APS - Mats Pt 2 Flashcards

Question

What are the visibility minima for departures during LVPs for Runway 01?

Answer 1

Runway 01 (or all runways if IRVR is not available) – Met Visibility not less than 350 m.

Answer 2

Radius: 2NM Levels: SFC - FL120 Hours: Monday - Friday SR - SS additional hours as notified.

Answer 3

If parachuting activity has been notified, this information will be passed to any aircraft requesting an instrument approach, and the following procedures shall be adopted: * APP/APS shall instruct all aircraft intending to fly an instrument approach to remain outside D129 * Oxford will ensure that all aircraft transiting D129 have vacated the promulgated airspace within 10 minutes of activity notification * Aircraft being provided with a radar service can be vectored for an approach when para-dropping is in progress, or fly the approach and hold procedurally whilst their position is monitored by the APS controller * The APS controller will issue warnings if any aircraft appears to be operating, or its track indicates that it may soon be operating in close proximity to D129 * Aircraft in receipt of a PS may be cleared for an approach as long as the pilot confirms that the aircraft will remain outside D129 at all times. Brize Norton ATC shall co-ordinate the movement of aircraft based at EGVN in and out of the dropping zone with Oxford Radar. All other aircraft operating to or from D129 are required to contact Oxford Radar and monitor the Oxford Radar frequency for the duration of the drop. For high level drops (above FL85) the paradropping aircraft will be inside CAS and requires clearance from TC COWLY. The aircraft will be in communication with Swanwick Military for the portion of flight inside CAS. Separation requirements apply between D129 and other aircraft. It is the responsibility of TC NW and TC COWLY to ensure separation between D129 and inbound aircraft released to Oxford

Answer 4

Name: Long Lartin Prison Radius: 2 NM Levels: SFC-2200ft Hours: H24 (applies to helicopters only)

Answer 5

Name: Woodhill Radius: 1.5 NM Levels: SFC-2400ft Hours: H24 (applies to helicopters only)

Answer 6

High Intensity Radio Transmission Area (HIRTA) Radius: 1.2 NM Levels: SFC-2900ft Hours: H24

Answer 7

High Intensity Radio Transmission Area (HIRTA) Radius: 0.25 NM Levels: SFC-600ft Hours: H24

Answer 8

Special Use Airspace Activity Information Service (SUACS). RAF Brize Norton provide a SUAAIS for D129 on 119.000 MHz

Answer 9

Weston-on-the-Green aerodrome is also used by gliders, as detailed in the Weston-on the-Green LoA. Gliding activity will be notified by the gliding club representative, and this does not constitute activation of D129. When Weston-on-the-Green is active with gliding, Oxford shall not permit any aircraft under their control to route within 2 NM of the gliding site below 3500’ (QNH).

Answer 10

Due to the intense gliding activity, TC controllers are not to clear aircraft to leave CAS in the vicinity of the Compton Gliding Box during the confirmed hours of the activity. Any Oxford arrivals during the Compton Gliding Box activation shall be coordinated with Oxford to remain clear. If an Oxford departure is coordinated during the Compton Gliding Box activation, the TC SW Coordinator shall remind Oxford of the activation of the Compton Gliding Box and the need to remain clear.

Answer 11

For the period of the gliding competitions, TC GS Midlands shall notify Oxford ATC of the activation/deactivation of the Daventry Gliding Box. Oxford ATC may request an ATC clearance into CAS for any departure tracking northbound towards the Daventry Gliding Box. TC Midlands should endeavour to give a clearance if able to accommodate, in order to climb above the Daventry Gliding Box.

Answer 12

During the notified period of parachuting activity, the South Cerney information strip is to be displayed in the Approach/Radar flight progress display. Oxford Radar shall select the South Cerney radar map overlay. Aircraft under the control of Oxford Approach/Radar are to be informed of the activity when relevant. Oxford Radar shall not vector aircraft through the drop zone at any level except as stated below. Oxford Approach/Radar will notify Brize Approach of departing aircraft via CONKO prior to release. Brize Approach will restrict the parachuting aircraft to “not above FL80” and the departure may transit the drop zone at FL90 or above. Notwithstanding any joining clearance or instruction to remain outside CAS, Oxford Approach/Radar will not transfer departing aircraft via CONKO to Sector 23 until it is assured that they will be at or above FL90 on entering the South Cerney drop zone. This may require the aircraft to hold outside CAS. Arriving aircraft via CONKO will be pre-noted to Brize Approach by Sector 23. Brize Approach will restrict the parachuting aircraft to “not above FL80” and the arrival may transit the drop zone at FL90 or above. Oxford Approach/Radar shall not offer Sector 23 an acceptance level below FL90 and are to coordinate with Brize Approach before descending below FL90.

Answer 13

The Intermediate Approach Area is defined as the area contained within the Oxford ATC Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart (see UK AIP AD 2.EGTK-5-1), together with a segment between 270 degrees and 015 degrees (magnetic) to a radius of 12nm from the Oxford Aerodrome Reference Point.

Answer 14

Basic Service Traffic Service Deconfliction Service Radar Control

Answer 15

1. Light and Heavy - 6NM 2. Small and Heavy - 5NM 3. Medium and Heavy - 5NM

Answer 16

If the arriving Brize aircraft is in the ‘Super’ wake turbulence category, in accordance with the Brize Norton LoA, Brize Radar must identify the arriving aircraft (AN-124, AN-225 or A380-800) to Oxford Radar. Oxford radar shall apply the correct intermediate approach wake turbulence separation when following or crossing behind the ‘Super’ aircraft at the same level or less than 1,000ft below specifically: * Both within the intermediate approach area and while on final approach: * Oxford ‘Light’ aircraft, 8 NM * Oxford ‘Small’ and ‘Medium’ aircraft, 7 NM

Answer 17

Opposite direction runway arrivals and departures are not permitted regardless of the traffic density and time, except as may be required: *During emergencies, and *For ILS calibration Requests from pilots for opposite direction arrivals and departures shall be rejected. If due to aircraft limits/performance a pilot cannot land/depart on the current runway in use, the APP/APS controller shall coordinate a runway change with ADC.

Answer 18

Aerodrome Control shall co-ordinate with Approach Control: (1) departing IFR flights; and (2) arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control). Additionally: Controllers will co-ordinate specifically: * Instructions for direct joins by visiting aircraft who may be unfamiliar with the standard procedures * Information about aircraft transiting to and from Weston-on-the-Green * All aircraft intending to transit within the vicinity of the ATZ * Weather information received from aircraft in the air * Specific requests from pilots which may affect the other controller * Aircraft observed or notified using the C/D (Civil Defence) route through the EGVN control zone, and * Any other information considered necessary by the controllers involved. During radar hours, when passing the airborne time for a VFR aircraft requesting a traffic service, ADC shall state to the APS controller that the aircraft is requesting a traffic service.

Answer 19

Approach Control will co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control: (1) aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance; (2) arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points; and (3) aircraft routeing through the traffic circuit. Additionally: Controllers will co-ordinate specifically: * Instructions for direct joins by visiting aircraft who may be unfamiliar with the standard procedures * Information about aircraft transiting to and from Weston-on-the-Green * All aircraft intending to transit within the vicinity of the ATZ * Weather information received from aircraft in the air * Specific requests from pilots which may affect the other controller * Aircraft observed or notified using the C/D (Civil Defence) route through the EGVN control zone, and * Any other information considered necessary by the controllers involved.

Answer 20

EGGW, EGHL, EGKB, EGKK, EGLC, EGLF, EGLL, EGLK,EGMC, EGSS, EGTD, EGTF, EGTK, EGWU, EGVO. EGHH,EGHI, EGLD are not subject to specific flow restrictions and do not require approval by GS airports however have specific routes to follow.

Answer 21

SILVA – SILVA 1L (BOMBO – BKY – BUSTA – LOREL)

Answer 22

SILVA – SILVA 1N (WOBUN – EDCOX – JUMZI – ZAGZO)

Answer 23

KENET – CPT – CPT 1V (GOBNU – INDOX – DIXIB – LFS02 – VEXUB)

Answer 24

SILVA – SILVA 1C (BOMBO – BKY – BRAIN – CLN – JACKO)

Answer 25

SILVA – SILVA 1S (BOMBO – BKY – BRAIN – MAYLA – SPEAR)

Answer 26

KENET–NIGIT–BEDEK 1G (MID–TUFOZ–HOLLY–WILLO)

Answer 27

WCO – HON 1H (BNN)

Answer 28

KENET – PEPIS – SAM

Answer 29

WCO – HON 1H (BNN)

Answer 30

Release from APP/APS is required for: * IFR departures * VFR jet and twin-turboprop aircraft A release from APP/APS is valid for 3 minutes. When released, the IFR departure shall be the next aircraft airborne unless otherwise co-ordinated with APP/APS. Releases for aircraft using the standard WCO or SILVA route must state “WCO” or “SILVA” in the release to confirm the routing. To expedite departures, APS may offer, ‘line up if you can, released subject radar’, anticipating being able to issue release imminently. ADC may decline, depending on the circumstances.

Answer 31

Runway 01: * Turn left heading 360 degrees * Climb to altitude 2,500 ft * Squawk {Squawk allocated}

Answer 32

For jet and twin-turboprop aircraft: * “Cleared to transit the Brize Norton CTR”. Otherwise "ROCAS" * Climb to altitude 2,500 ft * Squawk {Squawk allocated} For departures whose initial point on route is WCO or SILVA: * “Turn left on track WCO/SILVA”. Otherwise: “Turn right heading 315” * Climb to altitude 2,500 ft * Squawk {Squawk allocated}

Answer 33

APS can impose a “check all” restriction at any time. A “check all” requires that ADC obtain a release for all departing aircraft. * When a “check all” is imposed, ADC shall notify APS of any fixed wing or helicopter circuit traffic already airborne. * When a “check all” is imposed, APS may not notify ADC of all traffic operating near or in the ATZ. APS shall not permit traffic to enter the ATZ without co-ordination with ADC, unless the ATZ was clear of traffic when the “check all” was imposed. * When a “check all” is removed, APS shall pass any remaining pertinent traffic information.

Answer 34

0003 HLE60, 0014 HLE21, 0015 HLE07, 0016 HLE24, 0017 HLE27, 0020 HLE, 0031 HLE55 0023 SAR, 0024 CAL, 0030 LOST 0032 UKP 0033 PARA, 0034 TOW, 0035 SHEL, 0036 PIPE, 0037 RHEL 0050 UKP 381, 0052 UKP 42, 0054 UKP 32, 0056 UKP 08 4517 -TK 4520 CON 7001 MIL, 7002 DNGR, 7003 REDS, 7004 AERO, 7005 HEGY, 7007 OSKY

Answer 35

Conspicuity squawks allocated to other units Listening squawks allocated to other units Conspicuity squawks 7000, 2000, and 7010 Emergency squawks of 7700, 7600 and 7500

Answer 36

where the intended aircraft is operating under a registration, the full registration shall be stated in the instruction to squawk IDENT, e.g. “G-ABCD” rather than “G-CD.”

Answer 37

If all aircraft squawking IDENT are believed to be on the radar controller’s frequency, after the multiple IDENTs have ceased, the controller may attempt the IDENT instruction a second time, emphasising the callsign of the desired aircraft where callsign confusion is suspected. If multiple IDENTs are observed in the second attempt, or if any of the other aircraft squawking IDENT are believed to be on a different frequency, an alternative method of identification shall be used.

Answer 38

Intercept and follow VOR HON R150° not below MSA. At lead NDB(L) OX QDM 182° (HON DME 25) turn right to establish on localiser. When established descend to cross FAP (I-OXF DME 4.7) at 1800(1542), then continue for main procedure.

Answer 39

APP/APS shall instruct all aircraft intending to fly an instrument approach to remain outside D129. * Oxford will ensure that all aircraft transiting D129 have vacated the promulgated airspace within 10 minutes of activity notification. * Aircraft being provided with a radar service can be vectored for an approach when para-dropping is in progress, or fly the approach and hold procedurally whilst their position is monitored by the APS controller. * The APS controller will issue warnings if any aircraft appears to be operating, or its track indicates that it may soon be operating in close proximity to D129.

Answer 40

The controller will not vector/clear aircraft below 3,500’ (QNH) through the 2nm circle centred on the airfield.

Answer 41

Aircraft departing IFR following a training approach should be instructed to conduct the appropriate Missed Approach Procedure, or issued a tactical heading and level. The following options should be considered: * Instruct the aircraft to follow the Missed Approach Procedure, with onward vectoring * Instruct the aircraft to turn after passing 1500’ (QNH), or on reaching the OX * Instruct the aircraft to turn after passing 1000’ (QNH), or on reaching the OX, subject to approval from ADC and the visual circuit being clear. Exercise caution if Heli Area 1 is active. Unless following the Standard Missed Approach Procedure, missed approach instructions for training aircraft using Runway 19 must include either a clearance to transit the Brize Norton CTR (following appropriate coordination) or an instruction to “remain outside CAS”. Aircraft departing VFR following a training approach should be instructed not to turn until passing the runway.

