AP Bimex Flashcards

(127 cards)

1
Q

The methods of extraction, storage, and handling of nucleic acid molecules, depends on the type of the tissue from where they were extracted . *

TRUE
FALSE

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The following are techniques for detecting drugs in serum, except: *

Hemagglutination inhibition immunoassay
Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (Tacrolimus)
Fluorescence polarization immunoassay
High performance liquid chromatography
Thin-layer chromatography

A

Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (Tacrolimus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In virus, the main enzyme responsible for synthesizing a double helix complementary DNA strand (cDNA) from RNA is___: *

integrase
RNA polymerase
ribonuclease H
reverse transcriptase

A

reverse transcriptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

To ensure documentation of the identification of the tested individuals & the collection of evidences, the following are the CORRECT steps EXCEPT : *

samples individually packaged, sealed, and stored
appropriate informed consent
record of hematopoietic stem cell transplant.
history of any recent transfusion in the preceding month
documents showing the chain of custody of samples

A

history of any recent transfusion in the preceding month

In THE PRECEEDMG 3 MONTHS•

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Molecular Techniques are used in the medical field for the following purpose EXCEPT: *

detecting abnormal genes in patient specimens
germline genetic modification
establishing patterns of gene expression that are characteristic of specific diseases
diagnosis of different types of cancers

A

germline genetic modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This/ These is/ are TRUE of Immunosuppressives: *

used to suppress both the humoral and cell-mediated immune systems.
Corticosteroids are the drugs of choice for use in maintenance of kidney and liver allografts because of their accessibility
Many are antibiotics like rapamycin and mycophenolate mofetil.
Tacrolimus is the drug of choice in organ transplantation because of the absence of potential toxicities
1st & 3rd choices only
2nd & 4th choices only
All of the above

A

1st & 3rd choices only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TRUE of Control swabs Except÷: *

packaged separately, and clearly labelled collected one item at a time
collected from an unstained area
collected adjacent to the fluid stain
collected to either convict or free the accused

A

collected to either convict or free the accused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acute poisoning may be caused by which of the following? *

Lead
Arsenic
carbon monoxide
Cyanide
Iron

A

Cyanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

antigenic stimuli for activating the cellular response comes from the following areas of the cell , except: *

cytosolic
endosomal
extracellular
mitochondrial

A

mitochondrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

WhichstatementiscorrectregardingSputumcollectionforacidfastbacilli 1point testing? *

sputum specimen must be collected on three consecutive days.
each sputum smear on from each collection day must become positive
collect only once if first smear is positive for AFB.
1st & 3rd choices only
All of the above

A

sputum specimen must be collected on three consecutive days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

’- grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) comprise of the following findings: *
Koilocytosis & Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN 1)
(Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia) CIN 2 & CIN 3
Invasive Carcinoma
1st & 2nd choices only
All of the above

A

(Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia) CIN 2 & CIN 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An allele present in the child:but not in the mother is referred to as the ___. *

obligatory paternal gene (OG)
direct exclusion gene
obligatory paternal allele
1st & 3rd choices only
All of the above

A

1st & 3rd choices only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The simplest of the cells / tissue sampling techniques: *

Surgical biopsy
Abrasive cytology
Exfoliative cytology
Core needle biopsy
Aspiration cytology

A

Exfoliative cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DNA in the pathology laboratory can be used to *

resolve specimen mix-ups
confirm or refute mislabeling of biopsy specimens
resolved alleged sample switching
evaluate engraftment of marrow after transplantation
1st & 2nd choices only
3rd & 4th choices only
All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For CD4+ T-lymphocytes to be activated, the antigen presenting cells displays the antigen via this complex receptor. *

Major histocompatibility complex receptor class II
Major histocompatibility comlex receptor class I
Fc region/receptor
Fab region

A

Major histocompatibility complex receptor class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

. This/These is/are TRUE of chromatographic tests, except : *

In Enzyme-mediated immunologic technique (EMIT),the drug is covalently attached to an enzyme and separated in a high resistance flow column.
Capillary electrophoresis is one example
Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectroscopy is the gold-standard for detection and quantitation of volatile compounds.
Applied mainly to the qualitative detection of drugs of abuse and toxins

A

In Enzyme-mediated immunologic technique (EMIT),the drug is covalently attached to an enzyme and separated in a high resistance flow column.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta and provides the fetus with passive immunity *

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lead in blood: *

Is measured in serum and plasma
Absorption may occur by inhalation or ingestion
Both organic and inorganic compounds may be highly toxic.
Most serious effects occur in the CNS and peripheral nervous system.
1st, 2nd, & 3rd choices only
2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only
1st, 3rd, & 4th choices only
All of the above

A

2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta and provides the fetus with passive immunity *

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Routine blood group used for investigations in cases of disputed parentage EXCEPT: *

Duffy
Lewis
HLA
Rh
ABO

A

Lewis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The major cause of simultaneous elevation of prothrombin time & activated 1 point partial thromboplastin time is _______. *
Coumadin therapy
Combined Heparin & Coumadin therapy Heparin therapy
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Coagulation Factor Deficiency

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chorionicvillussampling(CVS),whichprovidestissuefromthedeveloping 1point placenta is obtained by the transabdominal or transvaginal procedure,
performed at _______ gestation. *

18 – 22 weeks
14 to 18 weeks
10 to 14 weeks
22-26 weeks

A

10 to 14 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

helper T-cells (subset type 2) ? *

IFN-y
IL-5
IL-17
IL-4

A

IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The following statements are true of Anti-asthmatics, except : *

Theophylline is used for prevention of attacks and treatment of symptomatic
exacerbations.
The basic mechanisms of these drugs result in relaxation of smooth muscle relaxation in the small airways
Oral anti-inflammatory agents interrupt the leukotriene/ arachidonic acid pathways involved in inflammation and bronchial reactivitiy
Subcutaneous injection of epinephrine relieves bronchoconstriction in acute asthma attacks.
No exception.

