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AOP > AOP Final > Flashcards

AOP Final Flashcards

Spring 2024

1
Q

T or F: Tarasoff Law mandates outpatient treatment

A

False

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2
Q

T or F: Kendra’s Law mandates pscyhotherapists to protect and prevent them

A

False

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3
Q

Your client Mary reports hearing voices commanding her to stop working and give up her home. This is an example of what kind of perceptual experience?

A. Hallucination
B. Illusion
C. Delusion
C. Phobia

A

A. Hallucination

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4
Q

What severity level of autism would someone have who is “requiring very substantial support”?

A. Level 1 - requires support
B. Level 2 - requiring substantial support
C. Level 3 - requiring very substantial support

A

C. Level 3 - requiring very substantial support

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5
Q

John has always been a little odd and strange, having difficulty in close relationships, illusions, and magical thinking. John probably has:

A. Schizotypal personality disorder
B. Paranoid personality disorder
C. Histrionic personality disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder

A

Schizotypal personality disorder

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6
Q

T or F: the signs and symptoms of dependent personality disorder include an excessive need to be taken care of, difficulty making independent decisions, and fear of disagreeing with others

A

True

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7
Q

T or F: When a person suffers from a Cluster A Personality Disorder, this person will generally experience avoidance tendencies

A

False

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8
Q

T or F: When a person suffers from a Cluster C Personality Disorder, this person will generally experience controlling tendencies

A

False

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9
Q

T or F: Beneficence is a principle of the OT Code of Ethics which means that the therapist must refrain from engaging in any sexual relationship or activity with a service recipient of their family even if it is consensual

A

False

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10
Q

Which of the following is not necessary to diagnose ASD?

A. Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity
B. Intermittent periods of catatonia
C. Restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior
D. Deficits in nonverbal communicative behavior

A

B. Intermittent periods of catatonia

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11
Q

T or F: Schizophrenia affects individuals from some ethnic and racial groups more than others.

A

False

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12
Q

A person with a psychotic illness is admitted voluntarily to an inpatient unit in New York City. She decides that she would like to leave without further treatment. Which of the following steps must she take to get discharged?

A. Locate a family member to sign her out
B. Obtain a two-physician certificate (2-PC)
C. Go to court with her mental hygiene attorney
D. Write a 72-hour letter

A

D. Write a 72-hour letter

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13
Q

T or F: Alzheimer’s is a specific disease as opposed to dementia, which is a group of diseases.

A

True

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14
Q

T or F: Fidelity, a principle contained in the OT Code of Ethics embraces the idea that OTs should treat colleagues with respect and should use conflict resolution techniques to resolve interpersonal and organization conflicts.

A

True

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15
Q

T or F: We can have more than one personality disorder even though you have one personality.

A

True

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16
Q

The most common Personality Disorder is:

A. Histrionic
B. Borderline
C. Schizoid
D. Not otherwise specified

A

D. Not otherwise specified

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17
Q

T or F: It is never a good idea to ask someone with schizophrenia about his or her hallucinations.

A

False

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18
Q

A patient with a long-lasting and inflexible pattern of cognition, affect, interpersonal functioning and impulse control that deviates significantly from the expectations of her culture is admitted to an inpatient unit. In her initial evaluation the OTR notes that this pattern causes significant stress and occupational dysfunction. What would be the most likely diagnosis that the OTR would expect to find in the patient’s chart?
Anxiety disorder
Eating disorder
Personality disorder
Substance use disorder
A patient with a long-lasting and inflexible pattern of cognition, affect, interpersonal functioning and impulse control that deviates significantly from the expectations of her culture is admitted to an inpatient unit. In her initial evaluation the OTR notes that this pattern causes significant stress and occupational dysfunction. What would be the most likely diagnosis that the OTR would expect to find in the patient’s chart?

A. Anxiety disorder
B. Eating disorder
C. Personality disorder
D. Substance use disorder

A

C. Personality disorder

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19
Q

T or F: In general, a trait is a long-standing component of your personality, while a state is a temporary position you are in or a transient component of your personality.

