APP – MATS Pt 1

Question 1

What class of airspace is CAS-T?

Answer 1

Class D

Question 2

In relation to the establishment of CAS-T for a royal flight, describe the dimensions of the temporary control zones and for what period they will be active?

Answer 2

Temporary Control Zones: Temporary control zones will be established around aerodromes of departure and destination for a period (for outbound flights) of 15 minutes before, until 30 minutes after the ETD, or (for inbound flights) for a period of 15 minutes before until 30 minutes after the ETA at the aerodrome concerned. The lateral and vertical limits will be designated to meet the specific requirements of the Royal Flight. Overall control of these control zones is to be exercised, as appropriate, by the Commanding Officer of a military aerodrome or the ATS authority of a civil aerodrome.

Temporary Control Area: Temporary control areas will be established in the shape of a corridor to join temporary or permanent control zones or control areas, as appropriate, for a period 15 minutes before ETA at the start point until 30 minutes after ETD from the end/departure point of the established area. The lateral and vertical limits will be designated to meet the specific requirements of the Royal Flight. The controlling authority will be the appropriate civil or military ACC or notified ATSU.

Question 3

What is the definition of a basic service?

Answer 3

A Basic Service is an ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. This may include weather information, changes of serviceability of facilities, conditions at aerodromes, general airspace activity information, and any other information likely to affect safety. The avoidance of other traffic is solely the pilot’s responsibility.

Question 4

Can you provide a Procedural Service below the terrain safe level?

Answer 4

Yes

Question 5

What is the definition of a Procedural service?

Answer 5

A Procedural Service is an ATS where, in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service, the controller provides restrictions, instructions, and approach clearances, which if complied with, shall achieve deconfliction minima against other aircraft participating in the Procedural Service. Neither traffic information nor deconfliction advice can be passed with respect to unknown traffic

Question 6

What is essential traffic information and what elements shall it include?

Answer 6

Essential traffic is traffic which is separated for any period by less than the specified standard separation. It is normally passed in situations when ATS surveillance systems are not available.

Essential traffic information passed to an aircraft shall include:
(1) Direction of flight of conflicting aircraft;
(2) Type of conflicting aircraft;
(3) Cruising level of conflicting aircraft and ETA for the reporting point, or for aircraft passing through the level of another with less than the normal separation; the ETA for the reporting point nearest to where the aircraft will cross levels; and
(4) Any alternative clearance.

Question 7

What are the reduced separations in the vicinity of an Aerodrome?

Answer 7

In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:
(1) adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller; or

(2) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or

(3) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports the other aircraft is in sight and can maintain their own separation.

Question 8

When can pilots be cleared for a visual approach?

Answer 8

To expedite traffic at any time, IFR flights, either within or outside controlled airspace, may be authorised to execute visual approaches if the pilot reports that visual reference to the surface can be maintained and
(1) the reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment; or
(2) the pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.

Controllers shall not clear an aircraft for a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800m. If a pilot requests a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800m, controllers shall inform the pilot that this type of approach is unavailable and request the pilot’s intentions.

Note: Where IRVR systems are employed, the touchdown value is used to trigger the above procedure. Transmissometer unserviceability and the impact on ATC procedures are detailed at Section 3 Chapter 3.

Question 9

Can you provide a Procedural service to an aircraft which is operating VFR?

Answer 9

no

Question 10

When must a pilot fly IFR?

Answer 10

A pilot must fly according to the IFR:
(1) If the airspace has been notified as Class A;
(2) If the meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight or (within a Control Zone) Special VFR flight.

Question 11

When can an aircraft be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft?

Answer 11

(1) vertical separation already exists;
(2) the vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level that will maintain vertical separation; and
(3) either:
(a) the controller observes that the vacating aircraft has left the level; or
(b) the pilot has reported vacating the level.

Question 12

Under what conditions can you utilise a VMC climb or descent?

Answer 12

Controllers may authorise an aircraft to climb or descend in VMC provided:
(1) the manoeuvre is restricted to Class D, E, F and G airspace at or below FL100;
(2) it is during the hours of daylight;
(3) the aircraft is flying in visual meteorological conditions;
(4) the pilot of the aircraft climbing or descending agrees to maintain their own separation from other aircraft and the manoeuvre is agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft; and
(5) essential traffic information is given.