A

No exception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
cells can be cultivated and made to undergo more than twice but a limited number of divisions before senescence by adding cytokines and lectins to the growth media. * fibroblasts Lymphocytes Neutrophils nasal epithelial cells gastrointestinal mucosal cells
Lymphocytes
26
Regarding Amphetamines : * Effectively detected by Thin layer chromatography and Enzyme-mediated immunologic technique . Best specimen for detection by chromatography is urine. They bear close resemblance to epinephrine and norepinephrine and maybe expected to exert sympathomimetic effects May be confused with some antihistamines in routine testing. All are correct
All are correct
27
What is the maximum but adequate amount of amniotic fluid can a physician withdraw without endangering the fetus: 20 to 30-50 mL 20 to 30 mL 5 -10 mL
20 to 30 mL
28
Which findings would be diagnostic of massive muscle tissue necrosis? * Creatine kinase (CK) Potassium Myoglobin
Creatine kinase (CK) - INCREASED Potassium- INCREASED Myoglobin- INCREASED
29
Diagnose: Low 24 hrs urine sodium, normal urine osmolality, high serum sodium urine sodium * SIADH Adrenal failure Diuretics effect Cushing’s disease
Cushing’s disease
30
What determines the nomenclature of an immunoglobulin? * the isotype of the light chain t he Fc region the secretory component the isotype of the heavy chain
the isotype of the heavy chain
31
How are cytosines connected to guanines? * 3 hydrogen bonds 25 hydrogen bonds 10 hydrogen bonds 2 hydrogen bonds
3 hydrogen bonds
32
Advantages of DNA Testing EXCEPT: * DNA testing can only be performed on fresh specimens Human or primate-specific DNA is resistant to strong acids, alkalis, detergents, and environmental factors. allows for individualization of the source of the semen
DNA testing can only be performed on fresh specimens
33
Amniocentesis can be typically done during this period of gestation: * between 14 and16 weeks between 16 and18 weeks between 20 - 28 weeks between 18-20 weeks
between 16 and18 weeks
34
Effects of carbon monoxide intoxication on the body : * 1 point binds avidly to iron causing inactivation of iron containing enzymes in redox reactions. blocks the synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid resulting in blockage of DNA synthesis. produces tissue hypoxia as a result of decreased oxygen transport accumulates in soft tissues and bone in chronic toxicity. inhibits a variety of phosphodiesterases, thereby causing bronchoconstriction and apnea.
produces tissue hypoxia as a result of decreased oxygen transport
35
Interpret: Normal T4&TSH, no mass lesion * Normal Euthyroid Either A or B None of the above
Either A or B
36
of basic techniques/methods for detecting drugs in serum and urine, except: * In Thin-layer chromatography, compounds are separated based on their relative affinities for a polar solid stationary phase. Nonvolatile compounds can be detected using Liquid chromatography-Mass spectroscopy. In HPLC, The internal standard is similar in structure to the drug/s of interest and added in a known concentration, and the percentage of recovery from the column is extrapolated for all drugs of interest. In EMIT and FPIA, the drug serum concentration and the color resulting from the enzymatic reaction and decrease in fluorescence polarization is nonlinear. In both chromatographic techniques and homogeneous methods, the drug must bind to antibody before it is detected.
In both chromatographic techniques and homogeneous methods, the drug must bind to antibody before it is detected.
37
Reasons for difficulty of obtaining reference ranges for antidepressants are: * Most are metabolized using the cytochrome P450 system and different antidepressants require different isoforms of cytochrome P450 large numbers of metabolites that vary significantly in concentration in individuals. Most are lipophilic and therefore stored in tissue and slowly released High volumes of distribution of these drugs. all are correct
all are correct
38
The following statements are CORRECT regarding Mitochondrial DNA EXCEPT: * hundreds to to thousands of copies per cell small-sized useful for identifying remains. inherited from both parents
inherited from both parents
39
The usual blood gas picture in a patient with diabetes mellitus. Metabolic alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
40
A phase of clinically evaluating a suspected patient with immunodeficiency which correlates medical history and family history with complete blood counts and isohemagglutinin titers. * screening stage analytic immune stage confirmatory stage none of these 3 choices
screening stage
41
the immunoglobulin whose Fc region binds to receptors of phagocytic cells 1 point (i.e. macrophages) * IgM IgE IgA IgG
IgG
42
Interpret: Normal AST, Normal ALT, Low total protein, low albumin, high ammonia * Primary adrenalism Cirrhosis Fulminant failure Metabolic acidosis
Cirrhosis
43
Itisthemostprimitiveofalltheimmunoglobulinsandprimarilyconfinedto the intravascular space. * IgE IgG IgA IgM
IgM
44
