Assessment Exam 1 Rationale Flashcards by Miguel Acosta

A major cause of blindness in tropical Africa is?

a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Trichinela spiralis
d. Onchocerca volvulus
e. Clonorchis sinensis

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The insect vector of Trypanosoma cruzi is the:

a. sand fly (Phlebotomus)
b. tsetse fly (Glossina)
c. sand fly (Lutzomyia)
d. reduviid (kissing bug)
e. black fly (Simulium)

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Involvement of the liver, lungs, and eyes in humans (usually children) occurs after ingestion of the ova of the dog ascarid,known as

a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Onchocerca volvulus
c. Loa loa
d. Toxocara canis
e. Strongyloides stercoralis

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All of the following are transmitted to man by ingestion of undercooked meat EXCEPT

a. Trichinella
b. Leishamina
c. Diphillobothium
d. Toxoplasma
e. Clonorchis

Leishmania = sandfly vector

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A feature of the first phase of illness with Trichinella spiralis is

a. fever
b. eosinophilia
c. periorbital
d. mild abdominal symptoms
e. none of the above

Adult worms are in the intestines

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The form of the hemoflagellates (Leishmania or Trypanosoma) seen within mammalian cells is the

a. amastigote (leishmanial stage)
b. promastigote (leptomonad stage)
c. epimastigote (crithidial stage)
d. trypomastigote (trypanosomal stage)
e. none of the above

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Maturation and reproduction of adult Trichinella spiralis correlates to the

a. intestinal stage
b. migratory phase
c. encystment phase
d. warming of the infected meat
e. passage of ova in the stool

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The event that correlates with the presence of fever paroxysm Plasmodium vivax malaria is

a. inoculation of sporozoites by the mosquito
b. invasion of hepatocytes by sporozoites
c. invasion of new red blood cells by merozoites
d. schizont rupture
e. gametocyte formation

it is why it is best collected before the fever spikes, this is where it release the schizont

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Disease is acquired by the oral route and the major site of pathology is the hepatobiliary system in humans infected with

a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma mekongi
d. Opisthorchis sinensis
e. None of the above

(Clonorchis sinensis)

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Flagellated protozoa that cause gastroenteritis in humans include

a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Balantidium coli
d. Giardia lamblia
e. none of the above

Also known as traveller’s Diarrhea

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Congenital blindness and central nervous system involvement

a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Trypanosoma cruzi
c. Naegleria fowleri
d. Cryptosporidium
e. Plasmodium falciparum

CONGENITAL BLINDNESS

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Skeletal muscle, cardiac, and central nervous system involvement.

a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Taenia solium
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d, Paragonimus westermani

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Pneumocystis carinii (jirovecii)

a. sporozoan intestinal disease in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome patients

b. interstitial pneumonitis in an immunosuppressed patient

c. fulminant hemorrhagic meningoencephalitis acquired during swimming

d. flatulent diarrhea after travel to Moscow

e. hepatic abscess

But now it is called atypical fungus

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A 5-year-old girl spent a year attending school in West Africa. She returned to the United States because of poor sleeping and intense itching in her anal area. Anal swab samples showed the presence of symmetrical ova, flattened on one side and containing larvae

a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Enterobius vermicularis
e. Entamoeba coli

Pruritus ani (Intense itchiness on the anal region)

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Humans may acquire Toxoplasma gondii by

a. the venereal route
b. ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat
c. sustaining a cat bite
d. swimming (wading) in contaminated water
e. penetration of the skin of the lower extremity by the oocyst

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A “parasite” that may be a fungus is the initial clinical manifestation in up to 60 percent of patients with AIDS. This organism is

a. Microsporidium
b. Cryptosporidium
c. Pneumocystis
d. Blastocystis
e. Blastomyces

Officialy now a fungus

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A patient who had extended-wear contact lenses complained to an ophthalmologist about increasing irritation of the eye. The physician sent the patient’s contact lens cleaning solution to the laboratory. A wet mount revealed many ameboid organisms. Without further diagnostic or laboratory investigation, the most likely identification of the organism in the lens solution is

a. Acanthamoeba
b. Hartmannella
c. Pneumocystis
d. Naegleria
e. Paramecium

Causative agent of Ameobic keratitis

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A previously healthy 14-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with severe frontal and bitemporal headache, lethargy, and fever. During the 3 weeks prior to admission, he had been swimming and diving in a freshwater lake. A lumbar puncture was done and examination revealed an elevated white blood cell count, primarily polymorphonuclear leukocytes, and motile amebae. The organism is most likely to be

a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Entamoeba polecki
c. Dientamoeba fragilis
d. Acanthamoeba
e. Naegleria fowleri

Causative agent of prmary amoebic Menigoencephalitis

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A Marine Corps sergeant who returned from Operation Desert Storm in Saudi Arabia reported to “sick bay” with cutaneous lesions on his lips and cheeks. Giemsa’s stain of the lesions revealed darkly staining kinetoplasts and light-staining nuclei within macrophages. The most likely cause of these lesions is

a. Trypanosoma
b. Toxoplasma
c. Sarcocystis
d. Histoplasma
e. Leishmania

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Human infection with the beef tapeworm, Taenia saginata, usually is less serious than infection with the pork tapeworm, T. solium, because

a. acute intestinal stoppage is less common in beef tapeworm infection
b. larval invasion does not occur in beef tapeworm infection
c. toxic by-products are not given off by the adult beef tapeworm
d. the adult beef tapeworm are smaller
e. beef tapeworm eggs cause less irritation of the mucosa of the digestive tract

T. solium causes cysticercosis (Fav questions)

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Recommendations for the control of human hookworm in endemic areas include the construction of sanitary facilities and the

a. thorough washing of fresh fruit and vegetables
b. thorough cooking of all meats
c. reduction of the wild dog population
d. use of insecticides to control flies
e. wearing of footwear

Prevent skin penetration

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One million persons in the United States have roundworm infection. Which of the following parasites is a roundworm that hatches in the upper small intestine and releases rhabditiform larvae that penetrate the intestinal wall?

a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Diphyllobothrium latum
c. Schistosoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
e. Ascaris lumbricoides

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Analysis of a patient’s stool reveals small structures resembling rice grains; microscopic examination shows these to be proglottids. The most likely organism in this patient’s stool is

a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Necator americanus
d. Taenia saginata
e. Trichuris trichiura

The Rice grain is usually D. caninum since the proglottids is very small (Tapered)

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Most tapeworms are intestinal parasites of humans. Humans can be both the intermediate and the definitive host of

a. Taenia solium
b. Taenia saginata
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Dirofilaria immitis
e. Echinococcus granulosus

IH and DH both on humans have the high possibility that there may be intestinal infection AND Tissue infection

(Human may be Accidental Intermediate host since originally, the IG is pig)

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The species of the protozoan Trichomonas that are found in humans are T. hominis (Pentatrichomonas hominis) and vaginalis. Which one of the following statements is true? a. T. hominis is the most pathogenic for humans b. T. hominis infects the distal small intestine c. T. vaginalis usually causes erosion of the uterine mucosa d. T. vaginalis is transmitted sexually e. There are no morphologic differences between T. hominis and T. vaginalis

d *Pentatrichomonas hominis is the new name for T.hominis

A teenager who works in a dog kennel after school has had a skin rash, eosinophilia, and an enlarged liver and spleen for 2 years. a. Trichinosis b. Schistosomiasis c. Toxoplasmosis d. Visceral larva migrans e. Giardiasis

d Cause by Toxocara canis

One of the most clinically significant infections in patients with AIDS is Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). PCP is a treatable disease; therefore, rapid diagnosis is essential. The method of choice for detection of P. carinii in respiratory specimens is a. methenamine silver stain b. toluidine blue stain c. direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) microscopy d. indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) microscopy e. culture in rat lung cells

c *Pneumocystis jirovecii is the new name for Pneumocystis carinii

All of the following statements describe human lice EXCEPT: a. they are wingless b. they cause pruritic skin lesions c. they transmit epidemic typhus, relapsing fever, and trench fever d. Pediculus humanus and Phthirus pubis are two species e. They secrete a potent neurotoxin

Amebae that are parasitic in humans are found in the oral cavity and the intestinal tract. All of the following statements about intestinal amebae are true EXCEPT: a. they are often nonpathogenic b. they can cause peritonitis and liver abscesses c. they are usually transmitted as cysts d. they occur most abundantly in the cecum e. infection with Entamoeba histolytica is limited to the intestinal tract

Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease, has been isolated from a variety of ticks such as Ixodes scapularis, Amblyomma, Dermacentor, and Ixodes pacificus. All the following statements are true EXCEPT: a. Ixodes scapularis is the new name for Ixodes dammini b. White-tailed deer are an important reservoir for I. scapularis ticks c. Only a small percentage of people who get bitten by a tick develop Lyme disease d. Dermacentor and Amblyomma are significant vectors of B. burgdorferi to humans e. Dogs and cats may contract Lyme disease after a tick bite

d Lyme disease vectors: Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus

Entamoeba histolytica a. Sigmoidoscopy and aspiration of mucosal lesions b. Baermann technique c. Dilution followed by egg count d. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) e. Examination of a cellophane tape swab

a Sigmoidoscopy use to test for amoebiasis Baermann = HW and S.s. Dilution followed by egg count - Also known as Stoll Dilution - used for Soiled transmitted helminths

Ascaris a. Sigmoidoscopy and aspiration of mucosal lesions b. Baermann technique c. Dilution followed by egg count d. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) e. Examination of a cellophane tape swab

A butcher, who is fond of eating raw hamburger, develops chorioretinitis; a Sabin-Feldman dye test is positive a. Trichinosis b.Schistosomiasis c. Toxoplasmosis d. Visceral larva migrans e. Giardiasis

c Sabin-Feldman dye test - Gold standard for Toxoplasmosis - Rgt = live T. gondii (Prev boards question)

A newspaper correspondent has diarrhea for 2 weeks following a trip to St. Petersburg (Leningrad) a. Trichinosis b. Schistosomiasis c. Toxoplasmosis d. Visceral larva migrans e. Giardiasis

e Traveller's diarrhea

A helminth that is naturally transmitted by ingestion of pork or bear or walrus meat can be found in: a. Vaginal secretions b. Duodenal contents c. Blood d. Biopsied muscle e. Sputum

Cysts of a protozoan that adhere to a piece of nylon yarn coiled in a gelatin capsule and swallowed can be isolated in: a. Vaginal secretions b. Duodenal contents c. Blood d. Biopsied muscle e. Sputum

b The nylon yarn coiled in a gelatin capsule is also known as Entero/String test - Usually done to G. lamblia (but any parasite that lives in the intestine or duodenal region can be used)

Which of these trophozoites, when acting as a pathogen, is likely to ingest red blood cells of the host? a. Entamoeba coli b. Entamoeba hartmanni c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Endolimax nana

Which of the following is characteristic of the true amoebae? a. peripheral chromatin on the nuclear border b. chromatoid bodies in cysts c. include pathogens and non-pathogens d. all of the above

The point of differentiation on which one has to depend for separation of Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba hartmanni is a. presence of peripheral chromatin b. presence of chromatoid bodies c. only one possesses a cyst form d. size

d Small race of E. histolytica

Which of these amoebae can be a pathogen? a. Endolimax nana b. Entamoeba hartmanni c. Entamoeba histolytica d. all of the above

What trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomal chromatin? a. Endolimax nana b. Entamoeba coli c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Iodamoeba butschlii

d Basket nucleus

Which of the following amoebae has coarse irregular peripheral chromatin and eccentric karyosomal chromatin? a. Entamoeba coli b. Endolimax nana c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Dientamoeba fragilis

Some amoebae have a spiny hyaline extension called a. pseudopods b. limax forms c. cribriform plates d. acanthopods

Amoebae inhabiting the central nervous system enter the body through the a. mouth b. nasal mucosa c. ears d. feet

The trophozoite whose karyosomal chromatin appears as a rosette of 4-6 granules is identified as a. Naegleria fowleri b. Dientamoeba fragilis c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Balantidium coli

b Fragmented tetrakaryosome (Morphologic hallmark)

