Assessments, Program Design & Special Populations Flashcards
1
Q
Someone that has an illness or ailment lasting more than a few yrs (asthma, elderly, aids) would be considered in the:
A
Special Population
2
Q
Body fat % that is considered obese for men and women:
A
Male - 25%
FEMALE - 35%
3
Q
Which form of diabetes is primarily seen in children and young adults and will require the injection of insulin?
A
Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)
4
Q
A metabolic disorder characterized by problems with the production, supply and recognition of insulin (regulation of blood sugars)
A
Diabetes
5
Q
What metabolic disorder might include all the following symptoms?
Frequent urination, slow healing of sores or cuts, itchy skin, weight gain, fatigue, blurry vision and increased thirst or hunger.
A
Diabetes
6
Q
Diabetes can lead to a ___________ if client eats an improper diet and does not engage in regular exercise.
A
Blood Sugar Reaction
7
Q
Which of the following can help regulate blood sugars and increase insulin sensitivity to potentially decrease need for insulin shots while reducing body fat?
A. Consistent Progressive Cardiovascular Exercise
B. Consuming “good fats”
C. Consuming more fiber
D. FIITR
A
A. Consistent Progressive Cardiovascular Exercise
8
Q
Appropriate diet of ____________ can prevent non-insulin dependent diabetes from occurring and avoid side effects of diabetes.
A. Starchy fiber rich carbs
B. Lean proteins
C. Healthy fats
D. All the above
E. Only A&C
A
D. All the Above
9
Q
Hormone production
Maximum oxygen uptake
Bone rigidity and porosity
Neurological capabilities
Muscle mass and strength
Balance
What do these functions have in common in relation to aging?
A
They decrease with age
10
Q
Name as many functions that you can that decrease with age:
A
-Hormone production
-Maximum oxygen uptake
-Bone rigidity and porosity
-Neurological capabilities
-Muscle mass and strength
-Balance
11
Q
3 Functions that INCREASE as you age:
A
-Fat body mass
-Resting and training heart rate
-Dependence on others for ADL’s (activities of daily living)
12
Q
-Fatigue vs overtraining
-Pain from exertion vs acute pain
-Breathing hard vs labored breathing
-Heart rate increase vs arrhythmia
These are variables for what type of individuals?
A
Special Populations
13
Q
Which of the following is NOT a Guideline for special populations?
A. Determine whether you are qualified and want to help such a client (risk vs benefit)
B. Research information on their condition and with your client and their doctor.
C. Determining their body fat and heart rate.
D. Complete a comprehensive health history on medications and limitations.
E. Obtain medical clearance if necessary.
F. Empower your client to be as independent as possible.
A
C. Determining their body fat and heart rate
14
Q
The GOAL of the trainer for a special population is to:
A. Keep problems from occurring.
B. Empower the client to be as independent as possible
C. Slow the process of limitations caused by the individuals’s condition.
D. All the above
E. Only A & C
F. Only B &C
A
E. Only A & C
Empowering is one of the GUIDELINES.
15
Q
Which of the following is NOT a modification for aging & elderly?
A. Exercise consistently to stimulate hormone production.
B. Utilizing HIIT Cardio
C. Train with increasing resistance to slow the loss of bone and muscle mass.
D. Include basic balance activities for normal movement (multi-planar).
E. Use the RPE (Rate of Perceived Exertion) for frequent check-ups.
A
B. Utilizing HIIT Cardio
16
Q
High blood pressure at or above 140/90 mm/hg.
A
Hypertension
17
Q
Low blood pressure at or below 90/55 mm/hg
A
Hypotension
18
Q
Which of the following prescribed by doctors does NOT lower blood pressure?
A. Diuretics
B. beta-blockers
C. MAOI inhibitors
D. ACE inhibitors
E. Calcium-channel blockers
A
C. MAOI inhibitors
19
Q
A weight loss goal for an obese individual that would be appropriate:
A. 1lb a week
B. 1-3lbs a week
C. 3-5lbs a week
D. 5-7lbs a week
A
B. 1-3lbs a week
20
Q
This can cause wheezing, shortness of breath, chest tightness or headaches due to overexertion.