Drugs used in the treatment of clinical depression include: * Selective serotonin Reuptake inhibitors trazodone and doxepin Monoamine oxidase inhibitors lithium Tricyclic antidepressants
lithium
45
It is the process of comparing a current laboratory result with results obtained on a previous specimen from the same patient. * critical values delta checks reference ranges linearity ranges pretest and posttest probability 1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above 1 point
delta checks
46
Absence of an expected genetic marker in a child when the parent in question appears to be homozygous (one allele present) for the gene: * two-haplotype exclusion indirect exclusion reverse homozygosity 1st & 2nd choices only 2nd & 3rd choices only All of the above
2nd & 3rd choices only
47
involves examination of spontaneously sledded cells from lining of an organ into a cavity
Exfoliative cytology
48
examination of cells collected or removed by brushing or artificial mechanical desquamation
Abrasive cytology
49
a procedure in which a thin needle is inserted into a swelling to collect a sample of cells or some amount of fluid
Aspiration cytology
50
a percutaneous procedure that involves removing a piece of tissue from a lesion or mass, using a hollow needle
Core needle biopsy
51
cutting a sample of the suspicious tissue from a mass for purposes of Diagnosis
Surgical biopsy
52
Among the bodytissues, this is /these are the most stable source/s of postmortem tissue DNA: * Bone liver brain teeth 1st & 4th choices only 2nd & 3rd choices only all of the above
1st & 4th choices only
53
These can destroy the stability of DNA: * detergents gasoline metal ions Ultraviolet radiation 3rd & 4th choices only 1st & 2nd choices only All of the above
3rd & 4th choices only
54
The following are true of environmental toxins: * Acquired hemochromatosis is caused by overingestion of iron. The most common drug of abuse is ethanol. Organophosphates contained in pesticides interfere with neurotransmission by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE). Arsenic is used in rodenticides, herbicides, insecticides, ceramics, production of livestock feed and medicines. 1st & 3rd choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above
All of the above
55
To preserve the DNA, this specimen should be transported in ice: amniotic fluid Chorionic villi Blood Solid tissue Bine marrow
Solid tissue
56
A test with a higher sensitivity _______ a greater proportion of persons ______ disease. * identifies – without excludes - with excludes - without identifies – with
identifies – with
57
A frequent cause of inadequate samples is the presence of high concentrations of interfering substances in the specimen such as in the following conditions: * Lipemia Hemolysis Gammopathies Icterus 1st, & 3rd choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above
All of the above
58
The laboratory test that determines the presence of markers of immunoglobulins synthesized in the central nervous system due to an autoimmune disease or an immunologic response to an infection. * Immunoglobulin free light chain analysis Cryoglobulin testing Immunofixation electrophoresis Oligoclonal immunoglobulim band testing
Oligoclonal immunoglobulin band testing
59
Type of cytological technique: Voided urine
Exfoliative cytology
60
Type of cytological technique: Breast tumor
Abrasive cytology
61
Type of cytological technique: Buccal mucosal smear
Abrasive cytology
62
Type of cytological technique: Thyroid nodule
Aspration cytology
63
Corticosteroids are : * highly effective anti-inflammatory agents effective in blocking inflammation by similar mechanisms as Nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs. used to treat congenital hyperbilirubinemia as it enhances the metabolism of bilirubin by induction of cytochrome P450- dependent enzymes. Side effects are fluid retention, osteoporosis, GI bleeding, mental changes 1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only 1st, 3rd, & 4th choices only All of the above
1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only
64
In Transcription, the anti-sense strand is the__. * template strand & non-coding strand non-template strand & coding strand non-template strand & non-coding strand template strand & coding strand
Non-template strand and coding strand
65
In the documentation of panic values, the following information should be written & recorded except: * name of patient title or position of the caregiver who is notified the time and date of notification the read-back by the health care worker critical value name of caregiver All except 1st & 5th choices All except 2nd & 6th choices No exception
No exception
66
the best studied immunoglobulin isotype and possess a high diffusion coefficient. * IgM IgE IgA IgG
IgG
67
In progenitor stem cell transplantation what comes out in the result. * the DNA of recipient’s parents the donor’s DNA the recipient’s DNA
the donor’s DNA
68
Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: * time between specimen collection and specimen endorsement