Answer 42

The deconfliction minima against unco-ordinated traffic are:  5 NM laterally (subject to surveillance capability and regulatory approval); or  3,000 ft vertically and, unless the SSR code indicates that the Mode C data has been verified, the surveillance returns, however presented, should not merge. (Note: Mode C can be assumed to have been verified if it is associated with a deemed validated Mode A code. The Mode C data of aircraft transponding code 0000 is not to be utilised in assessing deconfliction minima)

Answer 43

The deconfliction minima against aircraft that are being provided with an ATS by the same controller, or that have been subject to co-ordination, are:  3 NM laterally (subject to surveillance capability and regulatory approval); or  1,000 ft vertically; (2,000 ft within active MDA/MTA above FL410, and above FL290 where both aircraft are not RVSM approved); or  500 ft vertically (subject to regulatory approval).

Answer 44

 5 NM laterally (subject to surveillance capability and regulatory approval); or  3,000 ft vertically and, unless the SSR code indicates that the Mode C data has been verified, the surveillance returns, however presented, should not merge.( Note: Mode C can be assumed to have been verified if it is associated with a deemed validated Mode A code. The Mode C data of aircraft transponding code 0000 is not to be utilised in assessing deconfliction minima)

Answer 45

G-CD, avoiding action, turn left immediately heading 270 degrees traffic was left 10 o’clock 5 miles converging indicating 3000 feet fast moving.

Answer 46

1 3000ft within 1NM of Enstone 2. 3000ft within 1NM of Turweston 3. 3500ft within 2NM of the overhead of WOG when promulgated as active with gliding. 4. 3NM of Hinton on the hedges when notified active with para dropping.

Answer 47

NE: 2400ft QNH SE: 2300ft QNH SW: 2300ft QNH NW: 2300 QNH 25-40NM: 2500ft QNH

Answer 48

25NM +/- 10 degrees of localiser 17NM +/- 35 degrees of localiser

Answer 49

Runway 01: left turn heading 360 degrees , climb to altitude 2500ft. Runway 19: Right turn heading 315 degrees, climb to altitude 2500ft.

Answer 50

You cannot depart into the SMAP as it is for aircraft which are already airborne however you can pass a heading and level to fly.

Answer 51

Should the primary radar fail then a broadcast should be made informing all aircraft of the failure. The controller shall establish procedural deconfliction minima as soon as possible. The controller may continue to use SSR information available only until such time as procedural minima have been met.

Answer 52

Should the secondary radar fail then a broadcast should be made informing all aircraft of the failure. The controller may then provide a PSR-only service until such time as the SSR is restored to serviceability. However, a PSR-only service can be provided only when the Primary Marker is available for alignment checking. When using PSR alone radar services shall be limited to aircraft within 20nm.

Answer 53

They cannot allocate levels but can pass on levels allocated by the ATCO.

Answer 54

The ATSA can get a joining clearance upon request from the Radar ATCO. The ATSA must pass on the clearance in full to the ATCO who must read it back.

Answer 55

Rwy 01: 340 deg or 040 deg Rwy 19: 160 deg or 220 deg

Answer 56

Controllers shall only instigate heading allocations when the aircraft is at or above an ATC unit’s terrain safe level. However, if pilots request a heading from the controller whilst operating below the ATC unit terrain safe level, this may be provided as long as the controller reminds the pilot that they remain responsible for terrain clearance.

Answer 57

If a controller/ FISO considers that a definite risk of collision exists, a warning shall be issued to the pilot.

Answer 58

Controllers may deem Mode A codes to be validated when it can be ascertained from the Code Assignment Plan that an observed Mode A code has been assigned by a unit capable of validating the code, unless: (1) the code is promulgated as being unvalidated; or (2) the controller has been notified that the code is corrupt.

Answer 59

Controllers are not required to provide deconfliction advice on aircraft within adjacent controlled airspace (excepting active TRA/MTA) unless surveillance derived or other information indicates that such aircraft are leaving controlled airspace; however, controllers may pass traffic information.

APS - Mats Pt 2 Flashcards

(83 cards)