A

True

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20
Q

The federal agency that is responsible for funding, educating the public and disseminating information about mental health research and evidence-based interventions is which of the following?

A. DHS
B. NAMI
C. SAMHSA
D. NIH/NIMH

A

D. NIH/NIMH

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21
Q

T or F: The Multiple Errands Test is an example of a performance-based assessment of executive functioning.

A

True

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22
Q

The SAFE act …

A. Stops criminals and people with mental illness from buying or owning a gun
B. Allows mental health providers a way of ensuring those with mental illness take their medication to ensure their safety along with those around them
C. Mandates people with mental illnesses to acquire outpatient treatment
D. Forces a person who is actively suicidal to be involuntarily admitted to a hospital

A

A. Stops criminals and people with mental illness from buying or owning a gun

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23
Q

To diagnose a personality disorder, the most indicative method is through using

A. Clusters of symptoms
B. MRI
C. Blood test
D. PET scan

A

A. Clusters of symptoms

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24
Q

Beginning in early adulthood a client begins expressing suspiciousness of others, becomes preoccupied with doubts about the loyalty of his friends, and reads threatening meanings into benign remarks. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Paranoid personality disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Schizoid personality disorder
D. Schizotypal personality disorder

A

A. Paranoid personality disorder

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25
Q

T or F: One of the criteria that can result in a person with mental illness being involuntarily hospitalized in New York State is the expression of the suicidal ideation with means and a plan

A

True

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26
Q

Beginning in early adulthood, a client begins talking to himself, insisting that the FBI is inserting thoughts into his head, and believes that he is a direct messenger from God. The OT student knows that the client has a diagnosis of schizophrenia and is expressing which type of symptom?

A. Flight of ideas
B. Positive symptoms
C. Intellectualization
D. Negative symptoms

A

B. Positive symptoms

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27
Q

Idealizing and devaluing a therapist by a client, which is also called splitting is a symptom that is associated with the following two disorders.

A. Eating and schizoid personality disorder
B. Borderline and substance use disorders
C. Social anxiety and mild neurocognitive disorders
D. Antisocial and personality and PTSD

A

B. Borderline and substance use disorders

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28
Q

If a patient on an inpatient unit in NYS refuses to take his psychotropic medication, and the medical team believes that it is not an emergency but is necessary for the safety of the patient and others. What is most likely the outcome?
The staff can force the patient to take the medication
The patient is assigned a paraprofessional to monitor his activities
The patient is assigned a mental hygiene lawyer and goes to court
The patient is discharged against medical advice

If a patient on an inpatient unit in NYS refuses to take his psychotropic medication, and the medical team believes that it is not an emergency but is necessary for the safety of the patient and others. What is most likely the outcome?

A. The staff can force the patient to take the medication
B. The patient is assigned a paraprofessional to monitor his activities
C. The patient is assigned a mental hygiene lawyer and goes to court
D. The patient is discharged against medical advice

A

C. The patient is assigned a mental hygiene lawyer and goes to court

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29
Q

When admitting someone involuntarily to a psychiatric unit, who does not make a decision in the admission process?

A. Psychiatrist from the psychiatric facility who verifies this is an appropriate admission
B. The person being admitted
C. An applicant that can be family member or someone who lives with the person
D. Two separate physicians outside of the psychiatric facility to evaluate the patient for admission

A

B. The person being admitted

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30
Q

Rochelle went to college and returned home after her first semester to visit her parents. Rochelle’s family became concerned that over her break from school, Rochelle seemed very withdrawn, spending most of her time in her room. Her mother noticed that Rochelle was talking to someone, but her phone and computer were off. Rochelle explained that her alarm clock was sending her messages to stay in her room “until the job was done”. Rochelle had never used street drugs before and denied taking any in college, so her mother called her doctor. After an examination, the doctor said Rochelle is probably experiencing the onset of …

A. Personality disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Depression
D. A phobia
E. None of the above

A

B. Schizophrenia

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31
Q

An appropriate OT evaluation tool for Rochelle would be:

A. Allen’s Cognitive Level Test
B. Kohlman Evaluation of Living Skills
C. Adult Sensory Profile
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. Any of the above

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32
Q

After Rochelle was hospitalized for one week and no longer heard messages from her alarm clock, her OT signed her up for the following group based on her diagnosis:

A. Stress management
B. Time management
C. Social skills
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

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33
Q

Briefly describe the data collection and analysis process for the COTE assessment.