A
Exercise Induced Asthma
21
Q
This can be exacerbated at any time due to air pollution or other allergens in the immediate environment.
A
Chronic Asthma
22
Q
An involuntary constriction of the smooth muscles of the bronchial passage limited air flow to the lungs.
A
Asthma
23
Q
Which of the following can help improve the aerobic capacity of someone with asthma?
A. Light to moderate progressive aerobic exercise
B. Breathing through the nose
C. Inhalers
D. All the above
E. A & B
F. B & C
A
E. A & B
24
Q
True or False:
When looking at body fat percentage, a female is considered obese with a body fat of 25% or above and a male of 32% or above.
A
False
25
Which form of diabetes is primarily seen in children and young adults and will require the injection of insulin?
A. Insulin Dependent Diabetes
B. Mellitus (IDDM)
C. Non-Insulin Dependent
D. Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
E. Gestational Diabetes (GD)
F. Exercise-Induced Diabetes (EID)
A. Insulin Dependent Diabetes
26
Which of the following conditions characterized by a constriction of the bronchial passages requires close monitoring of the heart rate to ensure the client is staying within the “recovery zone” when performing aerobic exercise?
A. Diabetes
B. Asthma
C. Obesity
D. Hypertension
B. Asthma
27
Which of the following is a coronary heart disease risk factor that can be changed?
A. Type II diabetes
B. Age
C. Gender
D. Heredity
A. Type II diabetes
28
Which of the following is NOT an increased risk individuals can face when obese?
A. Increased risk for diabetes and heart disease
B. Hormone deficiencies
C. Excessive strain on joints and muscles
D. Decreased muscular imbalances
D. Decreased muscular imbalances
29
True or False:
A heart attack is due to the death of cardiac muscle caused by a lack of blood supply.
True
30
What is one of the major concerns with children and resistance training?
A. Undue stress at the joints and growth plates
B. Becoming a miniature bodybuilder
C. Choosing the wrong exercises to perform
D. Increasing lean body tissue
A. Undue stress at the joints and growth plates
31
Which of the following is NOT a coronary heart disease risk factor that can be changed?
A. Sedentary lifestyle
B. Obesity
C. High blood pressure
D. Heredity
D. Heredity
32
Which of the following is considered in labeling a person part of a special population?
A. Individuals who have a chronic or specific situation.
B. Individuals in need of accommodations in their workout.
C. Individuals who have a condition that requires close monitoring by a doctor.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
33
As we age, changes occur in the body. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Body fat decreases
B. Balance and stability decreases
C. Resting heart rate increases
D. Strength decreases
A. Body fat decreases
34
For a client with a cardiovascular condition, what is it important to do?
A. Avoid strength training.
B. Obtain proper medical clearance from the client’s doctor.
C. Focus on cardiovascular activities that do not elevate the HR above 140 bpm.
D. Recommend the client begin training once the condition has gone away.
B. Obtain proper medical clearance from the client’s doctor.
35
What is the best form of resistance to use with an older adult or child?
A. Light dumbbells
B. Resistance bands
C. Pilates/fitness circles
D. Body weight
D. Body weight
36
What is the most significant reason more children are obese now compared to previous decades?
A. Overcrowded classrooms
B. Sedentary lifestyle
C. Not enough access to food
D. Technology
B. Sedentary lifestyle
37
Which of the following blood pressure readings indicates hypertension or a risk for hypertension?
A. 120/80
B. 140/90
C. 100/70
D. 135/75
B. 140/90
38
Which of the following modifications is NOT recommended when training an older adult?
A. Exercise and training on a consistent basis.
B. Selecting resistance activities that load through the joints.
C. Using the RPE scale to assess the level of intensity during exercise.
C. Focusing on balance activities to improve stability.
B. Selecting resistance activities that load through the joints.
39
High blood pressure is better known as which of the following?
A. Cardiovascular disease
B. Hypertension
C. Hypotension
D. Myocardial infarction
B. Hypertension
40
This type of Diabetes is where the body can't use insulin efficiently and is most common in those over 45 and/or obese.
Type 2 Diabetes (NIDDM)
41
This type of Diabetes is where the Pancreas doesn’t produce insulin they need so you become insulin-dependent
Type 1 Diabetes (IDDM)
42
Any of several metabolic disorders marked by excessive discharge of urine and persistent thirst:
Diabetes mellitus
43
The rise in blood glucose level:
Hyperglycemia
44
Low blood sugar is referred to as:
Hypoglycemia
45
This type of diabetes is developed during pregnancy and puts woman at risk for getting NIDDM later
Gestational Diabetes
46
The measure of either skill or biometric (body weight, blood pressure, etc)
Assessment
47
FORMAL ASSESSMENT FORMS:
-Health History
-Par q
-Body comp assessment (bf)
-Cardiovascular assessment
-Balance assessment
-Flexibility assessment
-Muscle strength assessment
48
The standard physical activity readiness form:
Par Q
49
The type of assessment of constant mini changes by trainer to ensure correct program for client:
Microassessments
50
Assessments performed every 4-8 weeks (health, fitness, skill)
Macro Assessments
51
An acceptable healthy percent of BF for females (without adjusting for age) is ______.
A. 11%
B. 15%
C. 22%
D. 30%
C. 22%
52
A method used to determine postural deviations is the ___________ .
A. Overhead squat
B. One-legged balance test
C. Gait analysis
D. Sit and reach test
A. Overhead squat
53
When a client states that they are diabetic during the Health History interview, the PFT should _______________ and ____________.
A. Find out what kind of insulin the prospect takes; recommend changes.
B. Acknowledge; move on.
C. Ask more probing questions; refer the prospect to an RD or MD.
D. Do not comment as to protect privacy; provide nutrition information
C. Ask more probing questions; refer the prospect to an RD or MD.
54
When a PFT performs a post-program assessment for adaptations towards the clients’ goals, it is known as a
A. Macroassessment
B. Microassessment
C. Post-test
D. Program Design
A. Macroassessment
55
When a trainer performs an assessment of a client’s movements during an exercise repetition, this is an example of ______________.
A. Evaluation
B. Observation
C. Microassessing
D. Macroassessing
C. Microassessing
56
When performing basic assessments, PFT’s should always __________________.
A. Arrive prepared for the session.
B. Understand how to make relevance of assessment results.
C. Discuss results with clients, using appropriate wording.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
57
The frequency at which an adult over the age of 50 should receive a full physical exam is ____________.
A. Each year
B. Every other year
C. Every 5 years
D. Every two years, or more frequently if conditions warrant an exam
D. Every two years, or more frequently if conditions warrant an exam
58
Assessments are important because ….
A. They help trainers see the true needs of the client.
B. They help clients to see exactly where they stand as of today.
C. They help trainers make a professional recommendation.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
59
________________ and ________________ are the most common methods used in fitness clubs to assess Body Fat (BF)
A. Skinfold calipers; DEXA
B. DEXA; BIA (Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis)
C. Hydrostatic weighing; skinfolds
D. Skinfolds; BIA (Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis)
D. Skinfolds; BIA (Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis)
60
How often should adults get a full health exam?
Adults age 19-39:
Adults age 40-49:
Adults 50+
Adults age 19-39: every 5 yrs
Adults age 40-49: every 3
Adults 50+ every 1-2 years
61
Make Sure the Client is Prepared 24 hours before their assessment session by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Leaving a reminder to there isn't a no-show.
B. Special instructions about the assessment procedure.
C. Wearing comfortable athletic clothing.
D. Having a meal 2-3 hours prior
E. None of the above
E. None of the above (because all of them!)
62
True or False:
According to ACSM, all healthy adults aged 18 – 65 should participate in the following:
-30 minutes minimum of moderate-intensity aerobic activity, five days a week.
-20 minutes minimum of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity, three days a week.
True
63
Physical Assessments Include:
A. RHR (Resting Heart Rate)
B. BP (Blood Pressure)
C. BW (Body Weight)
D. Girth and Body Composition
E. All of the Above
E. All of the Above
64
What is seen as more important indicator of client health than body weight?
Body Composition
65
What is the Gold Standard for Body Fat analysis?