pre-analytical factor variation with physician as specimen collector
69
Factors That Influence Reference Ranges: * sample transport
pre-analytical factor variation with physician as specimen collector
70
time between receipt of specimen and analysis
Analyst laboratory factor
71
type of laboratory methods
analyst & laboratory factor
72
exposure to environmental factors
Analyst and laboratory factors
73
The presence of these cells confirm the specimen as “sputum” rather than “mere saliva”. * flat squamous cells foamy macrophages columnar ciliated cells neutrophils 2nd & 3rd choices only All of the above
2nd & 3rd choices only
74
TRUE of neuroleptics and antipsychotic major tranquilizers : * Difficult to monitor the levels in serum because of the large number of metabolites of each drug. Reference ranges for serum levels have not been established. used mainly in the treatment of acute schizophrenia Block the actions of dopamine and serotonin postsynaptically in the limbic system and motor cortex All of the above are correct.
All of the above are correct.
75
Pap smear is recommended every 1-2 years for the following: * women between ages 18 - 70 years women who have ever had sexual contact women of any age who are sexually active 1st & 2nd choices only All of the above
1st & 2nd choices only
76
The principle behind this instrument is to categorize cells based on their size and nuclear complexity. It is primarily used to classify different types of leukemia. * Flow Cytometry Microlymphocytotoxicity by dye exclusion Enzyme-lnked immunosorbent spot assay Protein electrophoresis
Flow cytometry
77
Confirmatory tests require ______ to be certain of the diagnosis. * low sensitivity high sensitivity low specificity high specificity
high specificity
78
The four areas of study in Toxicology include the following, except: * detection of toxins the individual is exposed to determination of levels of therapeutic drugs administered to patients detection of mutated proteins and abnormal DNA sequences detection of drugs of abuse no exception
no exception
79
These are laboratory results that may represent a life-threatening situation that may not otherwise be readily detectable. * critical values delta checks reference ranges linearity ranges pretest and posttest probability 1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above
critical values
80
It is the predominant antibody in secretions * IgD IgA IgG IgM
IgA
81
A double swab techniqueis the preferred method for collection of DNA in the following condition: * biologic fluid deposited on a surface dry biologic fluid from bitemarks on bodies from large pools of blood and bloodstains.
from bitemarks on bodies
82
The immunoglobulin that initiate aspects of the allergic reaction and binds to basophils via the Fc region. * IgG IgE IgA IgM
IgE
83
A phase of clinically evaluating a suspected patient with immunodeficiency which utilizes thymic MRI imaging and skin testing * screening stage none of these 3 choices confirmatory stage analytic immune stage
confirmatory stage
84
Monitoring of therapeutic drugs is essential because of the following reasons: * Possible toxic side effects of medications Lack of patient compliance resulting in subtherapeutic levels that may require intervention. To achieve a constant serum level that will be therapeutic Therapeutic efficacy of metabolites of some therapeutic drugs are unknown. 1st & 3rd choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above
All of the above
85
Diagnose: high 24hr urine sodium, low urine osmolality, low serum sodium * Diabetes insipidus Bartter’s syndrome SIADH Dehydration
Bartter’s syndrome
86
When do you put the smears &/or tissue in the fixative solution? * right after slide smearing or as soon as tissue is collected immediately after air drying the cytology smears instantly after the surgical biopsy wound is sutured as soon as the physician gets the opportunity 2nd & 3rd choices only All of the above
right after slide smearing or as soon as tissue is collected
87
Infection with this organism can result to squamous koilocytotic atypia, dysplasias, & eventually to carcinoma when untreated. * Monilia Gardnerella vaginalis Human Papillomavirus Trichomonas vaginalis Herpes Simplex
Human Papillomavirus
88
zone wherein antigen and antibodies are approximately of equal molar concentration and where the largest antibody-antigen complexes occur/formed. * zone of equivalence zone of proportionality zone of antibody equity zone of disequivalence
zone of equivalence
89
Phenobarbital as an anticonvulsant, possess this/these following characteristics, except : * neuronal membrane stabilizer through intercalation given for withdrawal symptoms in infants born to opiate or barbiturate-addicted mothers. Induce a number of the cytochrome P450 systems Diminishes frequency of firing action potentials by potentiating the gamma- aminobutyric acid (GABA) effect no exception
no exception
90
antigenic substances can be composed of : * large polysaccharides proteins glycoproteins all of these 3 choices
all of these 3 choices
91