Question 13

What conditions apply when using the 1 minute, departure separation?

Answer 13

Provided that the aircraft fly on tracks diverging by 45° or more
immediately after take-off. The minimum may be reduced when
aircraft are taking-off from independent diverging or parallel
runways provided the procedures have been approved by the
CAA.

Question 14

What conditions apply when using the 2 minute departure separation?

Answer 14

Provided that:
(1) the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed 40 knots or
more faster than the following; and
(2) neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that
would decrease the 2-minute separation between them.

Question 15

What conditions apply when using the 5 minute departure separations?

Answer 15

Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20
knots or more faster than the following aircraft.

or

Provided that the 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a
reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal
control area and the aircraft will subsequently be separated either:
(1) vertically;
(2) by tracks which diverge by 30° or more; or
(3) by ATS Surveillance.
Only to be used at locations approved by the CAA.

Question 16

Define the transition level?

Answer 16

Transition level is the lowest Flight Level available for use above the transition altitude and shall be located at least a nominal 1,000 ft above the transition altitude to permit the transition altitude and the transition level to be used concurrently in cruising flight, with vertical separation ensured. Except where an alternative means of calculating the transition level is detailed within local instructions, the transition level may be determined from the table in Appendix A as follows:
(1) Within controlled airspace by the controlling authority, where it will normally be based on the QNH of the major aerodrome;
(2) Outside controlled airspace by the Aerodrome Operator, where it will be based on the aerodrome QNH.

Question 17

Define the transition layer

Answer 17

Transition layer is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. Within the UK, the first available flight level above the transition altitude is separated from the transition altitude by a minimum pressure interval corresponding to a nominal 1,000 ft.

Question 18

Define the transition altitude?

Answer 18

Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude (or height when QFE is used). Wherever possible there is a common transition altitude for aerodromes within a control zone. Unless otherwise notified the transition altitude for civil aerodromes is 3,000 ft

Question 19

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services?

Answer 19

The objectives of the air traffic services shall be to:
(1) prevent collisions between aircraft;
(2) prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area;
(3) expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic;
(4) provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;
(5) notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.

Question 20

What are the minimum services provided by an ATCU in CAS-T airspace?

Answer 20

(a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
(b) Pass traffic information to IFR flights and SVFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice when requested;
(c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on all other flights and provide traffic avoidance advice when requested.

Question 21

What are the visual flight rules at or below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above terrain whichever is higher, in Class G airspace?

Answer 21

Distance from cloud: 1500M horizontal and 1000ft vertical
Fight visibility of 5 KM

Question 22

What are the visual flight rules at or below 3000ft in Class G airspace?

Answer 22

Fly clear of cloud and with the surface in site with a 5KM flight visibility.

Question 23

What are the visual flight rules in Class G airspace for aircraft including helicopters, flying at 140 kt IAS or less

Answer 23

Fly clear of cloud and with the surface in site with a 1500M flight visibility.

Question 24

Describe in detail track separation using specified tracks from an NDB?

Answer 24

Using specified tracks from an NDB. When one aircraft is the time equivalent
of 15 NM or 4 minutes (whichever is the greater) from an NDB and both
aircraft have reported established on tracks which diverge by 30° or more.

Question 25

For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, what is the definition of same track?

Answer 25

‘Same track’, when the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the other by less than 45°;

Question 26

For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, what is the definition of reciprocal track?

Answer 26

'Reciprocal track’, when the track of one aircraft is separated from the reciprocal of the other by less than 45°;

Question 27

For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, what is the definition of crossing track?

Answer 27

‘Crossing track’, intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’.

Question 28

Give examples of a category A flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 28

Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger). Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’. Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of life is involved.

Question 29

Give examples of a category B flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 29

Flights operating for Search and Rescue or other humanitarian reasons. Police flights under normal operational priority. Other flights authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights.

