Articles Flashcards

1
Q

Power-Pulsed Lavage article

A
  • Significantly reduces the amount of bacteria

- if it does not hurt go ahead and use it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patzakis article

A

-Foot divided into three sections for puncture wounds

-Highest to lowest for development of osteomyelitis:
Zone 1> Zone 2> Zone 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nail puncture through a rubber soled shoe

A
  • Unsuccessful treatment group more likely to have received antibiotics in the community
  • Unsuccessful treatment group waited longer to go to ED
  • Gram + bacteria (cover staph)
  • Gram - bacteria (cover pseudo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Plantar puncture wounds in Children

A
Time of presentation:
Day of injury:
-prophylactic tetanus
-cleansing of puncture
-x-ray or sonography

24-36 hours after injury

  • hospitalize for parenteral antibiotics
  • perform surgery

1 week after injury

  • retained foreign body must be removed
  • osteomyelitis

Later symptoms
-deeper infections present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hawthorn fragment in a child’s foot

A

-MRI may not be the best mode of visualization, use an ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Definition of SIRS

A

SIRS= more than one of the following:

  • temp extremes
  • high HR
  • High Resp
  • High WBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Definition of sepsis

A

SIRS+infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Severe sepsis

A

Sepsis+ organ dysfunction, hypoperfusion abnormality, or sepsis induced hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Septic shock

A
  • a subset of severe sepsis

- sepsis induced hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MODS

A

-a continuum where the organ fail to maintain homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Types of fevers (5)

A
  • infection: most common cause
  • cytokine-mediated fevers
  • central fevers:harm to the thermoregulatory regions of brain
  • fever of unknown origin
  • drug fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Postoperative fevers (5)

A
  • Day 1: Systemic Inflammatory response syndrome
  • Day 2-3: respiratory causes
  • Day 3-5: Urinary tract infection
  • Day 4-7: wound infection, DVT and acute gout

Day 5-8: drug fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Surgical management of diabetic foot infections

A
  • broad spectrum antibiotics should be prescribed

- need a stepwise approach when it comes to these patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Performing serum inflammatory markers for the diagnosis and follow up of patients with osteo

A

Inflammatory markers are: CRP, ESR, White blood cells, Procalcitonin.

  • They will decline after initiation of antibiotic treatment
  • ESR is the best marker used to monitor the response to therapy in patients with osteo. ESR declines in soft tissue infections not osteo
  • Using inflammatory markers, particularly ESR with observation will go a long way
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acute Phase reactants predict risk of amputations in diabetic foot infections

A
  • post treatment CRP level is a strong predictor of treatment failure and amputation risk in patients with diabetic foot ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Value of WBC with differential in acute diabetic foot infection

A
  • diagnosis of infection is made primarily on the basis of clinical signs
  • a normal WBC and white cell differential should not deter the physician from taking appropriate action.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Angiograms: what do they visualize (3)

A
  • distribution of disease
  • length and severity of diseased segments
  • demonstrate inflow and outflow vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Types of angiograms

A
  • Computed tomography angiogram (CTA)
  • Magnetic Resonance Angiogram (MRA)
  • Digital subtraction Arteriography (DSA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Computed Tomography Angiogram

A
  • IV iodine rich contrast injected.
  • CT scanning used

A rapid exam but not good for renal disease and becomes shadowed due to calcification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Magnetic resonance angiogram

A

Does not require IV contrast (but if it does will use Gadolinium)

-This is a more expensive exam than the rest however gives you a very clear picture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Digital Subtraction arteriography

A

Gold standard

  • Will give a superior resolution with lower doses of contrast in real time.
  • However will have much higher exposure to radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CO2

A
  • used as a negative contrast agent in DSA by displacing the blood.
  • a great alternative for patients with renal failure or contrast allergy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Echocardiograms

-2 types and what are they used for

A

TTE and TEE

  • TTE is a noninvasive procedure , however it may be blocked by body tissues, or scarring
  • TEE is much less common and much more invasive. Usually only occurs when good visualization can not be obtained with TTE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tech 99

A

-binds directly to calcium hydroxyapatite to form soluble salts via osteoblasts

  • High sensitivity for low specificity:
  • –osteomyelitis
  • –recent surgery
  • –arthritis
  • –bone tumors
  • –fracture
  • – ischemic necrosis of bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Gallium-67-
-identifies acute inflammation and infection through: ---direct bacterial uptake ---phagocytosis of bacterial cells by phagocytes ---direct leukocyte labelling Sensitive but not specific for acute osteo will also pick up: - -infection - -fractures - - inflammation - -trauma - -neoplasms - -gout
26
Indium-111
- WBC are isolated from patient's blood and labelled with Indium-111 and reinjected into patient - Highly sensitive and specific for acute soft tissue and osseous infections
27
Ceretec Scan
Tc-99 labelled WBC - High sensitivity for acute soft tissue and osseous infections - Higher specificity for acute osteomyelitis than in In-111 - easier and less radiation than Indium-111, which allows more radioactive material to be used and increased anatomical contrast
28
SPECT/CT
- single photon emisssion CT - Detects radio-labelled markers and creates an image - Shows level of biological activity as well
29
What will acute osteomyelitis show on: - Tc-99m Scan - Ga-67 scan - Indium scan - Ceretec scan
- Tc 99: - --Phase 1: + - --Phase II:++ - --Phase III:+++ - Ga-67 scan: positive focal uptake - Indium Scan: Positive - Ceretec scan: Positive
30
What will Inactive Chronic osteo show on: - Tc-99m Scan - Ga-67 scan - Indium scan - Ceretec scan
- Tc-99m Scan - --Phase I: +/- - --Phase II: + - --Phase III: +++ - Ga-67: negative - Indium: Negative - Ceretec scan: Negative
31
What will acute cellulitis show on: - Tc-99m Scan - Ga-67 scan - Indium scan - Ceretec scan
Tc-99m Scan: - --Phase I:+++ - --Phase II: ++ - --Phase III: + - Ga-67: Positive diffuse uptake - Indium: Positibe Ceretec Scan: Negative
32
Charcot joint: - Tc-99m Scan - Ga-67 scan - Indium scan - Ceretec scan
Tc-99m Scan: - --Phase I: +/- - --Phase II: +/- - --Phase III: +++ - --Phase IV: ++/+++ - Ga-67: Negative - Indium scan: Negative - Ceretec scan: Negative
33
Positive Ceretec signifies?
acute osteomyelitis
34
Positive Indium indicates?
either acute osteomyelitis or acute cellulitis
35
Positive Ga-67 scan signifies?
- Positive focal uptake signifies: acute osteomyelitis | - Positive diffuse uptake signifies: acute cellulitis
36
Identifying the incidence and risk factors for reamputation among patients who underwent foot amputation article: -Risks associated with reamputation
- Higher level amputations - Longer hospitalization - Insulin-dependent diabetes - Gangrene on admission
37
Acute Kidney Injury definition
- abrupt and usually reversible decline in the GFR or decreased urine output within 7 days - increase in creatinine of .3mg/dL within 48 hours - 50 percent increase in creatinine within 7 days - decrease in urine volume to <3mL/kg over six hours Will result in an elevation of BUN, creatinine
38
AKI diagnosis: How to make it
- UA w/ microscopy - BMP - Serum and urine protein electrophoresis - renal ultrasound
39
AKI treatment (4) things
- determine the cause - remove any active insults - minimize new injury - identify the complications
40
Probing to bone in infected pedal ulcers article conclusion
-in hospitalized diabetic patients with limb-threatening infection, palpable bone at the ulcer base by Probe to bone test was significantly associated with underlying osteo.
41
Probe to bone test in a diaetic foot osteo in a clinical setting
- in a clinical setting the PTB test is better used to exclude osteo - in a hospital setting the PTB test is more helpful in diagnosing osteo
42
Efficacy of MRI in diagnosing diabetic foot osteo in the presence of ischemia
- preoperative MRI effective in diagnosis of neuropathic ulcers - Preoperative MRI less effective in diagnosis of ischemic ulcers
43
Statistical reliability of bone biopsy for the diagnosis of diabetic foot osteomyelitis article
- results suggest limited reliability of the histopathologic analysis of bone - histopathologic bone biopsy should not be sonsidered the "standard" of diabetic foot osteo
44
Does this patient with diabetes have osteo of the lower extremity article
- osteo of the foot causes significant morbidity in patients with diabetes - using the criteria of an ulcer that measures more than 2cm, positive PTB, an ESR greater than 70mm/h, an abnormal x-ray and MRI, along with a detailed history can help improve diagnostic accuracy and improve patient outcomes
45
Primary non surgical management of osteo of the foot in diabetics article
-urgent surgery is indicated in some patients, however non-surgical management of those without limb-threatening infection is associated with a high rate of apparent remission
46
Outcome of diabetic foot osteo treated non-surgically
- Bone culture based antibiotic therapy is an independent factor predictive of remission in diabetic patients with osteo of the foot - there is also a possible negative effect of nonbone-based antibiotic therapy for osteo of the diabetic foot
47
Rate of residual osteo after partial amp in diabetic patients
- after debridement and irrigation it is recommended to routinely obtain bone margin cultures - residual osteo has a statistical significant association with poor outcomes
48
Reasons for prophylactic use of antibiotics
- Following wounds - For surgery - For prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis in patient with compromised heart valve - Dental patients
49
Antibiotics used for prophylaxis (8)
- cefazolin - cefuroxime - Ceftriaxone - Vancomycin - Clindamycin - Ciprofloxacin - Levofloxacin - Teicoplanin
50
Cefazolin - use in Lower extremity - Half life - coverage - Doseage
- most frequently used for lower extremity - longest half-life of any 1st generation cephalosporin - spectrum: anti-staphylococcal and gram negative Dosing: 1-2g IV or IM before surgery
51
Cefuroxime - what type of surgery is it used - comparison to ancef
- usually used in cardiothoracic surgery | - may have better anti-staph than Cefazolin
52
Ceftriaxone - half life - spectrum
- longest half life of any cephalosporin | - relative lack of anti-staph activity
53
Vancomycin - when is it used - dosing
- used in penicillin or cephalosporin allergic patients or high MRSA expected areas - 1g IV 12hours.... slow infusion over 1 hour
54
Clindamycin Use? Dose:
- useful in implant surgery - great substitute for vancomcin in beta-lactam allergic patients - dosing 600-900 mg IV
55
Ciprofloxacin use: activity:
very versatile but not used as likely in prophylaxis for lower extremity surgery -mediocre anti-staphylococcal activity
56
Levofloxacin coverage: half life: Oral vs. IV
- better staph and strep coverage than Cipro - longer half life - oral dosing achievable levels are similar as parenteral
57
Joint aspiration: Uses ----diagnosis vs therapy
Diagnostic: -used in the evaluation for septic joint -also used in the confirmation of gouty arthritis Therapeutic -injection with steroids for inflammatory condition -drain effusion to relieve pressure
58
Aspiration of the ankle: -approaches
Medial approach: - more common - leg kept at 90 degrees, insert needle between TA and medial malleolus. Lateral approach: less common -between lateral to EDL
59
Aspiration of the MTPJ steps:
- distract the toe with gentle plantarflexion - insert needle perpendicularly and into joint space medially - avoid extensors
60
Synovial fluid analysis WBC count to keep in mind
<2000WBC/mm3 is noninflammatory >2000 WBC/mm3 is inflammatory or septic
61
Synovial fluid analysis table
LOOK AT STEVEN's tables
62
Late hematogenous infection of the 1 MTPJ
- It is more common for late hematogenous infections to come from knee and hip replacements. - This case occured in 1st MTPJ due to misdiagnosis and the administration of steroids
63
Acute hematogenous osteo -Labs to receive
CBC ESR and CRP Blood cultures
64
Acute Hematogenous osteo Unique infecting organisms in: - newborns - children
Newborns: Group B strep Children: H. influenzae
65
Acute hematogenous osteo treatment options (3)
- Incision and drainage - cultures - antibiotics that are tailored toward the infection
66
Pathogens isolated from deep soft tissue and bone in patients with diabetic foot infections -main finding
Most of the time bone and soft tissue cultures differed
67
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration -definition
Is the lowest concentration of a chemical which prevents visible growth of a bacterium overnight
68
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration -Clinical use
used to confirm resistance and to determine in vitro activity of new antimicrobials
69
Minimum Inhibitory concentration -Interpretation
-antimicrobials with the smallest MIC are the most effective
70
Minimum Inhibitory concentrations -Breakpoint
- chosen concentration of an antibiotic which defines whether a species of bacteria is susceptible or resistant - If the MIC is smaller than the susceptibility breakpoint then the bacteria is considered to be susceptible to the antibiotic
71
The role of polymethylmethacrylate antibiotic loaded cement-article
- Three big antibiotics are: * tobramycin * gentamycin * vancomycin -PMMA provides local delivery of high concentrations that do not depend on vascular support or have systemic toxicity complications
72
Infection control issues - active surveillance cultures: definition - Decolonization: definition
Active surveillance cultures: - universal or targeted microbiological screening cultures for patients admitted to a hospital - used to try and help control infections Decolonization: -a process used in infection control that destroys a resistant organism before it can cause infection and spread by using topical antibiotics and antiseptics
73
C. difficile Diagnosis Treatment:
Diagnosis: -C. difficile infection requires demonstration of C.dif toxins or detection of toxigenic C.dif organisms -Findings of pseudomembranous colitis are highly suggestive of C.diff Treatment: -discontinuation of inciting antibiotic - Vanc: 125 mg QID PO - Metronidazole: 500mg QID PO
74
Hospital acquired MRSA -Buzzwords: Treatment:
- Older patients - In a care facility - With chronic wounds - Multiple recent antibiotic exposure -treated: Vanco, Zyvox and Cubicin
75
Community acquired MRSA -Buzzwords: Treatment
- Younger patients - Contain genes: USA300, PVL, SCC mec IV, and cycolytic peptides Treatment: - TMP/SMX (bactrim) - Minocycline and doxycycline
76
How to differentiate between community and hospital aquired MRSA
Clindamycin induced susceptibility