplantation had panic disorder symptoms. Increased noradrenergic tone in these patients may be the provoking stimulus for the panic attacks. In some studies, about 25 percent of patients with Parkinson’s disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have symptoms of panic disorder. Other medical disorders associated with panic disorder include chronic pain; primary biliary cirrhosis (an autoimmune disease of the liver); and epilepsy (a chronic disorder characterized by paroxysmal brain dysfunction caused by excessive neuronal discharge), particularly when focus is in the right parahippocampal gyrus.
36
Which of the following disorders is rarely confused with anxiety that stems primarily from medical disorders? A. Panic disorder B. Specific phobia C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder D. Posttraumatic stress disorder E. Generalized anxiety disorder
The answer is B Specific phobia is usually easily distinguished from anxiety stemming from primary medical problems by the focused nature of the anxiety. Such specificity is not typical of anxiety disorders related to medical problems. Panic disorder with or without agoraphobia must be differentiated from a number of medical conditions that produce similar symptomatology. Panic attacks are associated with a variety of endocrinologic disorders, including hypo- and hyperthyroid states, hyperparathyroidism, and pheochromocytomas. Episodic hypoglycemia associated with insulinomas can also produce panic-like states, as can primary neuropathologic processes. These include seizure disorders, vestibular dysfunction, neoplasms, and the effects of both prescribed and illicit substances on the central nervous system. Finally, disorders of the cardiac and pulmonary systems, including arrhythmias, chronic obstructive disease, and asthma, can produce autonomic symptoms and accompanying crescendo anxiety that can be difficult to distinguish from panic disorder. A number of primary medical disorders can produce syndromes that bear a striking resemblance to obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). In fact, the current conceptualization of OCD as a disorder of the basal ganglia derives from the phenomenological similarity between idiopathic OCD and OCD-like disorders that are associated with basal ganglia diseases, such as Sydenham’s chorea and Huntington’s disease. It should be noted thatOCDfrequently develops before age 30 years, and new-onset OCDin an older individual should raise questions about potential neurological contributions to the disorder. Also, among children with pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcus (PANDAS), the syndrome appears to emerge relatively acutely, in contrast to the more insidious onset of childhoodOCDin the absence of infection. Hence, children with acute presentations, the role of such an infectious process should be considered. It is particularly important to recognize potentially treatable contributors to posttraumatic symptomatology in the differential for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). For example, neurological injury after head trauma can contribute to the clinical picture, as can psychoactive substance use disorders or withdrawal syndromes, either in the period immediately surrounding the trauma or many weeks after the trauma. Medical contributors can usually be detected through careful history and physical examination. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) must be differentiated from both medical and other psychiatric disorders. Similar neurological, endocrinologic, metabolic, and medication-related disorders to those considered in the differential diagnosis of panic disorder are relevant to the differential diagnosis of GAD.
37
``` Induction of panic attacks in patients with panic disorder can occur with A. carbon dioxide B. cholecystokinin C. doxapram D. yohimbine E. all of the above ```
The answer is E (all) Since the original finding that sodium lactate infusion can induce panic attacks in patients with panic disorder, many substances have shown similar panicogenic properties, including the noradrenergic stimulant yohimbine (Yocon), carbon dioxide, the respiratory stimulant doxapram (Dopram), and cholecystokinin. Disordered serotonergic, noradrenergic, and respiratory systems are doubtless implicated in panic disorder, and the condition appears to be caused both by a genetic predisposition and some type of traumatic distress. More recently, neuroimaging studies revealed that patients with panic disorder have abnormally brisk cerebrovascular responses to stress, showing greater vasoconstriction during hypocapnic respiration than normal control subjects.