Question 30

Give examples of a category C flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 30

Royal Flights Flights carrying visiting Heads of State

Question 31

Give examples of a category D flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 31

Flights carrying the: (1) Prime Minister, (2) Chancellor of the Exchequer, (3) Home Secretary, or (4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs. Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by the CAA.

Question 32

Give examples of a category E flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 32

HEMS/Search and Rescue positioning flights. Other flights authorised by the CAA, including flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights

Question 33

What are classed as 'normal flights' in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 33

NORMAL FLIGHTS * Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures. * Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit. (RTF callsign “EXAM”)

Question 34

Give examples of a category Z flight in regard to flight priorities?

Answer 34

Training, non-standard and other flights.

Question 35

Describe a TCAS Traffic Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

Answer 35

Traffic Advisory (TA) warning Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action on the basis of TA information alone but may ask for traffic information. Pilot looks for conflicting aircraft visually. Does NOT manoeuvre. Typically 45 seconds before the assumed collision

Question 36

Describe a TCAS Resolution Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

Answer 36

Resolution Advisory (RA) warning Pilot receives advice to climb, descend or maintain their existing flight profile. Rate of climb or descent may also be given. Pilots are expected to respond immediately but have been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to the minimum necessary to resolve the confliction, advise the ATC unit as soon as is practical thereafter and return to their original flight path as soon as it is safe to do so. Typically 30 seconds before the assumed collision

Question 37

When shall APP transmit IRVR to aircraft?

Answer 37

IRVR reporting to aircraft is started: (1) whenever the aerodrome meteorological report shows the visibility to be less than 1,500 metres; (2) whenever the IRVR display is indicating an RVR value equal to or less than the maximum for that system; (3) whenever shallow fog is reported and during a period for which it is forecast. IRVR values are to be passed to aircraft at the beginning of each approach for landing and, thereafter, whenever there is a significant change in the RVR until the aircraft have landed. A significant change is defined as a change in value of one increment or more. The current RVR value is also to be passed to aircraft before take-off. Even though a pilot may have received an IRVR value from the ATIS broadcast, controllers must ensure that they pass the current value as specified above.

Question 38

When may approach control/APS instruct IFR flights to establish communications with Aerodrome control?

Answer 38

Approach Control may instruct IFR flights to establish communication with Aerodrome Control (for the purpose of obtaining landing clearance and essential aerodrome information) when the aircraft has become number one to approach and, for following aircraft, when they are established on final approach and have been provided with appropriate separation. Until such aircraft are flying with visual reference to the surface the responsibility for separation between them shall remain with Approach Control. Aerodrome Control shall not issue any instructions or advice that would reduce the separation established by Approach Control.

Question 39

When shall an aircraft be instructed to carry out a missed approach?

Answer 39

An aircraft shall be instructed to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances: (1) On instructions from Approach/Aerodrome Control; (2) When no landing clearance is received before 2 NM from touchdown (or such other range agreed with Aerodrome Control); (3) When it appears to be dangerously positioned on final approach.

Question 40

When shall an aircraft be advised to carry out a missed approach?

Answer 40

An aircraft is to be advised to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances: (1) If it reaches a position from which it appears that a successful approach cannot be completed; (2) If it is not visible on the situation display for any significant interval during the last 2 NM of the approach; (3) If the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach.

Question 41

Describe in detail the procedures for preliminary overdue action for radio equipped aircraft?

Answer 41

Radio Equipped Aircraft – Preliminary Action If an aircraft fails to make a position report when expected, the following preliminary action shall be commenced not later than the estimated time for the reporting point plus 30 minutes: (1) Advise the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is overdue; (2) Confirm ATD from departure aerodrome by quickest possible means; (3) Ensure that an RQS message is sent.

Question 42

Describe in detail the procedures for full overdue action for radio equipped aircraft?

Answer 42

If, after the preliminary overdue action, no news is received or 1 hour has elapsed since a scheduled position report should have been received, or the fuel carried by the aircraft is considered to be exhausted, whichever is the sooner, the controller at the destination aerodrome shall inform the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is fully overdue.

Question 43

What is the difference between a precision and non-precision approach?

Answer 43

Precision approach: A precision approach is an instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation. Non Precision Approach: A non-precision approach is an instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance.