Atrial Arrhythmias Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

What is a supraventricular arrhythmia?

A

An arrhythmia that occurs above the bundle of his

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What types of arrhythmias require drug treatment?

A
  1. PSVT
  2. automatic atrial tachycardias
  3. afib/aflutter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a PSVT?

A

AV nodal reentry arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the symptoms of PSVT?

A
  1. episodes of rapid HR
  2. abruptly start and stop
  3. syncope, chest or neck pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the severe symptom of PSVT?

A

HR > 200 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do you do to correct severe PSVT?

A

synchronized DCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do you try first to treat mild-moderate PSVT?

A

non-pharm treatments

  1. unilateral carotid massage
  2. valsalva maneuvers
  3. induced retching
  4. ice water facial immersion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens if the non-pharm treatments of mild-moderate PSVT fail?

A

Use drug treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the drug treatments for mild-moderate PSVT?

A
  1. adenosine IV push
  2. verapmil slow IV push
  3. diltiazem slow IV push
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOA for adenosine, verapamil, and diltiazem?

A

Prolongs conduction time in slow anterograde pathway of the reentrant loop to terminate PSVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the interactions with diltiazem and verapamil?

A

3A4 inhibitors - be careful with statins, HIV meds, and benzos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is another way to treat PSVT other than long-term chronic drug therapy?

A

transcutaneous catheter ablation using radiofrequency currents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an automatic atrial tachycardia?

A

a supraventricular foci with enhanced automatic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is often the underlying cause of automatic atrial tachycardias?

A

Severe pulmonary disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What also causes automatic atrial tachycardias?

A
  1. acute infection
  2. sepsis
  3. dilated congestive cardiomyopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you treat automatic atrial tachycardias?

A

Correct the underlying factors (proper oxygenation and correct acid/base/electrolyte disorders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How can you treat a symptomatic patient with automatic atrial tachycardias?

A

1st line: verapamil, diltiazem

2nd line: IV magnesium (high doses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common arrhythmia seen in practice?

A

Atrial fibrillation

19
Q

What leads to higher rates of afib?

A
  1. Worsening HF symptoms
  2. Male
  3. Caucasians
20
Q

What is a common outcome of afib?

A

Not mortality –> Stroke!

21
Q

What cardiovascular conditions is afib usually associated with?

A
  1. HF
  2. mitral valve disease
  3. CAD
  4. HTN
  5. Diabetes
22
Q

What are the common acute causes of afib?

A
  1. MI or cardiac surgery
  2. Hyperthyroidism
  3. PE
  4. Pericarditis
  5. Alcohol intake
23
Q

What is paroxysmal afib?

A

AF that terminates within 7 days of onset

24
Q

What is persistent afib?

A

Continuous afib that is sustained for more than 7 days and does not terminate on its own

25
What is permanent afib?
Does not terminate with cardioversion or when the patient and doctor agree to stop trying to restore SR
26
What is acute afib?
onset within last 48 hours
27
What is recurrent afib?
2 or more episodes (either paroxysmal or persistent afib)
28
What is lone afib?
<60 years of age, without evidence of cardiopulmonary disease
29
What is aflutter?
single dominant reentrant substrate
30
What does AF do to CO?
It decreases CO and leads to an irregularly irregular rhythm
31
What are the common symptoms of afib patients (if they are even symptomatic)?
1. palpitations 2. rapid HR 3. worsening HF 4. fatigue 5. chest pain 6. syncope
32
What is a transthoracic ECHO used for?
To assess valve function, chamber size, and hypertrophy
33
What is a transesophageal ECHO used for?
to screen for left atrial thrombus
34
What test should you order for AF?
1. EKG 2. ECHO (TTE and TEE) 3. Thyroid tests 4. Electrophysiological study
35
What are the goals of management of AF?
1. evaluate need for acute treatment 2. achieve ventricular rate control 3. need for SR restoration and maintenance 4. prevent long-term complications (thromboembolism) 5. prevent recurrence
36
How do you determine if patient is hemodynamically unstable?
1. VR > 110 2. Severe hypotension, pulmonary edema, or acute MI
37
What do you do with a hemodynamically unstable patient?
DCC (shock)
38
What energy level is used for shock of atrial flutter?
50 joules
39
What energy level is used for shock of afib?
>200 joules
40
How do you select a drug to control ventricular rate?
Left ventricular function
41
What do you use when LVEF > 40%?
1. IV beta-blockers (metoprolol, propranolol, esmolol) | 2. IV diltiazem, IV verapamil
42
What do you use when LVEF < 40%?
1. IV digoxin | 2. IV amiodarone
43
When do you use rate control?
In patients who are not symptomatic
44
What is the maintenance rate control goal?
HR < 110 bpm according to RACE II trial