A

Designed for people with mental illness used to assess behaviors that influence occupational performance

The scale defines 25 behaviors that occur in and are particularly relevant to the practice of OT

Each behavior is assigned a rating of 0-4, being complete mastery and 4 signifying extreme difficulty and dysfunction

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34
Q

List three sub categories that are measured using the COTE assessment.

A

General behavior
Interpersonal behavior
Task behavior

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35
Q

List the five main elements of an OT assessment write up.

A

Name the assessment
What the assessment measures
Why you selected this particular assessment for this client
Results of assessment
Treatment plan

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36
Q

c The DSM IV-TR is the most current text on psychiatric diagnosis.

A

False

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37
Q

T or F: The OTPF-3 will be helpful to this course because it uses the most up-to-date OT language.

A

False

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38
Q

Psychopathology is the study and classification of the symptoms of mental illness that encompasses the lifespan from infancy to senior years.

A

True

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39
Q

T or F: Mental illness is associated with an increased risk of suicide, death, and a loss of freedom.

A

True

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40
Q

T or F: NAMI—National Alliance on Mental Illness is a self-help organization that provides mutual support, public education, research, and advocacy for persons with severe mental illness.

A

False

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41
Q

A definition of mental illness must include

A. Some form of distress
B. An impact on cognition
C. Politically motivated deviant behavior
D. Behavior that is culturally sanctioned

A

A. Some form of distress

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42
Q

All of the following are reasons that we diagnose mental illness accept:

A. Target specific behaviors and disorders for research purposes
B. Provide a coding system for payment
C. Predict the level of function
D. Develop more effective and valid treatment

A

C. Predict the level of function

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43
Q

One of the proven definitive causes of mental illness is …

A. Environmental toxins
B. none of the above
C.Infections/bacteria/inflammation
D. Poverty

A

B. none of the above

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44
Q

Symptoms are …

A. Signs
B. Subjective
C. Measurable
D. Observable

A

B. Subjective

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45
Q

WHO developed the ICF to

A. all of the above
B. Consider function and disability
C. Be used internationally and cross-culturally
D. reflect a broader definition of diagnosis

A

A. all of the above

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46
Q

Approximately what percentage of individuals who suffer from depression have at least
one other psychiatric diagnosis at some point in their life?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 15%
D. 70%

A

D. 70%

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47
Q

Which of these is NOT a characteristic symptom of how depression presents in
childhood or adolescence?

A. Ritualized behaviors
B. School refusal
C. Irritability
D. Clinging to parent

A

A. Ritualized behaviors

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48
Q

Approximately what % of the time does a patient with Bipolar Disorder Type 2 spend in a manic or mixed state?

A. 25%
B. 3%
C. 50%
D. 115

A

B. 3%

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49
Q

The symptoms of bipolar disorder overlap significantly with the symptoms of each of
these conditions except:

A. Major depressive disorder
B. None of the above
C. Borderline personality disorder
D. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHDA)

A

B. None of the above

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50
Q

Which of these is an evidence-based intervention for suicide prevention that can be used by an OT?

A. Bibliotherapy
B. Safety planning
C. Bright Light therapy
D. Prescribing anti-depressant

A

B. Safety planning

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51
Q

Symptoms of depression may include:

A. all of the above
B. psychomotor issues
C. suicidality
D. anhedonia

A

A. all of the above

52
Q

According to Bailey et al, (2019),

A. Obstacles to care among Black Americans may include systemic racism within the health care system and stigma about psychiatric care
B. A lower percentage of Black Americans endorse a lifetime diagnosis of MDD than White Americans
C. Depression is more frequently chronic in Black Americans than White Americans
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

53
Q

A comprehensive suicide assessment should include the following:

A. Access to means
B. all of the above
C. Have you ever had thoughts about hurting yourself or taking your life?
D. Protective factors

A

B. all of the above

54
Q

Geriatric depression

A. frequently presents with somatic complaints
B. is underdiagnosed
C. is associated with increased mortality rates
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

55
Q

The patient that was interviewed in the video shown in class displayed symptoms of …

A. hypomania/mania
B. all of the above
C. depression
D. grandiosity

A

B. all of the above

56
Q

Which eating disorder has the highest mortality rate of all mental illnesses?

A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Binge eating disorder
C. Bulimia nervosa

A

A. Anorexia nervosa

57
Q

Which of the following social factors are NOT correlated to an increased likelihood of developing an eating disorder?

A. living/working/being raised in a community that overvalues body size/shape
B. trauma history
C. lack of religion/spirituality

A

C. lack of religion/spirituality

58
Q

Which is NOT a common way in which bias can interfere with our interactions with people with eating disorders?

A. Making someone feel unsafe or uncomfortable by criticizing our own bodies in front of them
B. Failing to recognize that someone is struggling due to belief that eating disorders only occur in thin people
C. Worsening someone’s eating disorder by asking someone if they are okay when you notice something is off in their interactions with people or around food

A

C. Worsening someone’s eating disorder by asking someone if they are okay when you notice something is off in their interactions with people or around food

59
Q

According to the APA, the sickest patients with eating disorders are to be treated in which level of care?

A. Intensive outpatient
B. Partial hospitalization
C. Residential treatment
D. Inpatient hospitalization

A

D. Inpatient hospitalization

60
Q

An individual who binges on large amounts of food and then engages in inappropriate compensatory behaviors (e.g. self-induced vomiting or over-exercising) would most likely be diagnosed with

A. Pica
B. Bulimia nervosa
C. Binge eating disorder

A

B. Bulimia nervosa

61
Q

Which of these behaviors that are socially acceptable in most situations is NOT likely to be triggering to an individual with an eating disorder?

A. Complimenting their body
B. Gossiping about a celebrity who gained weight
C. Criticizing your own body
D. Complimenting their latest project

A

D. Complimenting their latest project

62
Q

What neurodevelopmental disorder is most often related to avoidant-restrictive food intake disorder?

A. Dyslexia
B. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
C. Autism spectrum disorder
D. ADHD

A

C. Autism spectrum disorder

63
Q

Why is interdisciplinary treatment important when treating eating disorders?

A. No one really knows an effective way to treat eating disorders so it is important to try everything
B. They are difficult to treat so the clinicians need a team of other professionals for support
C. Eating disorders are multidimensional, with biological, psychological, and social causes, and often encompass all aspects of the person’s life
D. Many patients require 24/7 inpatient treatment and so many different disciplines need to collaborate to fill the time

A

C. Eating disorders are multidimensional, with biological, psychological, and social causes, and often encompass all aspects of the person’s life

64
Q

What should you do if you realize you have a bias about food/body/eating disorders?

A. Never treat eating disorders
B.Reflect on all of the times you may have unintentionally harmed someone with this bias and the guilt will ensure you do not repeat that mistake again
C. Recognize your bias, work to unlearn it, and remain aware of it in your interactions

A

C. Recognize your bias, work to unlearn it, and remain aware of it in your interactions

65
Q

Why does Dr. Kilbride recommend that the “severity level” listed in the DSM criteria be taken with a grain of salt?

A. The “severity level” is a relatively new addition to the DSM criteria
B. The DSM does not apply to occupational therapy
C. The level of behavioral disturbance (or weight) does not always accurately reflect the degree of emotional distress
D. Patients may be dishonest about their symptoms so the level of severity may not be accurate

A

C. The level of behavioral disturbance (or weight) does not always accurately reflect the degree of emotional distress ffadda

66
Q

Which of the following is NOT true:

A. The fear response is thought to originate in deep limbic structures while anxiety and worry may arise from disrupted activity in the prefrontal cortex
B. Anxiety is more strongly associated with the fight-flight response as compared to fear
C. Fear usually refers to an immediate physiologic response to threat
D. Generalized anxiety disorder is thought to be more strongly associated with anxious rumination than the fear response