Hydrostatic (but it might not be avail for everyone)
66
The following are Physical Assessments, except:
A. Metabolic Assessments - may not have access to this equipment
B. Cardiovascular Testing
C. Sub-Max Testing
D. Fitness Assessments
F. Body Composition Assessments
F. Body Composition Assessments
67
Which is NOT a Fitness Assessment:
A. Flexibility
B. Strength
C. Anaerobic Threshold
D. Endurance
E. Muscular Power
C. Anaerobic Threshold
68
What are the the Fitness Assessments?
(6 of them)
Flexibility, Strength, Endurance, Muscular Power, Balance, Power
69
The most important part of assessment is:
Goal Setting
70
What is the assessment in which you see how far they can walk/run in 12 minutes?
Cooper Test
71
Describe the 3 Levels of the Single Leg Balance Assessment:
Level 1: Have the client stand on one foot and attempt to do so for as long as 30 seconds, then repeat on the other foot.
Level 2: If they can perform this exercise adequately have them attempt the same with their eyes closed.
Level 3: Have them stand on one leg and reach with their opposite hand to the ground and return to an upright, neutral position (keeping their foot off the ground), and repeat.
72
3 Variables that affect balance:
Focus, Fatigue, Muscular imbalance(s)
73
This assessment is a simple way of quickly assessing the client’s recognition of body position in space.
Static Posture Assessment
74
The job of the trainer during a static posture assessment is to:
Take note of perceived gross abnormalities in posture - NOT nipick the smallest of details.
75
This type of assessment observes the body or its segments while moving—walking, running, jumping, throwing, and lifting.
Dynamic Postural Assessment
76
What Test is the Following:
Place the measuring device so that the feet are at the 15” marker. For example the yard stick would lie on the floor between the legs with the feet in line with the 15” marker.
Those who can- not touch their toes will have a reading under 15 and those who can reach beyond their toes will have a score above 15.
Sit and Reach Test
77
What assessment is utilized to observe basic movement control and mobility (and therefore flexibility and stability)?
Overhead Squat Assessment
78
What assessment checks how the body reacts to movement?
Dynamic Postural Assessment
79
True or False:
The Leg Press Assessment loads the press with the same weight as individual.
True
80
True or False:
A 10 Rep Max Test is preferred over a 1 Rep Max Test.
True
81
Refers to the percentage of fat, muscle, bone (also water) in your body.
Body Composition
82
The ability to change direction under control
Agility
83
An artfully designed scientific picture of physical training, which has a plan that has a process.
Program
84
Which of the following is NOT true about a Program?
A. Within Each Program contains a Plan which contains a Process
B. A Program is an AGENDA
C. A Plan is a strategy of how
D. Does Not Require Evaluation
E. The Process is the Procedure.
D. Does Not Require Evaluation
85
A multidimensional concept of performing activities with vigor and energy.
A. Endurance
B. Physical Activity
C. Exercise
D. Flexibility
E. Fitness
E. Fitness
86
Planned physical activity performed to improve or maintain one or more components of physical activity.
A. Fitness
B. Exercise
C. Endurance
D. Physical Activity
B. Exercise
87
Bodily movements produced by muscle resulting in energy expenditure.
A. Physical Activity
B. Fitness
C. Exercise
D. Flexibility
E. Muscle Growth
A. Physical Activity
88
Which of the following is not a component of fitness?
A. HRF (Health Related Fitness)
B. FRE (Flexibility Related Fitness)
C. SRF (Skill Related Fitness)
D. PRE (Physiologically-Related Fitness)
B. FRE (Flexibility Related Fitness)
89
The Categories of Health Related Fitness Are:
(5 of them)
Max Strength
Flexibility Strength
Strength Endurance
Cardiovascular
Body Composition
90
The status of metabolic systems and variables that may predict risk for diabetes and cardiovascular disease is referred to as what type of physiological fitness?
Metabolic Fitness
91
What type of physiological fitness relates to body composition factors & aesthetics?
Morphological Fitness
92
What type of physiological fitness relates to bone mineral density status - a big concern for women?
Bone Integrity
93
What is the maximum amount of force a muscle or group of muscle can generate in a specified movement pattern (any direction) and at a specified velocity during any movement called?
Strength
94
SAID Principle stands for:
Specific Adaptations to the Imposed Demands
95
The varying & cycling of frequency, intensity and volume of acute program variables over time.
Periodization
96
Which of the following is NOT true in regards to Periodization?
A. Varying the volume, intensity and frequency of training over time
B. Dates back to the early 20th century (not a new concept)
C. Utilized well with athletics
D. Very underutilized in personal training industry
E. All are true
F. Only A & D are true
E. All are true
97
The overall entire program, which includes Foundation Training, Base Strength, Skill Related Fitness and finally Peak
(also, the NESTA Pyramid is a…)
Macrocycle
98
What cycle is 1-3 months of the Program?
Mesocycle
99
What cycle is keeping track of each workout details?
Microcycle
100
Progress Monitoring (macro and micro assessments) AND Periodic Testing are key elements of Periodization known as:
Individualization
101
Every rep is an an assessment known as a:
Microassessment
102
The First Level of the NESTA Pyramid including the following stages
-Motor Learning
-Structural Integrity
-Strength Endurance
Is called what?
Foundational Fitness
103
On the Nesta Pyramid, MOTOR LEARNING stage of FOUNDATIONAL FITNESS (Level 1/Stage 1) this stage lasts:
A. 1-2 weeks, 1-2 exercises per session with 15-20 reps & 1-2 sets.
B. 2-4 weeks, 1-2 exercises per session with 15-20 reps & 1-2 sets.
C. 4-6 weeks, 1-2 exercises per session with 15-20 reps & 1-2 sets.
C. 4-6 weeks, 1-2 exercises per session with 15-20 reps & 1-2 sets.
104
In the STRUCTURAL INTEGRITY & and STRENGTH ENDURANCE stage of Foundational Fitness (Level 1/Stage 2), which of the following is correct?
A. The NEXT 4-6 weeks, using basic full body movement.
B. Start incorporating machines and reps 15-20 for 3-4 sets.
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A or B
C. Both A & B
105
The second level of the NESTA PYRAMID IS:
A. Foundational Fitness
B. Skill Related Fitness
C. Basic Strength & Endurance Hypertrophy
D. Peak
C. Basic Strength & Endurance Hypertrophy
106
Level 2/Stage 1 of the Nesta Pyramid (Strength Endurance & Hypertrophy) should consist of:
A. 3 Weeks for Hypertrophy Training & 1 Week of Strength Endurance for 2 months.
B. 1 Week of Hypertrophy Training & 3 Weeks of Strength for 3 months.
A. 3 Weeks for Hypertrophy Training & 1 Week of Strength Endurance for 2 months.
107
Level 2/Stage 2 of the Nesta Pyramid (Basic Strength & Hypertrophy) should consist of:
A. 3 Weeks of Heavy Lifting & 1 week of light workouts for 2 cycles (approx 2 months).
B. 1 Week of Heavy Lifting & 3 Weeks of Lighter workouts for approximately 2 months.
A. 3 Weeks of Heavy Lifting & 1 week of light workouts for 2 cycles (approx 2 months).
108
The program design concept of varying the volume, intensity, and frequency of training over time is known as …
A. SAID
B. Periodization
C. Specificity
D. Acute Program Variables
B. Periodization
109
Which of the following is in the correct order?
A. Optimize, analyze, minimize, maximize
B. Analyze, optimize, maximize, minimize
C. Optimize, analyze, maximize, minimize
D. Analyze, optimize, minimize, maximize
B.
110
Which of the following is NOT considered a category of fitness?
A. Health-Related Fitness
B. Skill-Related Fitness
C. Power-Related Fitness
D. Physiological Fitness
C. Power-Related Fitness
111
When a PFT designs a program to target a specific type of strength, endurance and hypertrophy, they are observing the principle of ____________________.
A. Kinesiology
B. Specific Adaptations to the Imposed Demands
C. Biomechanics
D. Acute exercise variables
B. Specific Adaptations to the Imposed Demands
112
In order to offset the higher levels of stress during skill-related training, your manual suggests that a PFT should slowly introduce SRF components, to allow adequate time for ___________ and _____________.
A. Rest, recovery
B. Motor learning, strength development
C. Speed, agility adjustments
D. Motor learning, CT adaptations
D. Motor learning, CT (CONNECTIVE TISSUE) adaptations
113
Level one, stage one of the NESTA System of Program Design focuses on…
A. Strength
B. Motor learning
C. Hypertrophy
D. Power
B. Motor learning
114
The term “structural integrity” is referring to strength in the …
A. Tendons
B. Ligaments
C. Bones
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
115
Which of the following is NOT considered an acute program variable?
A. Time
B. Body fat
C. Sets
D. Tempo
B. Body fat
116
Undulating periodization …..
A. is a new concept in the fitness industry.
B. is the same as linear periodization.
C. alternates the category of strength trained in each work
D. All of the above
C. alternates the category of strength trained in each work
117
Which of the following categories of strength are trained in level 3?
A. Skill
B. Hypertrophy
C. Basic strength
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
This is kind of a shitty question, because Level 3 is SKILL buuuuut technically all 3 categories are trained within that level.
118
In Level 1 (Foundational Fitness) how many movements should be taught each workout?
A. 1-2
B. 2-3
C. 3-4
D. 4-5
A. 1-2
119
In Level 1 (Foundational Fitness), start with a few repeititions with lighter weight, working up to:
A. 10 repetitions
B. 15 repetitions
C. 15-20 repetitions
C. 15-20 repetitions
120
In Level 1, Stage 2 (Structural Integrity & Endurance), using Time Under Tension, the TEMPO should be:
A. 3-0-4
B. 4-0-4
C. 4-1-4
D. 4-0-3
D. 4-0-3
121
The following is true regarding Stage 2 Level 1 of the Nesta Pyramid (Strength Endurance & Hypertrophy) EXCEPT:
A. Continue an increase in Strength Endurance and lean tissue.
B. This step is vital to EVERYONE (MALES AND FEMALES)
C. An increase in lean tissue increases metabolic rate.
D. Females don't hypertrophy (increase lean tissue) the way men do.
E. All men hypertrophy the same as well.
E. All men hypertrophy the same as well.
...they do not all hypertrophy the same!
122
At which Levels do you introduce higher intensity, increased load and a tempo of 4-0-2 and 2-0-1?
A. 4-0-2 only in Level 2 Stage 1 and only 2-0-1 in Level 2 Stage 2.
B. 4-0-2 in Level 2 Stage 1, and both 4-0-2 and 2-0-1 in Stage 2.
C. 4-0-2 in Level 1 Stage 2 and
2-0-1 in Level 2 Stage 1
B. 4-0-2 in Level 2 Stage 1, and both 4-0-2 and 2-0-1 in Stage 2.
123
Before reaching Level 3 (SKILL) of the Nesta Pyramid, if starting from the bottom of the pyramid, approximately how many months should be used to build adequate foundation?
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 7 months
D. 9 months
C. 7 months
124
True or False:
SRF (Skill Related Fitness) Activities are multi-joint, multiplanar, ground-based movements performed at substantially higher velocities.
True
125
True or False:
A Major Benefit to "cross training" (Undulating/Non-Linear Periodization) is that the client's daily physiological/psychological condition can dictate what type of training for the day, and may decrease risk of injury and increase adherence to exercise.
True
126
True or False:
Foundational / Traditional training can focus on a many types of strength simultaneously.
False. Foundational can only focus on a few simultaneously.
Undulating can focus on many.
127
Skill (Level 3) of the Nesta Pyramid should last for:
A. 1-2 mesoycles
B. 2-3 meocycles
C. 3-4 mesocycles
D. 5 mesocycles
B. 2-3 mesocycles
(which can be 3-9 months long if a mesocycle itself is 1-3 months)
128
True or False:
Skill (Level 3) of the Nesta Pyramid is where training becomes highly specific to reaching specific goal or goals.
False. Level 4 - Peak Performance is where it becomes highly specific.
129
A scale from 1-10 (1 – minimal effort and strain, 10 – maximal effort and strain) for a more accurate assessment of duress.
Borg's Scale of Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE)
130
The “_____________ " applies states that a person must hear about a company or business professional seven times (possi- bly through seven different sources) before response from potential clients/buyers can be expected.