What does Dientamoeba fragilis have in common with Trichomonas vaginalis? a. Both are flagellates b. Both can appear as a urine contaminant c. neither has a cyst form d. all of the above

d But D. fragilis already has cyst

Which intestinal flagellate trophozoite has sucking disc, 2 nuclei, 8 flagella and an axostyle a. Chilomastix mesnili b. Dientamoeba fragilis c. Giardia lamblia d. trichomonas hominis

A lemon-shaped cyst with a nipple at one end belongs to a. Giardia b. Chilomastix c. Trichomonas d. Dientamoeba

b hyaline anterior knob

What morphological characteristic differentiates trichomonads from other intestinal flagellates? a. undulating membrane b. sucking disc c. cytostome d. axoneme

Which flagellate can cause a sexually transmitted disease? a. Giardia lamblia b. Entamoeba hartmanni c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Trichomonas hominis

c - Best answer a = Gay bowel syndrome

Which of these is the intracellular form of the blood and tissue flagellates? a. crithidial b. leishmanial c. trypanosomal d. leptomonad

b also known as amastigote

Which specimen would be suitable for a demonstrating of the trypanosomes of sleeping sickness? a. blood b. fluid from a lymph node c. cerebrospinal fluid d. all of the above

d blood - febrile stage Fluid from a lymph node - Winterbottom sign CSF - Sleeping stage

The extracellular form of Trypanosoma is a slender organism characterized by an undulating membrane and free flagellum that arises a. anteriorly from the nucleus b. posteriorly from the kinetoplast c. centrally from the anterior end d. posteriorly from the nucleus

How is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted? a. inhalation b. tsetse fly c. reduviid bug d. sexually

c From the feces of the bug (Indirect transmission)

What organism is the cause of Kala-Azar? a. Leishmania donovani b. Leishmania braziliensis c. Trypanosoma cruzi d. Trypanosoma gambiense

a Also called Black fever / Dumdum fever / Visceral Leis

Which malarial organism has large coarse red dots within a large pale red cell with fimbriated edges? a. P. ovale b. P. malariae c. P. falciparum d. P. vivax

A cyst 70 μm long, whose double wall encloses a ciliated organism, would be a. transmitted by a mosquito to man b. acquired by accident by man, since it customarily infects swine c. a member of the Sporozoa d. demonstrated only by trichrome stain

b (B. coli - zoonotic)

Which malarial organism presents as pale, very amoeboid ring trophozoites, infecting a large pale red cell with dots of hemoglobin? a. P. ovale b. P. malariae c. P. falciparum d. P. vivax

d - Schuffner dots

The malarial organism whose schizont resembles a “fruit pie” in which the merozoites form a Rosette around malarial pigment is a. P. malariae b. P. vivax c. P. ovale d. P. falciparum

a Fruit pie - Daisy formation - Rossette

The gametocyte of Plasmodium falciparum can be differentiated from that of other malarial species by a. appearance of invaded red cell b. nuclear chromatin c. size d. shape

Which mosquito is the definitive host of malaria? a. male anopheles b. female anopheles c. male culex d. female culex

The demonstration of chorioretinitis and cerebral calcifications in a newborn would result in which of these laboratory requests? a. Casoni skin test b. MHA-ABS test for congenital syphilis c. Ramon flocculation test d. titer of Toxoplasma antibodies

d Limited only to Serologic test

The sexual reproduction cycle in Plasmodium and Coccidia is referred to as a. sporogony b. shizogony c. sporocyst d. None of the above

a Plasmodium and Coccidia are apicomplexans / Sporozoans Sporogony = Sexual phase Schiizogony = asexual phase

What is the appearance of Toxoplasma gondii in tissue fluids of man? a. oval b. crescent c. limax form d. ring form

Isospora belli immature oocysts contain(s) a. sporozoites b. tachyzoites c. pseudocysts d. a sporoblast

d *Cytoisospora belli is the new name

Which of the following parasites is associated with AIDS? a. Isospora belli b. Sarcocystis c. Babesia d. Cryptosporidium