A

B. Anxiety is more strongly associated with the fight-flight response as compared to fear

67
Q

At a neurobiological level, studies have suggested that anxiety is characterized by:

A. Hypoactivity (decreased activity) of the insula
B. Hyperactivity (increased activity) of the prefrontal cortex
C. Disrupted connectivity between the prefrontal cortex and amygdala
D. Hypoactivity (decreased activity) of the amygdala

A

C. Disrupted connectivity between the prefrontal cortex and amygdala

68
Q

You are working on functional cognitive and motor rehabilitation with an individual who presents to your OT practice with Long COVID-19. After a few sessions, you realize that the individual’s anxiety symptoms are interfering with your treatment and you decide to refer them to a psychologist. Which of the following psychological interventions, which the psychologist might try to reduce anxiety, would likely be the LEAST helpful:

A. Point out that certain thinking patterns, while true, may not be helpful for the patient to engage in

B. Encourage the patient to avoid situations that increase anxiety, so that the patient remains as comfortable and anxiety-free as possible

C. Discuss how certain systemic stressors—like financial instability, racism, and inequitable access to care—might play a role in the patient’s anxiety

D. Validate and normalize the patient’s emotional response to their situation

A

B. Encourage the patient to avoid situations that increase anxiety, so that the patient remains as comfortable and anxiety-free as possible

69
Q

________________ is marked by excessive anxiety and worry, occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activities.

A. Separation Anxiety Disorder
B. PTSD
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D. Social Anxiety Disorder

A

C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

70
Q

After a long day at your OT field placement, you decide to unwind while watching your favorite show on TV. Which of the following would be the best example of mindfulness:

A. You notice that your mind has wandered to a stressful situation in your field placement, and you get really frustrated at yourself

B. You try as hard as you can to focus on the TV and not let your mind wander or become distracted by events that happened during the day

C. You notice that your mind repeatedly wanders to a stressful situation in your field placement, and every time you notice that, you try your best to bring your attention back to the TV

D. You try and block out any and all negative thoughts that pop into your mind.

A

C. You notice that your mind repeatedly wanders to a stressful situation in your field placement, and every time you notice that, you try your best to bring your attention back to the TV

71
Q

You are working with a patient with gait and mobility difficulty. The patient often tells you during your sessions “If I don’t get this exercise exactly right, I’ll never get better.” You astutely refer the patient to a skilled cognitive-behavioral therapist for anxiety treatment. The therapist is most likely to interpret the patient’s statement as an example of which thinking error:

A. Emotional reasoning
B. All-or-nothing thinking
C. Disqualifying the positive
D. Overgeneralization

A

B. All-or-nothing thinking

72
Q

The three Cs of Cognitive Therapy are:

A. cognitive, check, & change
B. catch, cognitive, & change
C. charge, check, & change
D. catch, check, & change

A

D. catch, check, & change

73
Q

T or F: CBT interventions are associated with improved mobility and independence in activities of daily living.

A

true

74
Q

During in vivo exposure treatment, the OT would:

A. Explore expected outcome vs. actual outcome
B. Provide rationale for confronting feared situations
C. All of the above
D. Repeat exposure until fear diminishes or coping increases

A

C. All of the above

75
Q

T or F: Typically 50-60% of people respond on first trial of CBT or medication.

A

true

76
Q

Which of the following is true of suicide among individuals with schizophrenia?

A. Compared with the general population individuals with schizophrenia have a 2-fold greater risk of suicide

B. Among individuals with schizophrenia, most completed suicides appear to occur early in the disease process

C. Overall prevalence estimate for completed suicide among individuals with schizophrenia is 2%

D. All of the above
10% of individuals with schizophrenia have a history of suicide attempts

A

B. Among individuals with schizophrenia, most completed suicides appear to occur early in the disease process

77
Q

What is the only medication approved by the FDA for preventing suicide in patients with schizophrenia?

A. Aripiprazole
B. Clozapine
C. Haldol
D. Olanzapine

A

B. Clozapine

78
Q

What proportion of individuals with schizophrenia develop the illness after the age of 40 years?

A. 15.5%
B. 23.5%
C. 5%
D. 45%
E. 10%

A

B. 23.5%

79
Q

Which of the following symptoms is not part of the DSM 5-TR criteria for schizophrenia?

A. Depressed mood
B. The presence of auditory hallucinations
C. The presence of complex delusions
D. Presence of visual hallucinations

A

A. Depressed mood

80
Q

Negative symptom cluster includes all but

A. flat affect
B. delusions
C. absence of complex thoughts
D. inability to enjoy anything

A

B. delusions

81
Q

T or F: Negative and cognitive symptoms are most highly correlated with overall disability in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia.

A

true

82
Q

The key features of ________________ (disorder) are the presence of a major mood disorder as well as a psychotic syndrome – both simultaneously, and at other times, temporally distinct from one another.

A. Substance-induced Psychosis
B. Schizoaffective
C. Schizophreniform
D. Brief Psychotic

A

B. Schizoaffective

83
Q

A goal of treatment for a person with a psychotic disorder is to

A. Determine and address what leads to acute episodes
B. Promote healthy behaviors
C. all of the above
D. Prevent harm to the patient or others

A

C. all of the above

84
Q

The population served by the NYS OMH represents an intersection of several subpopulations at significantly greater risk for COVID-19 exposure and complications. These include people experiencing

A. medical co-morbidities
B. poverty
C. discrimination
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

85
Q

T or F: Enlarged lateral ventricles and widened sulci are the most often replicated structural imaging finding concerning schizophrenia.

A

true

86
Q

Addiction is characterized by a/an

A. Internal Locus of Control
B. a & c
C. External Locus of Control
D. b and c
E. Loss of Impulse Control

A

D. Loss of Impulse Control & external locus of control

87
Q

Which of the following is NOT a core belief that develops in addiction

A. “I’m flawed”
B. “I can’t tolerate uncertainty”
C. None of the above
D. “I’m inadequate”

A

C. None of the above

88
Q

Executive functioning deficits are not correlated with

A. Marijuana use
B. Opiate use
C. Alcohol use
D. Cocaine use

A

A. Marijuana use

89
Q

Occupational therapy assessments for substance use include all but the following

A. Client-centered Reasoning Assessment
B. Adult Sensory Profile
C. Executive Function Performance Test
D. Barth Time Construction

A

A. Client-centered Reasoning Assessment

90
Q

The goals of Occupational Therapy interventions include

A. All the above
B. Improving sensory integration
C. Addressing cognitive deficits/dysfunctions
D. Improving information processing

A

A. All of the above

91
Q

Motivational interviewing

A. reframes resistance
B. meets the clients where they are
C. all of the above
D. purports that behaviors reflect readiness for change more than words.

A

C. all of the above

92
Q

One of the ego defenses often seen in people with substance use is …

A. sublimation
B. repression
C. rationalization
D. reaction formation

A

C. rationalization

93
Q

An ego function which is usually not impaired during substance use is

A. object relations
B. affect management
C. None of the above
D. impulse control

A

C. None of the above

94
Q

T or F:The opposite of addiction is recovery.
True
False

A

False

95
Q

Cognitive interventions can include

A. Simplifying language
B. Repetition
C. All of the above
D. Writing down direction

A

C. All of the above

96
Q

Which of the following statements regarding involuntary hospitalization in New York State is false?

A. Federal law governs the procedures for involuntary hospitalization.

B. Patients have a right to go to Court to contest an involuntary commitment.

C. Patients have the right to an attorney to represent them with respect to any involuntary hospitalization.

D. The standard for involuntary commitment is one based on the perceived dangerousness of the patient.

A

A. Federal law governs the procedures for involuntary hospitalization.

97
Q

Treating a patient over that patient’s objection on a psychiatric unit in New York State:

A. Is never allowed.
B. May be done if two physicians believe it is medical necessary.
C. Is only permitted in the event of an emergency.
D. Requires a Court hearing except in the event of an emergency.

A

D. Requires a Court hearing except in the event of an emergency.

98
Q

Which of the following statements regarding assisted outpatient treatment (AOT) in New York State is false?