The following drugs slow down the electrical conduction in the heart by their effects on the action potentials in myocytes and conduction system. * Lidocaine block rapid sodium influx in phase 1 Betablockers like propranolol increases the intrasarcolemmal concentration of calcium Amiodarone inhibits the chronotropic effects of adrenergic neurotransmitters. Class IV drugs like Verapamil increasethe length of the refractory period by blocking the repolarizing potassium currents all of the above are correct
Lidocaine block rapid sodium influx in phase 1
92
Interpret: Elevated TSH, Normal RDW * Primary hyperthyroidism Primary adrenalism Hypothyroidism Euthyroid
Hypothyroidism
93
Aspiration biopsy procedure is not indicated for: * the spleen patients with bleeding disorders patient at risk for bleeding from chemo-radiation or from cancer itself patient taking blood thinning drugs. Last 3 choice only All of the above
All of the above
94
The mechanisms of action of the cardiotropics in slowing down electrical 1 point conduction include: * block sodium influx in phase I of the action potential increase length of the action potential by blocking repolarizing potassium currents inhibit the chronotropic effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine increase the length or refractory period by slowing the influx of calcium ions 1st & 3rd choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above
All of the above
95
MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection * Cytokines in inflammation
Macroarrays
96
MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection * M tuberculosis
Hybridization line-blot reverse
97
MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection * Gene expression profiling & DNA sequencing
Microarrays oligonucleotide
98
MOLECULAR TESTS for Disease Detection * CMV
ASSAYS CAPTURE HYBRID
99
The use of fixatives, such as alcohol, formalin, or a mixture of both is indicated in all types of cells / tissue sampling techniques. * False True in all techniques Fresh specimens may not be soaked in fixatives True in biopsy techniques only True in cytology techniques only
True in all techniques
100
True statements of sedative-hypnotics, except: . * Cannabis (marijuana), smoked or ingested orally is readily stored in the body fat and maybe detected in the urine 1-4 wks from ingestion. The sedative-hypnotic effects of barbiturates is due to the selective inhibition of the reticular activating system. Cocaine is the oldest and most widely used of the mind-altering drugs. Methaqualone is a local anesthetic that possess anticonvulsant and antitussive properties. All of the barbiturates are fat-soluble and pass easily across the blood-brain barrier.
Cocaine is the oldest and most widely used of the mind-altering drugs.
101
MOLECULAR TESTING FOR DISEASES * Clostridium difficile; group A and Group B beta hemolytic streptococci; Mycoplasma pneumoniae;
LOOP-MEDIATED AMPLIFICATION (LAMP)
102
HPV; thrombophilia mutations (Factor II, Factor V)
CLEAVASE/INVADER TECHNOLOGY
103
Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, Human papillomavirus (HPV);Trichomonas vaginalis,
TRANSCRIPTION- BASED AMPLIFICATION
104
influenza RNA; A and B viruses
NICKING ENZYME AMPLIFICATION REACTION (NEAR)
105
The primary medicinal use of Opiates is: * local anesthesia antitussive tranquilizers sedative-hypnotics analgesic/ to diminish or eliminate pain in a patient.
analgesic/ to diminish or eliminate pain in a patient.
106
Osler’s rule For patient under the age of 60 years, try to attribute all abnormal laboratory findings to a single cause. Never rely on a single out-of-reference range value to make a diagnosis. Only if there is no possible way to correlate all abnormal findings should the possibility of multiple diagnoses be entertained. 1st & 3rd choices only 1st & 2nd choices only All of the above
1st & 3rd choices only
107
A jaundiced patient with all high serum enzymes & bilirubin, but normal protein, is most likely to have _____. * Hemolytic anemia Inflamed liver Obstructed cystic duct Hepatoma
Inflamed liver
108
The following are examples of toxins, except : * Cyanide Ethanol Mercury Lithium Iron
Lithium
109
True of neuroleptics and antipsychotic major tranquilizers : Difficult to monitor the levels in serum because of the large number of metabolites of each drug. Reference ranges for serum levels have not been established. used mainly in the treatment of acute schizophrenia Block the actions of dopamine and serotonin postsynaptically in the limbic system and motorcortex 1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only 1st, 3rd, & 4th choices only All of the above
All of the above
110
This test for COVID-19 virus needs a respiratory specimen: PCR testing Antigen Testing Antibody testing 1st & 2nd choices only 2nd & 3rd choices only All of the above
1st & 2nd choices only
111
The first and most critical step for evidence: * recording hematopoietic stem cell transplant. extraction of DNA from biologic sources requesting informed consent documenting the chain of custody of samples noting recent transfusion in the preceding month