38
First-line medication treatments of anxiety disorders may generally include all of the following except A. diazepam (Valium) B. fluoxetine (Prozac) C. fluvoxamine (Luvox) D. nefazodone (Serzone) E. venlafaxine (Effexor)
The answer is A Antidepressant medication is increasingly seen as the medication treatment of choice for the anxiety disorders. More specifically, drugs with primary effects on the serotonin neurotransmission system have become first-line recommendations for panic disorder, social phobia, OCD, and PTSD. Evidence now exists that such medications are also effective for generalized anxiety disorder. Although they typically take longer to work than benzodiazepines, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), paroxetine (Paxil), fluvoxamine (Luvox), and citalopram (Celexa), as well as venlafaxine (Effexor) and nefazodone (Serzone), are probably more effective than benzodiazepines and easier to discontinue. Increasingly, benzodiazepines such as diazepam (Valium) are used only for the temporary relief of extreme anxiety as clinician and patient wait for the effects of antidepressants to take hold. Longer-term administration of benzodiazepines is reserved for patients who do not respond to or cannot tolerate antidepressants
39
``` Therapy for phobias may include all of the following except A. counterphobic attitudes B. flooding C. phenelzine (Nardil) D. propranolol (Inderal) E. systematic desensitization ```
The answer is A A counterphobic attitude is not a therapy for phobias, although it may lead to counterphobic behavior. Many activities may mask phobic anxiety, which can be hidden behind attitudes and behavior patterns that represent a denial, either that the dreaded object or situation is dangerous or that one is afraid of it. Basic to this phenomenon is a reversal of the situation in which one is the passive victim of external circumstances to a position of attempting actively to confront and master what one fears. The counterphobic person seeks out situations of danger and rushes enthusiastically toward them. The devotee of dangerous sports, such as parachute jumping, rock climbing, bungee jumping, and parasailing, may be exhibiting counterphobic behavior. Both behavioral and pharmacological techniques have been used in treating phobias. The most common behavioral technique is systematic desensitization, in which the patient is exposed serially to a predetermined list of anxiety-provoking stimuli graded in a hierarchy from least to most frightening. Patients are taught to self-induce a state of relaxation in the face of each anxietyprovoking stimulus. In flooding, patients are exposed to the phobic stimulus (actually [in vivo] or through imagery) for as long as they can tolerate the fear until they reach a point at which they can no longer feel it. The social phobia of stage fright in performers has been effectively treated with such β-adrenergic antagonists as propranolol (Inderal), which blocks the physiological signs of anxiety (e.g., tachycardia). Phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, is also useful in treating social phobia.
40
Mr. A was a successful businessman who presented for treatment after a change in his business schedule. Although he had formerly worked largely from an office near his home, a promotion led to a schedule of frequent out-of-town meetings requiring weekly flights. Mr. A reported being “deathly afraid” of flying. Even the thought of getting on an airplane led to thoughts of impending doom in which he envisioned his airplane crashing to the ground. These thoughts were associated with intense fear, palpitations, sweating, clamminess, and stomach upset. Although the thought of flying was terrifying enough, Mr. A became nearly incapacitated when he went to the airport. Immediately before boarding, Mr. A would often have to turn back from the plane, running to the bathroom to vomit. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient who has another flight scheduled tomorrow? A. β-agonists B. Exposure therapy C. Lorazepam D. Paroxetine E. None of the above
The answer is C Patients with specific phobias are often treated with as-needed benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam (Ativan). In the clinical case described, this is the most appropriate choice of treatment given their high safety margin (e.g., in overdose) and their overall excellent efficacy and rapid onset of action. β-adrenergic receptor antagonists (not agonists) may be useful in the treatment of specific phobia, especially when the phobia is associated with panic attacks. The most commonly used treatment for specific phobia is exposure therapy. In this method, therapists desensitize patients by using a series of gradual, self-paced exposures to the phobic stimulus; thus, this method would not be appropriate when immediate relief is required. Paroxetine, an SSRI, is not indicated for the immediate treatment of phobias
41
Ms. K was referred for psychiatric evaluation by her general practitioner. On interview, Ms. K described a long history of checking rituals that had caused her to lose several jobs and had damaged numerous relationships. She reported, for example, that because she often had the thought that she had not locked the door to her car, it was difficult for her to leave the car until she had checked repeatedly that it was secure. She had broken several car door handles with the vigor of her checking and had been up to an hour late to work because she spent so much time checking her car door. Similarly, she had recurrent thoughts that she had left the door to her apartment unlocked, and she returned several times daily to check the door before she left for work. She reported that checking doors decreased her anxiety about security. Although Ms.Kreported that she had occasionally tried to leave her car or apartment without checking the door (e.g., when shewas already late forwork), she found that she became so worried about her car being stolen or her apartment being broken into that she had difficulty going anywhere. Ms. K reported that her obsessions about security had become so extreme over the past 3 months that she had lost her job because of recurrent tardiness. She recognized the irrational nature of her obsessive concerns but could not bring herself to ignore them. Which of the following symptom patterns of OCD does Mrs. K present? A. Intrusive thoughts B. Symmetry C. Pathological doubt D. Contamination E. None of the above