Eggs that are bile-stained, barrel-shaped and have clear polar plugs belong to a. the pinworm b. the large roundworm c. the whipworm d. the hookworm

c (T. trichuria)

If an Ascaris egg lacks its bile-stained mammillated coat, we refer to the egg as a. fertilized b. unfertilized c. decorticated d. mature

The Helminth infection that can induce the highest rise in eosinophils in peripheral blood is a. trichuriasis b. trichinosis c. taeniasis d. trichomoniasis

The Helminth that induces a hypochromic microcytic anemia in its host is a. hookworm b. whipworm c. pinworm d. threadworm

The larvae of hookworm, Stronglyoides and various free-living roundworms resemble each other. Which of these statements is true concerning them? a. the filariform larva of hookworm has a notched tail b. the rhabditiform larva of Strongyloides has a short buccal cavity c. the filariform larva of Strongyloides has a pointed tail d. the rhabditiform larva of hookworm has a short buccal cavity

b (Check vid for more info)

Which of the roundworms is NOT provided with a means of attachment to the intestine, so that the female has to keep her place by her own body movements? a. Necator b. Enterobius c. Trichuris d. Ancylostoma

Which tapeworm proglottid makes its way across the fecal specimen by doubling movements, and is seen under the microscope to have numerous regular uterine branches resembling those of a tree? a. Taenia saginata b. Taenia solium c. Diphyllobothrium latum d. Dipylidium caninium

This tapeworm infection has to be treated with great care so that man does not acquire the larval infection a. paragonimiasis b. taeniasis solium c. dipylidiasis d. diphyllobothriasis

The “Dwarf tapeworm” is another name for a. Hymenolepis nana b. Hymenolepis diminuta c. Diphyllobothrium latum d. Taenia solium

Which nucleotide pair has a high frequency of mutation in human chromosomal DNA? a. CC b. CG c. CA d. CT

Intervening sequence are found in: a. Heteronuclear RNA b. Mature mRNA c. Ribosomal RNA d. Transfer RNA

a - Pre-mRNA Introns - Non coding regions

A metaphase chromosome with primary constriction that gives the chromosome clearly defined short and long arms is considered: a. Acrocentric b. Submetacentric c. Metacentric d. Telocentric

The 2 alleles for a sex-linked recessive disease are X and x. The mutant allele is x. What is the percentage of male offspring that would be expected to be affected by the disease from parents who have the following genotypes? Mother: Xx Father: xY a. 0 b. 25 c. 50 d. 100.

c ONLY MALE

The mode of inheritance of mitochondrial DNA is: a. Dominant b. Recessive c. Codominant d. Maternal

d All mitochondrial Gnese came from the mother

An RFLP is most likely detected using which of the following methods? a. Northern blot b. Southern blot c. Western blot d. Southwestern blot

b Northern = RNA Westerm = Proteins Southern = DNA

Which condition has the highest stringency for washing a Southern blot after hybridization has been completed? a. Low temperature, low salt concentration b. High temperature, low salt concentration c. High temperature, high salt concentration d. Low temperature, high salt concentration

What is a solution hybridization method for the detection of nucleic acid protein interactions? a. RNase protection assay b. Gel mobility shift assay c. Strand displacement amplification assay d. Hybrid capture assay

How many volumes of ethanol are added to 1 volume of a DNA: salt solution to cause the DNA to precipitate? a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 2.5

c 2.5 = for RNA

The fluorescent dye that exhibits the greatest sensitivity for quantization of DNA is: a. Ethidium bromide b. Hoechst 33258 c. Propidium iodide d. SYBR® Green

A RNA sample is isolated from peripheral blood cells of a patient. When performing spectrophotometric analysis to determine the yield of RNA in the sample you find the 1:40 dilution of the 0.5 mL sample gives an OD 260 reading of 0.03125 and an OD 280 reading of 0.01760. What is the total amount of RNA contained in the 0.5 mL sample? a. 50 μg b. 25 μg c. 12.5 μg d. 5 μg

b RNA ug/mL = OD 260 x 40 ug/mL x 40 x 0.5

Which reagent generates a signal during the annealing stage of a quantitative real time PCR reaction? a. SYBR® Green b. TaqMan® probe c. Molecular beacon d. Scorpion™ probe