extraction of DNA from biologic sources
112
The micronutrient essential for thymic development and is severely deficient in malnourished patients. * zinc vitamin C selenium iron
Zinc
113
A patient complaining of dizziness has the following Lab results below. Microcytic Normocytic erythrocytes; Normal serum iron /total Iron binding capacity ratio; Decreased red cell count; Normal iron binding capacity; Decreased serum iron; Normal red cell distribution width; High ferritin. What is the most probable diagnosis? * Megaloblastic Anemia Aplastic Anemia Anemia of Chronic Disease Hemolytic Anemia Renal Failure Iron Deficiency Anemia
Anemia of Chronic Disease
114
the criminalistics context, DNA can be used: * to link or exculpate a suspect to a crime, to recognize serial crimes to aid in accident reconstruction identification of human remains 1st & 2nd choices only 3rd & 4th choices only All of the above
All of the above
115
Immunoglobulin that can exist as a dimer * IgD IgG IgA IgM
IgA
116
The postanalytic evaluation process, on the clinical significance of the Laboratory Test result, includes the following: * critical values delta checks reference ranges linearity ranges pretest and posttest probability 1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above
1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only
117
This is NOT TRUE regarding using DNA as an identity marker: * the same throughout life from the time of conception the same in all cells of the body except the gametocytes different in all individuals including identical twins present throughout all the nucleated cells of the body
different in all individuals including identical twins
118
The most important site for Gynaecological Cytology sampling: * exocervical-vaginal junction endocervical – exocervical junction endometrial- endocervical junction tubal-endometrial junction
endocervical – exocervical junction
119
At what part of the antibody do antigens react/bind to? * Disulfide bonds Fab region Fc region secretory component
Fab region
120
The fundamental characteristics of TARGET AMPLIFICATION METHODS EXCEPT: * All produce millions to billions of copies of the targeted sequence in a matter of hours The primers bind to complementary sequences on one strand of double-stranded targets. The amplification products in all the techniques are defined by two oligonucleotide primers. They are enzyme-mediated processes that synthesize copies of target nucleic acid.
The primers bind to complementary sequences on one strand of double-stranded targets.
121
Which findings would be diagnostic of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) in a patient with fulminant liver failure? apTT platelet counts partial thromboplastin time (PTT) D-dimer
apTT - INCREASED platelet count- DECREASED partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - INCREASED D-dimer- INCREASED
122
Given the correct culture conditions, these cells can divide and grow in vitro for 50-100 generations. * Lymphocytes fibroblasts gastrointestinal mucosal cells nasal epithelial cells Neutrophils
fibroblasts
123
These are true as to the following anti-inflammatory drugs: Aspirin is a steroidal compound that is an analgesic and antipyretic. Acetaminophen is preferred over Aspirin as toxicity never occur. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents block cyclooxygenase. Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) exhibits anticoagulant activity though inhibition of COX in platelets. All of the above are true
Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) exhibits anticoagulant activity though inhibition of COX in platelets.
124
All of the following statements about Drugs of abuse are correct, except:* Many of these drugs act directly on dopaminergic and norepinephrinergic neurotransmitter systems. Most compounds contain a basic amino-group. Rapid emergency room screening methods are Thin-layer chromatography and EMIT. Employment screening and forensic testing would require an independent confirmatory technique from the screen method. The tricyclic antidepressants are used to treat psychotic states such as schizophrenia.
Most compounds contain a basic amino-group.
125
The mechanisms of drugs of abuse include: * stimulate pathways that utilize norepinephrine as the neurotransmitter binds to sodium-potassium activated ATPase thereby blocking sodium efflux Undergo metabolism in the extramitochondrial microsomal system in hepatocytes block sodium influx and secondary calcium influxes 1st, 2nd, & 3rd choices only 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only 1st, 3rd, & 4th choices only All of the above
1st, 2nd, & 3rd choices only
126
Muddy brown urine casts with high urine protein is usually seen in _____. * Post-renal azotemia Prerenal azotemia Intrarenal azotemia
Intrarenal azotemia
127
Which findings would be diagnostic of a severe liver failure? * serum bilirubin total protein - Lactate Dehydrogenase - De Ritis ratio-
serum bilirubin- INCREASED total protein - DECREASED Lactate Dehydrogenase - INCREASED De Ritis ratio- INCREASED