The answer is C The symptoms of an individual patient withOCDcan overlap and change with time, butOCDhas four major symptoms patterns. In this case, Mrs. K presents the symptom pattern of pathological doubt followed by a compulsion of checking. It is the second most common symptom pattern. The obsession often implies some danger of violence, in this case forgetting to lock the car door or the door to the apartment. The checking may involve multiple trips back into the house to check the stove, for example For Mrs. K, checking involves trips back to her car and her apartment to make sure both are secure, thereby making her constantly late for work. The patients have an obsessional selfdoubt and always feel guilty about having forgotten or committed something. The most common symptom pattern in OCD is an obsession of contamination followed by washing or accompanied by compulsive avoidance of the presumably contaminated object. The feared object is often hard to avoid (e.g., feces, urine, dust, or germs). Patients with contamination obsessions usually believe that the contamination is spread from object to object or person to person by the slightest contact. In the third most common pattern, there are intrusive obsessional thoughts without a compulsion. Such obsessions are usually repetitious thoughts without a compulsion. Such obsessions are usually repetitious thoughts of a sexual or aggressive act that are reprehensible to the patient. Patients obsessed with thoughts or aggressive or sexual acts may report themselves to the police or confess to a priest. The fourth most common pattern is the need for symmetry or precision, which can lead to a compulsion of slowness. Patients can literally take hours to eat a meal or shave their faces
42
A23-year-oldwoman presents to clinic with a chief complaint of “difficulty concentrating because I worry about my child.” She had recently gone back to teaching after having her third child. The patient states she is constantly wondering about other things as well. For example, she is going to help her sister-in-law throw a goodbye party and finds herself constantly going over what she needs to do to prepare for the party. At the end of the day, her husband claims she is irritable and tired. At night, she is unable to sleep and keeps thinking about her tasks for the next day. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Avoidant personality disorder B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. None of the above
The answer is D Excessive and uncontrollable worry characterized by irritability, insomnia, and fatigue is the most likely attributable to generalized anxiety disorder. The patient’s worries typically include various aspects of the patient’s life and cause functional impairment. These symptoms must persist for at least 6 months. Patients with avoidant personality disorder have a long-standing pattern of avoiding activities because they fear judgment and feel inadequate. These symptoms are part of a lifelong pattern rather than new onset. Obsessive-compulsive disorder involves intrusive thoughts that result in compulsive activity to relieve anxiety. These patients’ symptoms are ego dystonic in that they are able to recognize their problematic compulsions and obsessions. Patients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder often seek perfection and organization to a degree that it causes functional impairment. Their symptoms are ego syntonic in that they do not recognize the unreasonable nature of their behaviors.
43
A. Social phobia B. Agoraphobia Symptoms include blushing and muscle twitching
a
44
A. Social phobia B. Agoraphobia Is associated with a sense of suffocation
b Whereas patients with agoraphobia are often comforted by the presence of another person in an anxiety-provoking situation, patients with social phobia are made more anxious than before by the presence of other persons. Breathlessness, dizziness, a sense of suffocation, and fear of dying are common with panic disorder and agoraphobia; however, the symptoms associated with social phobia usually involve blushing, muscle twitching, and anxiety about scrutiny. Most cases of agoraphobia are thought to be caused by panic disorder. When the panic disorder is treated, the agoraphobia often improves with time. Agoraphobia without a history of panic disorder is often incapacitating and chronic, and depressive disorders and alcohol dependence often complicate its course
45
A. Social phobia B. Agoraphobia Is chronic without a history of panic disorder
a Social phobia is the excessive fear of humiliation or embarrassment in various social setting, such as speaking in public, urinating in a public rest room (also called shy bladder), or speaking to a date. It can sometimes be difficult to differentiate from agoraphobia, which is the fear of or anxiety regarding places from which escape may be difficult. Both disorders can be associated with panic attacks, agoraphobia more so than social phobia.
46
A. Social phobia B. Agoraphobia May be associated with panic attacks
both
47
A. Social phobia B. Agoraphobia Patients are comforted by the presence of another person
b
48
A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Panic disorder Response rates between 60 and 80 percent have been reported to buspirone
a
49
A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Panic disorder Patients with the disorder may still be responsive to buspirone after being exposed to benzodiazepine
a
50
A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Panic disorder Buspirone’s use is limited to potentiating the effects of other antidepressants and counteracting the adverse sexual effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
neither Buspirone was promoted as a less sedating alternative to benzodiazepines in the treatment of panic disorder. Buspirone has lower potential for abuse and dependence than benzodiazepines and produces relatively few adverse effects and no withdrawal syndrome. Buspirone does not alter cognitive or psychomotor function, does not interact with alcohol, and is not a muscle relaxant or an anticonvulsant. However, the efficacy of buspirone in patients with panic disorder is disappointing, and with its further drawback of delayed onset of action and the need for multiple dosings, its use is limited to potentiating the efficacy of other antidepressants and counteracting the adverse sexual effects of SSRIs.