Rule of Seven
131
Exercise psychology is more concerned with ___________, where sports psychology has its’ goals mainly in
A. Weight loss/sport excellence
B. Positive attitude/professional sporting success
C. Positive health outcomes/ performance outcomes
D. Compliance / team excellence
C. Positive health outcomes/ performance outcomes
132
Exercise psychology utilizes a variety of scientific fields, including:
A. Psychology and neuroscience
B. Self-efficacy and self-esteem
C. Physiology
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
133
Proxemics is a term used to describe
A. How people communicate within their personal space.
B. The way we say things, including the pitch, volume, and intonation of speech.
C. Posture, physical appearance, gestures
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
A. How people communicate within their personal space.
134
Disordered eating is more prevalent than eating disorders. This is seen by individuals who
A. Eat the same “safe” food every day
B. Consume less than 1,200 calories / day
C. Compulsive calorie tracking
D. Frequent weigh-ins
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
135
Recovery has three levels:
A. Physical, Social, Environmental
B. Dietary, Focus, Rest
C. Concentration, Diet, Rest
D. Recreation, Diet Sleep
A. Physical, Social, Environmental
136
Successful trainers retain clients by projecting
A. Knowledge
B. Inspiration
C. Encouragement
D. A & C
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
137
The _____________ is a very useful tool to change unhealthy behaviors to healthy ones.
A. Motivation Model
B. Modification Model
C. Transtheoretical Model
D. Transmotivational Model
C. Transtheoretical Model
138
The cooperating trainer’s style is more likely to be seen as a successful trainer. These trainers use
A. Motivation
B. Effective non-verbal communication
C. Reward systems
D. A & B
E. A & C
D. A & B
139
Working with individual clients requires the trainer to identify the specific psychological characteristics of the clients to better design an exercise program. These characteristics include:
A. Identify realistic goals
B. Involve clients’ family
C. Identify stress management skills
D. A & C
E. All of the above
D. A & C
140
____________ / ___________ bonds are powerful when they are functioning properly.
A. Trainer/client
B. Psychologist/patient
C. Therapist/client
A. Trainer/client
141
The relationship dynamic between coach and client are enhanced by:
A. Intrinsic motivation
B. Reinforcement
C. Feedback
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
142
In the USA, it is estimated that nearly ______ million women have eating disorders, where nearly ________ million are men.
A. 20/10
B. 10/1
C. 5/1
D. 1/20
B. 10/1
143
True or False:
Experts in the field of exercise psychology are focused more on interventions that promote physical activity or even the cultural perspectives that also seem to play a role in one’s decision to participate in physical activity programs or exercise regimen.
False
144
According to Anshel, exercise psychology involves the following topics:
A. Exercise dependence/Interventions
B. Motivation/Behavioral strategies
C. Personality traits/ Barriers to exercise
D. A & C
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
145
Motivation has two sources. _________ (people who have their own innate drive to be better) and ____ (derived from the feedback of others)
A. Extrinsic / Intrinsic
B. Intrinsic / Extrinsic
B. Intrinsic / Extrinsic
146
Obesity negatively affects levels of autonomy, self-esteem, and
A. Diet compliance
B. Motivation/Behavioral strategies
C. Ego
D. Success (personal and professional)
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
147
Remember your clients are individuals who deserve
A. Respect
B. Positive feedback
C. Positive co-active relationship
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
148
To avoid the loss of a client due to poor motivation, the trainer should
A. Define personal goals
B. Call the client frequently
C. Avoid basic, generalized goals
D. Remain true to your own personality
E. A, C & D
F. All of the above
E. A, C & D
149
Compliance and adherence are important for a successful client. Compliance is ________ , where adherence is ___________ .
A. Following instructions/not missing appointments
B. Act of complying with a demand/ ability to be consistent with a task
C. Perseverance /limited by goals
B. Act of complying with a demand/ ability to be consistent with a task
150
Locus of control is —
A. Found in the client’s history with previous exercise instruction
B. Are limitations due to physical handicaps
C. How different people perceive their responsibility for reward and punishment
C. How different people perceive their responsibility for reward and punishment