What is the most critical step in determining the specificity of a PCR reaction? a. Denaturation temperature b. Annealing temperature c. Extension temperature d. Number of cycles in the PCR reaction

A variation of a standard PCR reaction that can increase the sensitivity and specificity of a low copy number target in a patient sample is known as: a. Branched PCR b. RT-PCR c. Nested PCR D. Cleavage-based PCR

Which technique employs the amplification of the signal resulting from probe:target hybridization rather than by amplifying the target or the probe? a. Branched DNA analysis b. Polymerase chain reaction c. Ligase chain reaction d. Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification

Methylation of cytosine residues is involved in the alteration of gene expression in a number of cancers. Which sequencing technique is best suited to determine if methylation of cytosine residues has taken place in the promoter region of a given gene? a. Maxam/Gilbert chemical cleavage b. Sanger dideoxyterminator c. Bisulfite sequencing d. Pyrosequencing

What is the best method to rule out the possibility of genomic DNA giving a false-positive result in an RT-PCR reaction? a. To lower the melting temperature of RNA:DNA hybrids in Northern blot analysis b. To remove any previously generated amplicons containing dUTP from PCT reactions c. To remove contaminating genomic DNA from an RT-PCR reaction d. To melt double-stranded DNA to single-stranded DNA during a Southern blot procedure

See Choices in AE 2 Number 91

Monitoring the load of HIV circulating in a patient’s plasma would best be accomplished using which method? a. PCR b. DNA sequencing c. NABSA d bDNA

When genotyping strains of bacteria by PFGE, what is the minimum number of genetic differences that must be observed between a reference strain and a test strain before it can be determined that the test strain is unrelated to the reference strain? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Molecular-based testing was performed on a nasopharyngeal swab sample taken from a patient. Results are reported as positive for IS481 and negative for IS1001. These results indicate the patient’s nasopharynx is colonized with: a. Bordetella pertussis b. Bordetella holmesii c. Bordetella parapertussis d. Bordetella sp

A translocation in which chromosome pair creates a BCR/ABL1 fusion gene product associated with CML? a. 11:18 b. 14:18 c. 9:22 d. 9:14

A PCR-based assay is performed to determine the clonality of B cells in a patient using a forward primer specific for the innermost framework region and a reverse primer complimentary to the joining region (of the immunoglobulin heavy chain). When run on an agarose gel containing ethidium bromide, the patient sample exhibits a smear of staining over a wide range in the patient sample lane along with one distinct band approximately a third of the way down from the sample loading well. Assuming all controls worked properly for the assay, what is your interpretation of the results for this patient? a. Patient is normal b. Patient has mononucleosis c. Patient has a polyclonal population of B cells d. Patient has a monoclonal population of B cells

A Robertsonian translocation may be associated with which genetic disorder? a. Turner syndrome b. Downsyndrome c. Angelman syndrome d. Cri du chat syndrome

The results of str typing of a child, the child’s mother and 3 alleged fathers (AF) of the child are listed in the table below. Locus Child Mother AF1 AF2 AF3 Name genotype genotype genotype genotype genotype CSF1PO 10, 12 12, 12 11, 12 10, 12 12, 13 TPOX 9,9 9,11 8,9 9, 11 9, 11 TH01 7, 9 7, 9.3 7, 8 7, 9 7, 9.3 F13A01 6, 9 9, 9 6, 9 6, 6 9, 9 FESFPS 10, 11 11, 13 11, 14 7, 10 10, 9 vWA 14, 18 18, 19 13, 18 13, 14 15, 18 Which of the statements below is correct concerning the alleged fathers? a. AF1 is most likely the father of the child b. AF2 is most likely the father of the child c. AF3 is most likely the father of the child d. None of the alleged fathers is likely the father of the child.

Which locus is used to identify the gender of the individual from whom a DNA sample is obtained? a. Amelogenin b. CSF1PO c. TPOX d. vWA

Assessment Exam 1 Rationale Flashcards

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