A. One purpose of AOT is to try to prevent individuals from decompensating and needing inpatient treatment.
B. Non-adherence with treatment is one of the conditions that must be present to apply for AOT for a patient.
C. A treatment plan must be filed with the Court.
D. None of the above.

A

D. None of the above

99
Q

Tarasoff v. The Board of Regents of the University of California:

A. Is a California Court case that established a duty on the part of a therapist to protect third persons from dangerous acts of their outpatients.
B. All are true.
C. Technically only applies in the State where it was decided – California, but has national application.
D. Resulted in Court cases and laws in other states mandating some kind of duty on the part of outpatient doctors and/or therapists.

A

B. All are true.

100
Q

Which of the following statements about the New York State Safe Act is true:

A. The SAFE Act applies in hospital settings but not to individual practitioners.
B. The SAFE Act is designed to help prevent suicides by all methods.
C. The SAFE Act is an effort to keep firearms out of the hands of individuals who appear likely to harm themselves or someone else.
D. Being reported under the SAFE Act results in a lifetime ban on purchasing a licensed firearm in New York State.

A

C. The SAFE Act is an effort to keep firearms out of the hands of individuals who appear likely to harm themselves or someone else.

101
Q

T or F: OTs should avoid participating in bartering for services because of the potential for exploitation and conflict of interest unless there are no harmful outcomes or bartering is a culturally appropriate custom.

A

true

102
Q

The following statement(s) describe(s) the term fidelity as it relates to the practice of occupational therapy according to the Occupational Therapy Code of Ethics.

A. all of the above
B. Occupational therapy personnel shall provide services in a fair and equitable manner.
C. Occupational therapy personnel shall provide comprehensive, accurate, and objective information when representing the profession.
D. Occupational therapy shall treat colleagues and other professions with respect, fairness, discretion, and integrity

A

D. Occupational therapy shall treat colleagues and other professions with respect, fairness, discretion, and integrity

103
Q

OTs must adhere to their Code of Ethics during

A. paid employment
B. all of the above
C. volunteer work
D. fieldwork

A

B. all of the above

104
Q

T or F: According to the OT Code of Ethics, it is acceptable to participate in sexual relationships or activities, if consensual, with any recipient of service, including family or significant other, student, research participant, or employee, after services have ended.

A

true

105
Q

Offering pro bono (“for the good”) or reduced-fee occupational therapy services for selected individuals when consistent with guidelines of the employer, third-party payer, and/or government agency is an example of __________________ according to the OT Code of Ethics.

A. beneficence
B. autonomy
C. social justice
D. nonmaleficence

A

C. Social justice

106
Q

Which one of the following is the definition of cultural humility?

A. Advocating for underprivileged communities
B. Speaking another language while providing clinical care
C. Continuous learning about diverse cultures and backgrounds while recognizing power dynamics
D. Awareness of diverse cultures in other counties

A

C. Continuous learning about diverse cultures and backgrounds while recognizing power dynamics

107
Q

Cultural humility is important because

A. It helps therapists provides interventions that culturally relevant to their clients
B. It urges therapists to recognize bias and stereotypes about others
C. It urges therapists to recoIt enhances culturally-relevant communication with clients and their families
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

108
Q

According to the Macro-Micro Model of Diversity (MMMD) culture is affected by

A. Social systems (e.g., family tradition)
B. Time and personal life events (e.g., getting divorced)
C. Legislation and state regulations (e.g., state tax)
D. Climate change and environmental factors (e.g., increased natural disasters)

A

A. Social systems (e.g., family tradition)

109
Q

According to the Macro-Micro Model of Diversity (MMMD) , community layer of diversity

A. Is a micro layer of diversity
B. Involves visible, recognizable or discoverable categories of diversity including race, gender, faith, or socioeconomic status
C. Is affected by social systems such as ethnic traditions daily activities such as dressing, bathing, and eating
D. Involves family heritage, traditions, and norms

A

B. Involves visible, recognizable or discoverable categories of diversity including race, gender, faith, or socioeconomic status

110
Q

According to the Macro-Micro Model of Diversity (MMMD) the individual layer of diversity