51
A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Panic disorder Relapse rates are generally high after discontinuation of medication
both Although the short-term efficacy of antipanic medications has been established, the question of howlong to treat a panic patient who responds to treatment remains open. The results of followup studies are mixed. Several reports indicate that most panic patients relapse within 2 months to 2 years after the medication is discontinued. Following medication discontinuation, only about 30 to 45 percent of the patients remain well, and even remitted patients rarely revert back to significant phobic avoidance or serious vocational or social disability. Improvement may continue for years after a single course of medication treatment. Given the uncertainty about the optimal duration of treatment, the current recommendation is to continue full-dosage medication for panic-free patients for at least 1 year. Medication taper should be slow, with careful monitoring of symptoms. Distinction should be made among return symptoms, withdrawal, and rebound anxiety.
52
A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Panic disorder Tricyclic drugs have been reported to worsen anxiety symptoms in patients in whom the first symptoms were precipitated by cocaine
b
53
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy B. Psychodynamic therapy Produces 80 to 90 percent panic-free status in panic disorder within at least 6 months of treatment
a Some studies have shown that cognitive-behavioral treatment of panic disorder, or panic control therapy, produces 80 to 90 percent panic-free status within at least 6 months of treatment. Two-year follow-up indicates that more than 50 percent of patients who originally responded to panic control therapy have occasional panic attacks, and more 25 percent seek additional treatment. Nonetheless, these treatment responders do tend to have a significant decline in panic-related symptoms and most maintain many of their treatment gains
54
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy B. Psychodynamic therapy May be nearly twice as effective in the treatment of social phobia as a more educational-supportive approach
a
55
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy B. Psychodynamic therapy Goals are more ambitious and require more time to achieve
b
56
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy B. Psychodynamic therapy Combining treatment with medication may be superior to either treatment alone
both
57
``` A. Panic disorder B. Generalized social phobia C. Posttraumatic stress disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Acute stress disorder ``` Is associated with depersonalization
e
58
``` A. Panic disorder B. Generalized social phobia C. Posttraumatic stress disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Acute stress disorder ``` Must include at least two spontaneous panic attacks
a
59
``` A. Panic disorder B. Generalized social phobia C. Posttraumatic stress disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Acute stress disorder ``` Symptoms must persist at least 1 month after the trauma
c
60
``` A. Panic disorder B. Generalized social phobia C. Posttraumatic stress disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Acute stress disorder ``` Must include three somatic or cognitive symptoms associated with worry
d
61
``` A. Panic disorder B. Generalized social phobia C. Posttraumatic stress disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Acute stress disorder ``` Difficult to distinguish from avoidant personality disorder
b
62
A. Imaginal exposure B. Interoceptive exposure C. In vivo exposure D. Systematic desensitization A patient is presented with photographs of snakes while practicing various relaxation techniques to overcome fear; gradually, he practices relaxation while in the presence of live snakes.
d
63
A. Imaginal exposure B. Interoceptive exposure C. In vivo exposure D. Systematic desensitization Apatient withOCDattempts to use public telephones and doorknobs while intentionally refraining from washing her hands afterward.
c
64
A. Imaginal exposure B. Interoceptive exposure C. In vivo exposure D. Systematic desensitization A patient is asked to imagine his wartime experiences as vividly as possible to confront his memory of the traumatic events.
a Imaginal exposure typically involves having the patient close his or her eyes and imagine feared stimuli as vividly as possible. The primary use of this type of exposure is to help patients confront feared thoughts, images, and memories. For example, individuals with OCD may experience obsessional thoughts and images about causing harm to people they love.
65
A. Imaginal exposure B. Interoceptive exposure C. In vivo exposure D. Systematic desensitization A patient breathes through a thin straw to produce the sensation of not getting enough air; this activity produces a similar sensation to the distressing feeling of getting on an airplane.
b Interoceptive exposure is the most recent form of exposure therapy to be introduced. This procedure is designed to induce feared physiological sensations under controlled circumstances. A number of specific exercises have been developed to induce specific panic-like sensations. For example, the step-up exercise, in which the patient repeatedly steps up and down on a single step as rapidly as possible, produces rapid heart rate and shortness of breath.
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``` A. Acrophobia B. Ailurophobia C. Cynophobia D. Mysophobia E. Xenophobia ``` Fear of dirt and germs
d
67
``` A. Acrophobia B. Ailurophobia C. Cynophobia D. Mysophobia E. Xenophobia ``` Fear of heights
a
68
``` A. Acrophobia B. Ailurophobia C. Cynophobia D. Mysophobia E. Xenophobia ``` Fear of strangers
e
69
``` A. Acrophobia B. Ailurophobia C. Cynophobia D. Mysophobia E. Xenophobia ``` Fear of dogs
c
70
``` A. Acrophobia B. Ailurophobia C. Cynophobia D. Mysophobia E. Xenophobia ``` Fear of cats
b