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APK 1997 Flashcards

1
Q

a synovial joint possess which distinguishing feature/s:
a. a potential cavity
b. a capsule of fibrous tissue line with synovial membrane
c. a lubricated articular cartilage
d. all of these

A

all of these

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2
Q

one of the following true of coronary circulation:

A

a low cardiac output may give rise to angina pectoris as when the aortic valve does not close properly

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3
Q

which of the following statements is true:

A

the median nn supplies all of the FPL and the adjoining half of the FDP; the median half of profundus is supplied by the median nn.

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4
Q

when the scapula is stabilized, the following ranges of motion is attributed to the glenohumeral joint, EXCEPT:

A

when the glenohumeral joint is externally rotated to 90deg. by active insufficiency of the brachialis muscles

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5
Q

functional of ligaments include:
a. protect or hold in position some more important structure usually a nerve
b. prohibits movements in undesired plane
c. all of these
d. limit the range or extent of normal movement

A

all of these

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6
Q

the security of the ankle joint is a result of an immobile act no rigid union of the following joint:

A

inferior tibiofibular joint

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7
Q

a patient is paralyzed from the waist down and has been using the wheelchair. the following procedures will allow the patient to go up and down the stairs, EXCEPT:

A

in climbing down, after positioning herself at the edge of the landing, she’ll slide her buttocks and her hands onto each step using her hands to position her legs onto the next lower step

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8
Q

this nerve innervates the superior oblique and exits the brain stem posteriorly:

A

trochlear nerve

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9
Q

functions of the veins include:

A

propels blood through venous pump

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10
Q

in the central part of the mediastinal part of the medial surface is large area where bronchi and pulmonary vessels plunge into the lung. name this part:

A

hilus

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11
Q

functions of the pretibial group, EXCEPT:

A

important in many open-chain motion, i.e. in placing the foot for driving

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12
Q

the following statements apply to crutch-walking up the stairs, non-weight bearing right, EXCEPT:

A

to move up unto the next step, patient pushes down on his crutches and hop onto the first step with left foot, the other leg moving up onto the step at the same time.

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13
Q

in polyneuropathy, lesions of the occur bilaterally and the effects are usually more prominent in the proximal than in distal parts of the extremities:

A

the first statement is true, the second statement is false

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14
Q

the following statements describes the factors affecting a cell’s net rate of diffusion in one direction, EXCEPT:

A

in ions, the difference in chemical potential between the two sides of the membrane

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15
Q

decrease in resting membrane potential, making it more positive:

A

depolarization

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16
Q

which of the following is true of the patella:

A

it is a sesamoid bone in a tendon and is said to enhance the power of knee extensors by increasing the leverage of that muscle

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17
Q

the following statements describe a lower motor neuron paralysis, EXCEPT:

A

reflex arc is interrupted resulting in exaggerated stretch reflex

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18
Q

procedures performed together to relieve pain by exercising the synovial membrane and removing diseased cartilage, soft tissue and the bony enlargement from joints:

A

debridement and synovectomy

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19
Q

this muscle inserts into the iliotibial tract and into the gluteal tuberosity of the shaft of the femur, posterior aspect:

A

gluteus maximus

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20
Q

which of the following events are required for the mechanical linkages between the actin and myosin to produce muscle contraction?
a. none of these
b. chemical reaction to provide energy of active tension
c. both of these
d. a specific stimulus to trigger the coupling of the two filaments

A

none of these

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21
Q

the hindfoot is composed of the following bones:

A

talus and calcaneus

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22
Q

mobility of the shoulder joint is made possible by these bony articulations:
a. all of these
b. acromioclavicular
c. sternoclavicular
d. glenohumeral

A

all of these

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23
Q

muscle for inward rotation of the glenohumeral joint

A

subscapularis

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24
Q

invasion and eversion of the foot occurs at which joint

A

subtalar and transverse tarsal joint

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25
Q

unilateral contraction of this muscle combines rotation of the head to the opposite side, lateral flexion to the same side, and head and cervical vertebrae extension:

A

sternocleidomastoid

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26
Q

the following statements apply to the bicipital groove, EXCEPT:

A

bordered medially by the greater tuberosity and laterally by the lesser tuberosity

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27
Q

in erb-duchenne palsy, the following conditions apply, EXCEPT:

A

causes excessive traction or tearing of C3 and C4 roots of the brachial plexus

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28
Q

this injury causes paralysis of the pronator teres and quadratus

A

median nerve injury above the elbow

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29
Q

relatively rapid, irregularly recurrent, unpredictable nonrhythmic, involuntary movements of the trunk, face of extremities:

A

chorea

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30
Q

the following statements apply to genu valgum, EXCEPT:

A

abnormalities of calcium metabolism may stimulate this problem

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30
Q

the human torso’s nerve supply of an orderly series of spinal nerves is evidenced by its segmental development. one pair of spinal nerve supplies this strip-like area of skin. this is known as

A

dermatome

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30
Q

in flexing the knees and hips and dorsiflexing the ankles, objects may be lifted from the floor. the following positions of the pelvis and vertebrae are used:

A

anterior tilt of the pelvis with lordotic position of the lumbar spine

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31
Q

the following statements are true of the clavicle, EXCEPT:

A

when clavicular rotation is prevented, arm elevation is limited to 90deg.

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32
Q

the pained spinal nerves are as follows:

A

8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve

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33
Q

if your patient cannot support weight on one leg but has good muscular strength and coordination, which crutch-walking gait would you choose?

A

three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)

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34
Q

this channel communicated with the periosteum at the bone’s surface and receives fluid from the haversian canal

A

canaliculus

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35
Q

this spinal accord tapers at the level of the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra called:

A

corpus medullaris

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36
Q

using the athroscope and supplementary instruments, which of the following procedures can be performed?
a. draining of a septic tank
b. biopsy of synovial disorders
c. removing loose foreign bodies and adhesions
d. adhesions
e. smoothing knee cartilage irregularities from chondromalacia patellae

A

all of these

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37
Q

cerebrospinal fluid is formed primarily by specialized tissue in the ventricles called:

A

choroid plexus

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38
Q

the whole process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates muscle contraction is called excitation-contraction, coupling. during this process, the following events occur, EXCEPT:

A

norepinephrine is released into the myoneural junction

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39
Q

acetylcholine is released at the vagal nerve endings through the stimulation of the parasympathetic nerves to the heart. effects of this hormone include:
a. slow transmission of cardiac impulse to the ventricles
b. both of these
c. none of these
d. decreases the rate of rhythm of the sinus node

A

both of these

40
Q

muscle contraction strength is increased in the following manner:
a. increasing the frequency of stimulation of individual motor units
b. motor neurons with the smallest innvervations ratio are activated initially
c. all of these
d. simultaneously increasing the number of activated motor units

A

all of these

41
Q

this structure separates the left and right cerebral hemisphere:

A

medial longitudinal fissure

42
Q

synovial joints have the most complex structure and permit maximus mobility, and include:
a. all of these
b. none of these
c. joint capsule
d. articular cartilage
e. synovial membrane and cavity

A

all of these

43
Q

a fracture line that forms a right angle with the bone’s axis:

A

transverse

44
Q

increase in resting membrane potential, making it more negative:

A

hyperpolarization

45
Q

the following statements are true of arthroscopy, EXCEPT:

A

it is both a diagnostic procedure and treatment and involves very little knee trauma

46
Q

in actions such as jumping with knees bent, the femur has a marked tendency to slide forwards off the plateau-like tibial surface. this ligament resists this tendency:

A

posterior cruciate ligament

47
Q

if your patient cannot support his weight on one leg but has normal use of his arms, upper body and other leg, which crutch-walking gait would you choose?