A. Heavily considered when planning OT interventions and treatment plans
B. Mainly influenced by family traditions or community expectations
C. A macro level of diversity
D. Is not affected by major life events

A

A. Heavily considered when planning OT interventions and treatment plans

111
Q

A major difference between cultural humility and cultural competence is the

A. Recognizing personal and individual differences
B. Recognizing issues of power and prejudice
C. Recognizing diverse ethnic and racial backgrounds
D. Recognizing diverse cultures

A

B. Recognizing issues of power and prejudice

112
Q

“Is the interplay between various level of diversity and systems of oppression in someone’s life” is the definition of

A. Social identity within a culture
B. Intersectionality
C. Cultural competence
D. Cultural humility

A

B. Intersectionality

113
Q

When selecting assessment tools the occupational therapist should consider

A. Client’s diversity factors that may be affected by external factors (e.g., healthcare coverage)
B. Assessment tools designed for the client’s ethnic or cultural backgrounds
C. Create a list of the client’s daily activities
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

114
Q

Actively listening to the client’s illness story, asking questions about personal challenges related to diversity, body language when talking about family or heritage are examples of considering the ___________ layer of diversity

A. Culture
B. Community
C. Core
D. Individual

A

C. Core

115
Q

Occupational therapists are encouraged to develop skills for

A. Cultural competence
B. Cultural sensitivity
C
D. Cultural humility

A

C. All of the above

116
Q

In a study by Dr. Koening:

A. findings support a strength-based view of preferred interests with the majority of participants articulating that their areas of interest were positive, beneficial, and should be encouraged

B. people diagnosed with ASD viewed preferred interests as a way to mitigate anxiety

C. all of the above

D. people diagnosed with ASD had a positive view of preferred interests

A

C. all of the above

117
Q

Interventions targeting sensory processing for individuals diagnosed with ASD, according to a systematic review by Weitlauf, et.al. 2017, include all but the following:

A. interventions incorporating auditory components, such as filtered sound to ameliorate sensory processing challenges via theorized retraining of aural pathways

B. interventions incorporating cognitive restructuring

C. interventions incorporating targeted exposure to sensory stimuli to promote tolerance of stimuli in other contexts

D. interventions incorporating playing or singing music, or movement to music, to improve challenging behaviors and sensory difficulties

A

B. interventions incorporating cognitive restructuring

118
Q

According to the results of a systematic review by Hillman et. al 2020 on the treatment of anxiety in individuals diagnosed with ASD, Interventions followed one or more of seven elements: (a) psychoeducation, (b) exposure, (c) cognitive restructuring, (d) parent training or parent psychoeducation, (e) relaxation, (f) modeling, and (g) self‐monitoring. The overall results demonstrated that:

A. group treatment was more effective than one-to-one

B. self‐reports indicated a strong significant effect on the reduction of anxiety in students with ASD

C. treatment was more effective with just the child (clienet) present as compared to treatment that included a parent with the child (client)

D. parent and clinicians reported a significant effect

A

D. parent and clinicians reported a significant effect

119
Q

According to Schaefer, et. al. 2013, the risk for sibling becoming diagnosed with ASD is between

A. 50-55%
B. 1-3%
C. 21%-25%
D. 3-19%

A

D. 3-19%

120
Q

T or F: More than 100 genomic changes have been reported in individuals diagnosed with ASD.

A

true

121
Q

Functional fMRI studies have identified four areas in the brain that show major differences in appearance for individuals diagnosed with ASD than those areas in neurotypically developing individuals. The area that has not been implicated is the:

A. temporal association cortices
B. amygdala
C. pons
D. hippocampus

A

C. pons

122
Q

T or F: About 1 in 54 children have been identified with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) according to estimates from CDC’s Autism and Developmental Disabilities Monitoring (ADDM) Network.

A

true

123
Q

What severity level of ASD requires that a child would need “substancial support?”
A. level 1
B. level 4
C. level 2
D. level 3

A

C

124
Q

T or F: Open ended protocols have been found to be more effective than structured protocols in the treatment of ASD.

A

false

125
Q

T or F: There is strong evidence for parent mediated strategies in the treatment of ASD.

A

true

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