Arrhythmias Overview Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

What are the two basic properties of the heart?

A
  1. Mechanical

2. Electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What electrolytes are found in higher concentrations outside of the myocyte?

A

Calcium and sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What electrolyte is found in a higher concentration inside the myocyte?

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many phases are in a normal myocyte action potential?

A

5 phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many phases are in an SA action potential?

A

3 phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe normal electrical conduction through the heart

A
  1. SA node fires a signal
  2. Travels to AV node
  3. AV node to bundle of His
  4. Splits to left and right bundle branches
  5. Purkinje fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What influences the SA node?

A

autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why does conduction slow at the AV node?

A

To allow the atrial tissue to completely depolarize, contract, and expel blood into the ventricles, and to limit impulses that can activate the ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens to the electrical signal after the Purkinje fibers?

A

It reaches recently excited (refractory tissue) and dies out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the p-wave represent on an EKG?

A

Atrial depolarization in response to firing of the SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the QRS complex represent on an EKG?

A

Depolarization of ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the t-wave represent on an EKG?

A

Ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the PR interval represent on an EKG?

A

The delay of the AV node to allow filling of the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the ST segment represent on an EKG?

A

The beginning of ventricular repolarization (should be flat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long is a normal PR interval on an EKG?

A

120-200 msec (0.12-0.2 sec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a longer PR interval indicative of?

A

Heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a normal QT interval on an EKG?

A

200-400 msec (0.2-0.4 sec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a higher QT interval indicative of?

A

A greater risk of ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two types of abnormal conductions?

A
  1. Automatic tachycardias

2. Re-entrant tachycardias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the mechanism of an automatic tachycardia

A

A random cell takes over and beats faster than the SA and creates and ectopic beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When does an automatic tachycardia usually occur?

A

When there is a blockage in the AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some common causes of an automatic tachycardia?

A
  1. Digitalis glycosides
  2. Catecholamines
  3. Electrolyte abnormalities
  4. Myocardial fiber stretch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the mechanism of a Re-entrant tachycardia

A

Conducting pathway is stimulated prematurely by a previously conducted action potential leading to rapid cyclical reactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are examples of Re-entrant tachycardia?

A

Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, AV nodal or AV re-entrant tachycardia, or recurrent VT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How are antiarrhythmic drugs classified?
By where they work in the action potential
26
What drug is in class 1a?
Procainamide
27
How does procainamide work?
It blocks sodium in and blocks potassium out, which lowers the conduction velocity and increases the refractory/repolarization period
28
What are the side effects associated with procainamide?
1. Drug-induced lupus 2. Agranulocytosis 3. QT prolongation
29
In what population should you monitor procainamide closely?
In patients with renal disease
30
What drug is in class 1b?
Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
31
What does lidocaine do?
It has very little effect on sodium and increases potassium efflux which shortens the refractory period
32
What are the side effects associated with lidocaine?
1. Hypotension | 2. Seizures at high doses
33
What is the formulation of lidocaine?
IV only
34
What drug is in class 1c?
Propafenone
35
What does propafenone do?
It block sodium entry for a long time and has no effect on potassium which decreases the conduction velocity
36
What are class 1a drugs used for?
Afib and VT
37
What are class 1b drugs used for?
VF or VT
38
What are class 1c drugs used for?
VT or PSVT
39
What are the class 2 drugs?
Beta-blockers
40
What do you give a patient with tachycardia after surgery?
Beta-blocker
41
What is the antiarrhythmic mechanism of a beta-blocker?
It has anti-adrenergic actions so it works against the SA and AV nodes and indirectly effects calcium influx
42
What effects do beta-blockers have on the conduction velocity and refractory period?
They decrease conduction velocity and shorten refractory period
43
What are the class 3 drugs?
1. Dofetilide 2. Sotalol 3. Dronedarone 4. Amiodarone
44
What do class 3 drugs do?
They have no effect on sodium and block outward flow of potassium which prolongs the refractory period
45
What is the danger of having too much potassium blockage?
It can lead to more arrhythmias
46
What is dofetilide used for?
To convert afib to a normal sinus rhythm and maintenance afterwards
47
What are the common side effects of dofetilide?
Heart attack, QT prolongation, and bradycardia
48
What is the the major interaction with dofetilide?
3A4 substrate (black box warning)
49
What are the clinical pearls of dofetilide?
1. renal dose adjustment | 2. PharmD/MD must be registered to use
50
What is propafenone used for?
VT or PSVT
51
What are the major adverse effects of propafenone?
1. Neutropenia 2. Agranulocytosis 3. New or worsened arrhythmias 4. Heart block 5. QT prolongation
52
What are the interactions with propafenone?
1A2, 2D6, and 3A4 substrate P glycoprotein inhibitor
53
What are the clinical pearls of propafenone?
1. PO only 2. renal and hepatic dose adjustment 3. Worsens HF
54
What is sotalol used for?
VT, afib, and aflutter
55
What are the common adverse effects of sotalol?
1. QT prolongation 2. bradycardia 3. N/V/D 4. bronchospasms
56
What are the interactions with sotalol?
Low potassium and HF patients
57
What is the one clinical pearl of sotalol?
It has a renal adjustment
58
What is dronedarone used for?
afib and aflutter
59
What are the common adverse effects of dronedarone?
1. Liver failure 2. QT prolongation 3. HF 4. Heart block
60
What are the interaction with dronedarone?
1. 3A4 substrate (black box warning) 2. Digoxin - decrease dose by 50% 3. Warfarin - start dose at 2.5 mg
61
What is the clinical pearl associated with dronedarone?
1. You must stop all class one and three agents first | 2. Similar to amiodarone without iodine
62
What is the most popular antiarrhythmic?
Amiodarone
63
What characteristics of the the Vaughan Williams classes does amiodarone have?
Some of all classes. It blocks sodium and potassium, it has noncompetitive, nonselective beta-blocker actions, and has a small degree of calcium antagonist activity
64
What is the initial action of amiodarone?
Beta-blockade
65
What is different about amiodarone's pharmacokinetics?
It has an extremely long half life of 15 to 100 days
66
What is amiodarone used for?
afib, aflutter, VT, VF, and PSVT
67
What are the interactions with amiodarone?
1. inhibits P-glycoprotein and most CYP-450 enzymes 2. Digoxin 3. Warfarin
68
What are the side effects of amiodarone?
1. Pulmonary fibrosis 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Hyperthyroidism 4. Optic neuritis 5. Increased LFTs 6. Bradycardia/HB 7. Tremors, ataxia, peripheral neuropathy 8. Photosensitivity/blue-gray skin
69
What do you do in pulmonary fibrosis?
Discontinue amiodarone and start a corticosteroid
70
What do you do in hypothyroidism?
Start a thyroid hormone supplement
71
What do you do in hyperthyroidism?
Start an antithyroid drug
72
What do you do in optic neuritis?
Stop amiodarone
73
What do you do in increased LFTs?
consider lowering amiodarone dose or discontinue if LFTs> 3x normal
74
What do you do in bradycardia/HB?
Lower the dose of amiodarone or discontinue if severe
75
What do you do in tremors, ataxia, or peripheral neuropathy?
Lower the dose of amiodarone or discontinue if severe
76
What do you do in photosensitivity/blue-gray skin discoloration?
wear sunblock outside
77
What are your class 4 drugs?
Calcium channel blockers
78
What do class 4 drugs do?
slow down conduction velocity and prolong repolarization
79
What are class 4 drugs used for?
SA/AV node automatic or reentrant tachycardias
80
What is adenosine used for?
PSVT
81
What are the common side effects of adenosine?
1. flushing 2. chest burning 3. bronchospasms
82
What are the interactions with adenosine?
None because the half life is less than 10 seconds
83
What are the clinical pearls of adenosine?
1. IV only | 2. Will induce asystole momentarily after administration