A

three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)

48
Q

which of the following statements is true of lesions of the basal ganglia:
a. muscle tone abnormalities and involuntary movements
b. disorders involving initiation of movement
c. difficulty in continuing and stopping movement
d. all of these

A

all of these

49
Q

a fibrous type of joint that tightly connects the articular surfaces of two bones but permits minimal movement:

A

syndesmosis

50
Q

these effects result in aerobic energy depletion in the early stages of heavy exercise:
a. both of these
b. oxygen debt
c. depletion of glycogen stores
d.. none of these

A

both of these

51
Q

this type of contraction stabilizes joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle:

A

isometric

52
Q

functions of the cerebellum include:
a. none of these
b. it receives proprioceptive impulses via the spinal cord (spinocerebellar tracts) from tendons, joints, and muscle
c. all of these
d. it receives proprioceptive impulses from the semicircular canal

A

all of these

53
Q

when muscle contracts to operate and so regulate the speed and power of another prime mover it is said to be a

A

synergist

54
Q

the final stage of mitosis where the two sets of daughter chromosomes are pulled completely apart:

A

telophase

55
Q

the human peripheral nervous system is composed of

A

12 pairs of cranial nerve and 31 pairs of spinal nerves

56
Q

myelin sheath is possessed by peripheral and central nerve fibers, but only peripheral nerve fibers additionally have:

A

schwann cell

57
Q

in the O-A-B blood group system, the agglutinins responsible for causing transfusion reactions develop simulatenously: whereas in the Rh system, spontaneous agglutinins almost never occur:

A

the first statement is true, the second statement is false

58
Q

this muscle is innervated by two branches of the femoral nerve, and performs hip flexion and extension. the tendon of origin may be palpated in the V-shaped area between the sartorius and tensor fascia latae when the hip is flexed:

A

rectus femoris

59
Q

the ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdle from any cause. the following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength, EXCEPT:

A

when the serratus anterior is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medial ward and up

60
Q

the following precautions must be observed when turning patients after internal fixation, EXCEPT:

A

as the patient turns, support affected leg in adduction and once repositioned, keep hip and knee elevated on pillows in a higher plane as the unaffected leg.

61
Q

the following statements apply to the scalene muscles, EXCEPT:

A

extends the cervical spine with bilateral contraction

62
Q

this is the largest blood vessel in the body and runs up the right sides of the lumbar vertebral bodies and behind the peritoneum of the posterior abdominal wall. it enters the right atrium at the lower right corner of the heart:

A

inferior vena cava

63
Q

in pedal meniscus injury, the following conditions apply, EXCEPT:

A

lesion may consist of transverse tear through the cartilage

64
Q

two or three muscle contractions that do not require expenditure of oxygen made possible by chemical energy provided by ATP, stored in the skeletal muscles is referred to as:

A

anaerobic metabolism

65
Q

this ligament of the vertebral bodies limits backward bending, and supports the anterior convexity in the lumbosacral area.

A

anterior longitudinal ligament

66
Q

indications for skin traction are as follows, EXCEPT:

A

patient with a fracture requiring prolonged traction or traction force beyond 10 pounds (4.5kg)

67
Q

traction is an important form of orthopedic immobilzation. the following statements are true, EXCEPT:

A

unlike the traction pull is not an effective counter-traction

68
Q

this muscle’s sole concern is flexion of the elbow joint. it was an extensive origin from the whole lower half of the shaft of the humerus and inserted by a tendon into the tuberosity of the ulna below the coronoid process:

A

brachialis

69
Q

the following statements are true of the anatomical snuffbox, EXCEPT:

A

it is bounded laterally by the tendon of the abductor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus

70
Q

example of syndesmosis:

A

tibia articulating with fibula in the ankle

71
Q

cervical traction is applied following fractures or dislocations of the cervical or high thoracic vertebrae. the following statements apply to tongs used in cervical spine traction, EXCEPT:

A

patient is not encouraged to feed himself since he cannot turn on his side for feeding

72
Q

the following statements apply to the auscultatory method for measuring systolic and diastolic pressure, EXCEPT:

A

the auscultatory method is very accurate, values are within 11 percent compared to direct arterial measurements

73
Q

muscles of the digits that have both proximal and distal attachment in the forearm or humerus is classified as:

A

extrinsic muscles

74
Q

the proximal IP joint of the hand is stabilized in order to test this muscle:

A

flexor digitorum profundus

75
Q

two forces whose points of application occur on opposite sides of an axis and in opposite direction to produce rotation of the body:

A

force couple

76
Q

nerve cells at nest are positively charged on the outside and negatively charged on the inside:

A

resting membrane potential

77
Q

the following statements are true of the cruciate ligaments, EXCEPT:

A

help prevent side-to-side movement

78
Q

afferent component of muscle stretch reflex that provide CNS information about the length and rate of change in length of striated muscles:

A

muscle spindle

79
Q

this mixed nerve supplies the muscles of mastication and divides into three major peripheral nerves, namely opthalmic, maxillary and the mandibular

A

trigeminal

80
Q

an individual who is exposed to high heat stress (40deg) will show increased:
a. skin temperature
b. heart rate
c. all of these
d. sweat rate

A

all of these

81
Q

with the subject sitting and the knee relaxed in 90deg of flexion, these distal enlargements of the femur can be felt anteriorly on both sides of the patella:

A

condyles

82
Q

two major grooves on the lateral surface of the brain
a. none of these
b. both of these
c. central sulcus of rolando
d. lateral fissure of sylvius

A

both of these

83
Q

if conditions are right, once an action potential has been elicited on the membrane of a normal fiber, the depolarization process will travel over the entire membrane or not at all. this called:

A

all-or-nothing principle

84
Q

this instability occurs with a tear of the arcuate complex. the result of adduction stress test is positive at 30deg flexion. as is the result of the external rotation-recurvatum test. lateral tibial condyle has posterior subluxation in this instability:

A

posterolateral instability

85
Q

which hip-repair surgical procedure is indicated for severe hip pain from degenerative joint disease in elderly patients who are poor surgical risks and have little prospect of walking?

A

femoral prosthesis

86
Q

an intramedullary rod or screw plate is an internal fixation device used in this fracture type:

A

femoral shaft fracture

87
Q

the following statements apply to the principle of one-way condition, EXCEPT:

A

signal may be transmitted both direction but only one way at one time

88
Q

if the angle is greater than 180deg on the medial side of the knee on weight bearing on one leg, the condition is referred to as:

A

genu valgum

89
Q

intense discomfort that usually accompanies an injury or inflammation, may immobilize the patient:

A

acute pain

90
Q

which of the following is true of the atlanto-occipital joints
a. all of these
b. the interior and posterior arches of the atlas are united to the margins of the foramen magnum
c. these are uni axial, synovial paired joints
d. nodding or “yes” movement occur in this joint

A

all of these

91
Q

the following consideration apply to broad based quad cane, EXCEPT:

A

remind patient to walk as close to the walk as possible to prevent others from kicking or tripping over the cane

92
Q

the muscle mastication

A

temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid

93
Q

delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to mend within the normal healing time. factors contributing to this complication include the following, EXCEPT:

A

vitamin E deficiency

94
Q

the most serious cardiac arrhythmia resulting from cardiac impulses re-exciting the same ventricular muscles over and over:

A

ventricular fibrillation

95
Q

decreased resistance to passive manipulation of the limb:

A

hypotonia

96
Q

this thick plate of commisural fibers unite the two cerebral hemispheres:

A

corpus callosum

97
Q

if your patient cannot support full weight on either of his legs, which crutch-walking gait would you choose?

A

four-point gait

98
Q

involuntary, but slower, twisiting movements, causing transient, odd and unnatural posturing, most evident in distal parts:

A

athetosis

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