AP Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
the homeostatic control of body temperature through sweat (epidermis) and adjusting blood flow(dermis)
A
thermoregulation
2
Q
light touch, pressure, vibration, tickle, heat, cold, and pain sensed on the skin
A
cutaneous sensations
3
Q
passage of material from the external environment into body cells (minor role of skin)
A
absorption
4
Q
UV radiation which is then broken down by enzymes in the liver and kidneys to form active Vitamin D
A
Synthesis of Vitamin D
5
Q
superficial layer of the skin; composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium with 4-5 strata
A
Epidermis
6
Q
deep layer of skin composed of loose areolar CT and dense irregular CT
A
Dermis
7
Q
a membrane that separates the dermis and the epidermis
A
Basement Membrane
8
Q
ridges that provide better grip and are called “fingerprints”; reflect underlying dermal ridges
A
Epidermal Ridges
9
Q
What are the four types of cells in the epidermis?
A
Keratinocytes, Langerhans cells, Melanocytes, and Merkel Cells
10
Q
most abundant cell in the epidermis (90%) which produce keratin and lamellar
A
Keratinocytes
11
Q
a tough, fibrous protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues
A
Keratin
12
Q
bodies which secrete water-repellant sealant
A
Lamellar Granules
13
Q
stem-cell precursors of keratinocytes; arising from the stratum basale, these differentiate into keratinocytes as they become more superficial
A
Basal Keratinocytes/Basal Cells
14
Q
the differentiation process that replaces the contents of keratinocytes with the protein keratin (2-4 weeks)
A
Keratinization
15
Q
the sloughing off of superficial keratinized cells as new cells are synthesized in the stratum basale
A
Desquamation
16
Q
a common skin cancer, arising from basal keratinocytes
A
Basal Cell Carcinoma
17
Q
dendrite cells of the epidermis; most prominent cells in the stratum spinosum; function as macrophages
A
Langerhans Cells
18
Q
pigment-producing cells in the stratum basale
A
Melanocytes
19
Q
cancers arising from melanocytes
A
Melanomas
20
Q
specialized sensory-receptor cells found in the stratum basale that have an associated nerve
A
Merkel Cells
21
Q
What are the four layers of the epidermal strata called?
A
Thin Skin
22
Q
What are the 5 layers of the epidermal strata, which only appear on the palms, soles, and digits, called? Hint: it’s hairless
A
Thick Skin
23
Q
thinnest epidermis (0.05 mm)
A
Eyelids
24
Q
Thickest Epidermis
A
Palms and soles (1.5 mm)
25
What is the order of all the stratum?
Corneum, lucidium, granulosum, spinosum, basale
26
deepest layer of the epidermis which is attached to the basement membrane and is composed of basal cells. Contains melanocytes and merkle cells
stratum basale
27
thickest layer of the epidermis with "spiny" keratinocytes. Also includes Langerhans cells
Stratum Spinosum
28
the layer of the epidermis where keratinocytes flatten and lose their organelles (apoptosis). this layer also synthesizes lipids to aid in waterproofing the skin and also stains the darkest
Stratum Granulosum
29
A layer of epidermis only found in thick skin; "clear/translucent"
Stratum Lucidium
30
most superficial layer of the epidermis consisting of 10-30 layers of "dead, keratin-filled sacs" which will "slough off"
Stratum Corneum
31
increased keratinization
cornification
32
the "sloughing off" of the stratum corneum
desquamation
33
the presence of too much keratin which then flakes off
dandruff
34
active form of vitamin D which the epidermis produces from inactive vitamin D, obtained from UV radiation
calcitrol
35
vitamin that promotes bone health and immunity against bacterial, viral, and fungal infections
vitamin d
36
the superficial layer of the dermis, consisting of loose areolar CT and dermal papillae
papillary layer
37
nipple-like structures of the dermis that extend into the epidermis and create epidermal ridges on the hands/feet
dermal paillae
38
finger-like extensions of the dermis into the epidermis
interdigitation
39
deep layer of the dermis, composed of dense irregular CT which appears like a "reticular meshwork" and supports hair follicles, oil, and sweat glands
reticular layer
40
where the hair originates from; epidermal penetrations into the dermis and is present in most thin skin. includes oil glands and erector pili muscles. functions: protection, reduced heat loss, and sensing light touch
hair follicles
41
oil glands; typically associated with hair follicles and produce sebum; don't usually appear in thick skin
sebaceous glands
42
sweat glands. functions: regulate body temperature and elimination of wates
sudoriferous glands
43
the hypodermis which is composed of adipose tissue to store fat as well as allow passage of blood vessels and nerve endings; not part of the skin
subcutaneous layer
44
glands which secrete cerumen (earwax) and are located in the external auditory meatus
ceruminous glands
45
head, dead, keratinized epidermal cells which provides protection for the digits
nails
46
layer of dead skin which "rides out" on the nail to form a protective seal
cuticle
47
an infection around the nail
paronychia
48
the white, crescent shape at the proximal end of the nail
lunula
49
results of the edema separating the epidermis from the dermis
blisters
50
Tissues in Bones (6)
bone tissue, cartilage, dense CT, epithelium, fat tissue, nervous tissue
51
what are six functions of bones?
1. structural framework
2. movement
3. hemopoiesis
4. protection
5. mineral homeostasis
6. fat storage
52
minerals stored in bones
calcium and phosphorus for mineral homeostasis
53
the formation of blood cells which occurs in red bone marrow
hemopoiesis (hematopoiesis)
54
the shaft of long bones and is made mainly of compact bone and stores yellow bone marrow in the medullary cavity
diaphysis
55
the end of the bone that articulates with adjacent bones and are covered with hyaline cartilage (articular cartilage)
epiphysis
56
the zone of growth on a long bone, located between the diaphysis and epiphysis and also includes the epiphyseal plate. it also serves to transfer the load of weight-bearing joint surfaces to the diaphysis
metaphysis
57
area of hyaline cartilage for bone growth located in the metaphysis, along the epiphyseal border
epiphyseal plate or growth plate
58
closed growth plate
epiphyseal line
59
the cavity in the diaphysis which contains yellow bone marrow (triglycerides) and is lined by endosteum
medullary canal
60
a thin, vascular layer of tissue that lines the inner surfaces of bones and has osteogenic capabilities (similar to periosteum). During appositional growth, assists in bone resorption on inner surfaces
endosteum
61
most superficial layer of bone; contains osteogenic cells which can differentiate into osteoblasts to assist in bone repair and growth. contains nerves to sense damage and pain
periosteum
62
bone tissue consisting of widely separated cells surrounded by a large amount of matrix and has 4 main cell types
osseous tissue
63
what are the four main cell types of the osseous tissue?
osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts
64
cells that undergo cell division and develop into osteoblasts; most primative/stem cells
osteogenic cells
65
bone-building cells which promote bone deposition
osteoblasts
66
mature bone cells that maintain bone tissue
osteocytes
67
bone cells derived from monocytes which break down bone tissue (resoprtion)
osteoclasts
68
a type of white blood cell
monocytes
69
a structural support surrounding the bone cells, composed of inorganic salts (hardness) and collagen fibers (strength)
matrix
70
the deposition of calcium carbonate salts into a framework of collagen fibers; can only occur with the presence of collagen fibers
calcification (mineralization)
71
uncalcified bone matrix
osteoid
72
dense, hard bone arranged in osteons and found on the outer aspect of bones
compact bone/cortical bone
73
the central canal of osteons that contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels and are surrounded by concentric lamellae
haversian canal
74
vascular channels in compact bone allowing for the passage for blood vessels, lymphatics vessels, nerves of the medullary cavity, periosteum, and connection of central canals
Volkmann Canals
75
rings of hard, calcified ECM
Concentric Lamellae
76
little, pit-like space which house osteocytes
lacuna
77
a small channel that radiates from a lacuna and are filled with ECF and provide routes for nutrients and oxygen to reach the osteocytes
canaliculus
78
forms the interior structure of short, flat, and irregular bones and epiphysis of long bones and contains trabeculae and is filled with red bone marrow for hemopoiesis
spongy bone/trabecular bone
79
irregular latticework of thin columns of bone surrounding many spaces filled with red bone marrow
trabeculae
80
maintaining proper levels of calcium in the body, particularly in the blood stream. Important for muscle contractions, nerve impulses, and enzyme activity
calcium homeostasis
81
chemical messengers released into the blood stream that travel to a different location of the body for a physiological affect
hormones
82
hormones for Ca2+ homeostasis
PTH, calcitrol, calcitonin
83
the hormone secreted by the parathyroid gland which increases blood Ca2+ through bone resorption decreased Ca2+ in urine, and indirect increase of Ca2+ absorption from the gut through activation of calcitriol
PTH
84
active form of vitamin D which increases blood Ca2+ through increasing Ca2+ absorption from the gut and decreasing Ca2+ in the urine
Calcitrol
85
hormone secreted by the thyroid gland which decreases Ca2+ levels by inhibiting osteoclastic acitivty
Calcitonin
86
most prominent artery to the bone
nutrient artery
87
hole in the bone through which the nutrient artery passes through
nutrient foramen
88
central canals of the osteons through which nutrients for the osteocytes travel
nutrient canal
89
bone formation through initial formation, bone growth, remodeling and repair
ossification
90
embryonic type of CT from which all types of CT arise
mesenchyme
91
formation of bones directly from mesenchyme and only for formation of flat bones
intramembrous ossificaiton
92
what are the four steps of the intramebranous ossification
1. development of ossification centers
2. calcification of bone matrix
3. formation of trabeculae
4. development of the periosteum and compact bone
93
The first step of intramebranous ossificication where mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteogenic cells, then into osteoblasts which lay down uncalcified bone matrix (osteoid)
development of ossification centers
94
bone formation including a cartilage model; bone formation for ALL bones but flat bones
endochondrial ossification
95
what are the six steps of endochondrial ossification
1. development and growth of hyaline cartilage model
2. development of bone collar
3. development of a primary ossification center
4. development of medullary canal
5. development of secondary ossification centers
6. formation of articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate
96
a layer of compact bone, formed by the osteoblasts, which runs the length of the diaphysis under the periosteum which blocks nutrients from entering the cartilage, allowing it to die
bone collar
97
growth of bones that occurs at the epiphyseal growth plate; cartilage, formed by chondroblasts, is degraded and replaced by osseous tissue; plate closes between 18-25 yrs. of age
longitudinal bone growth
98
bone growth in diameter, accomplished through bone resorption in the medullary cavity; necessary for bone remodeling
appositional bone growth
99
the ongoing replacement of old bone tissue with new bone tissue; old bone is destroyed by osteoclasts and new bone is constructed by osteoblasts; for normal growth and repairing injuries
bone remodeling
100
loss of bone minerals which can be prevented through weight-bearing activities
demineralization
101
what are the elements necessary for bone remodeling?
1. weight-bearing activities
2. vitamins (A, C, and D)
3. minerals (calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium)
4. hormones (hGH and sex hormones)
102
a break in a bone
fracture
103
a series of microscopic breaks in a bone, often without evidence of injury
stress fracture
104
a fracture caused by diseased or weakened bones
pathologic fracture
105
fracture where skin is intact
simple fracture
106
fracture where skin is broken
compound fracture
107
occurs straight across the bone
transverse fracture
108
a fracture that runs down the bone
linear fracture
109
occurs at an angle across the bone
oblique fracture
110
a fracture in which the bone has been twisted apart; often a sign of abuse
spiral fracture
111
a break in which the broken bones retain their alignment
non-displaced fracture
112
a break where bone ends are out of normal alignment
displaced fracture
113
where a young bone bends and only partially breaks
greenstick fracture
114
bone breaks into many fragments
comminuted fracture
115
a fragment of bone tears away from the main bone
avulsion fracture
116
one bone fragment is firmly driven into another
impacted fracture
117
what are the treatments for a bone fracture? (3)
1. anatomic realignment (if necessary)
2. immobilization
3. restoration of function
118
an infection of the bone, resulting from a compound fracture
osteomyelitis
119
what are the four body repairs for fractures?
1. phagocytes (clean up dead bone tissue)
2. chondroblasts (form fibrocartilage at broken ends)
3. osteoblasts (replace fibrocartilage with spongy bone)
4. bone modeling
120
a condition resulting from demineralization of bone and bone resorption outpaces bone formation
osteoporosis
121
softening and weakening of bones in children due to vitamin D deficiency; leads to bow leggedness
rickets
122
"brittle bone disease" caused by a genetic mutation affecting collagen formation. Blue sclera is a common indication
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
123
shortening of a muscle to produce force
contraction
124
the lengthening of a muscle to return to a non-contracted state
relaxation
125
voluntary muscle which attaches to bones and cartilage, providing movement
skeletal muscle
126
often called "muscle fibers"
muscle cells
127
the cell membrane of muscle fibers which contains transverse tubules and can carry APs
sarcolemma
128
oxygen-binding protein that stores oxygen and speedily delivers it to the mitochondria to aid in ATP production; located in the muscle cell rather than the blood
Myoglobin
129
located on the periphery of the skeletal muscle cell; multinucleated
nuclei
130
proteins that generate force; myosin and actin
contractile proteins
131
protein in thick myofilaments
myosin
132
main component of thin filaments that myosin-binding sites
actin
133
function as "on/off" switches of contractions; tropomyosin, troponin
regulatory proteins
134
two other protein components of thin myofilaments besides actin
troponin and tropomyosin
135
proteins that keep thick and thin filaments in proper alignment; titin
structural proteins
136
giant protein and main structural anchor/spring; connects the Z disc to the M line to limit ROM to the sarcomere; third most abundant protein in the muscle
Titin (connectin)
137
lightly organized thick and thin filaments within a skeletal muscle cell
myofilaments
138
basic contractile unit of a muscle that extends from Z disc to Z disc; shortens during a muscle contraction which shortens the entire muscle; striated
Sarcomere
139
arrangement of many sarcomeres connected end-to-end along the entire muscle cell; tube-like structure that's wrapped in sarcoplasmic reticulum
myofibrils
140
network of saccules and tubes that house calcium which is released to cause muscle contractions and reabsorbed during relaxation; covers myofibrils
sacroplasmic reticulum
141
type of skeletal muscle fiber which contracts slowly but is fatigue resistant; uses aerobic respiration, thus has increased mitochondria and myoglobin
slow oxidative (SO)
142
type of skeletal muscle fiber which can contract quickly but fatigues more easily than SO; uses aerobic respiration but can switch to anaerobic (glycolysis); "intermediate fibers"
Fast Oxidative-Glycolidic (FOG)
143
type of skeletal muscle fiber that can contract powerfully and rapidly but also fatigues quickly; uses anaerobic glycolysis; few myoglobin (thus, pale in color)
Fast Glycolytic (FG)
144
sheet of CT (rather than a cord) which surrounds the epimysium among other things
Fascia
145
a bundle of muscle fibers
fascicle
146
highly deadly poison produced by clostridium botulinum prevents the release of ACh leading to botulism (muscle weakness)
Botulinum Toxin
147
bacteria taht causes botulism
clostridium botulinum
148
an abnormal decrease in muscle tone normally due to brain, spinal cord, or nervous system damage; "floppy baby syndrome" in infants
hypotonia
149
decreased reflexes
hyporeflexia
150
a state of limpness in which muscle tone is lost
flaccid
151
excessive muscle tone often accompanies by hyperreflexia; often result of damge to upper motor neurons (stroke, brain tumor, Parkinson's); muscle rigidly or spasticity
hypertonia
152
overly strong reflex
hyperreflexia
153
a phasic change in muscle tone where a limb will "snap" back from passive stretching
spasticity
154
a decrease in the size of an organ or body part due to the decrease size of the cells; "wasting away" often due to underuse
atrophy
155
what are the three factors that determine tension?
1. # of fibers in a motor unit
2. type of fibers in a motor unit
3. stretch of the fibers before contraction
156
what are the three factors that determine tension?
1. # of fibers in a motor unit
2. type of fibers in a motor unit
3. stretch of the fibers before contraction
157
what are the three types of fibers?
1. type 1 (SO)
2. type 11a (FOG)
3. type 11b (FG)
158
fibers that are smallest in diameter and least powerful
Type 1 (SO)
159
fibers that are intermediate in diameter and have strength
Type 11a (FOG)
160
Fibers that are greatest in diameter and have strength
Type 11a (FG)
161
sthe immediate and direct source of energy for muscle contractions, but is in limited amounts
Cytosolic ATP
162
catabolizing the small amounts of creatine phosphate in the skeleatl muscle cells generates ATP for inital conttractions
Creatine phosphate
