Exercise Instruction & Safety/Injury Prevention

Question 1

In general, when squatting, the knees should move….

A. Whatever way the client likes
B. With the natural over-pronation of the ankle-foot
C. With the natural under-pronation of the ankle-foot
D. In the same direction as your first and second toes

Answer 1

D. In the same direction as your first and second toes

Question 2

The primary hip extensors in the functional lift (of a squat) are the …

A. Quadriceps
B. Glutes
C. Hamstrings
D. Adductors

Answer 2

B. Glutes

Question 3

When doing a lunge…

A. the movement of the body should continually shift forward into the front leg.
B. it should be thought of as a modified squat.
C. most of the weight should be on the back leg.
D. All of the above

Answer 3

B. it should be thought of as a modified squat.

Question 4

True or False:

Done properly, a reverse lunge may reduce stress on the knee.

Answer 4

True

Question 5

Which of the following are prime movers in the leg extension?

A. Vastus medialis
B. Vastus lateralis
C. Rectus femoris
D. All of the above

Answer 5

A. Vastus medialis
B. Vastus lateralis
C. Rectus femoris
D. All of the above

(Cause those are all Quads!)

Question 6

In the leg extension, the knees…

A. should line up with each other
B. should line up with the axis of the machine
C. should line up in all three planes
D. All of the above

Answer 6

D. All of the above

Question 7

Excessive ____________ can cause a strain on the low back if not properly monitored in the leg curl.

A. Anterior pelvic tilt
B. Posterior pelvic tilt
C. Neutral spine
D. None of the above

Answer 7

A. Anterior pelvic tilt

Question 8

Which of the following muscles is NOT a prime mover in the prone leg curl?

A. Semitendinosus
B. Soleus
C. Biceps femoris
D. Gastrocnemius

Answer 8

B. Soleus

Semitendinosus & Biceps Femoris are Hamstrings.

Gastrocnemius is a calf muscle.

Soleus is a tiny side calf muscle, therefor isn’t the prime mover.

Question 9

Ideally, in the standing calf raise the average person should be able to …

A. achieve 45 degrees of plantar flexion.
B. achieve 45 degrees of dorsiflexion
C. achieve 10 degrees of plantar flexion
D. evert 45 degrees

Answer 9

A. achieve 45 degrees of plantar flexion.

Question 10

What are the prime movers of the standing calf raise?

A. Gastrocnemius
B. Soleus
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

Answer 10

C. All of the above

Soleus (and Gastrocnemius) IS a prime mover here with calf raises!

Question 11

The dumbbell chest press…

A. allows for greater range of motion at the shoulder than the barbell bench press.
B. allows for greater range of motion at the elbow than the barbell bench press.
C. loads the pectorals greatest at the top of the range of motion.
D. All of the above.

Answer 11

A. allows for greater range of motion at the shoulder than the barbell bench press.

Question 12

Which of the following would be an antagonist in the dumbbell chest press?

A.Pectoralis major
B. Posterior deltoid
C. Triceps brachii
DAnterior deltoid

Answer 12

B. Posterior deltoid

Question 13

During the dumbbell row, to optimally engage the latissimus dorsi the path of motion…

A. should be straight up.
B. should be in an arc towards the shoulder.
C. should be such that the forearm stays in line with gravity.
Ddoesn’t matter.

Answer 13

C. should be such that the forearm stays in line with gravity.

Question 14

In the dumbbell row, scapular retraction…

A. is done by the pectoralis minor.
B. Should always proceed shoulder extension.
C. should naturally follow shoulder extension.
D. None of the above

Answer 14

B. Should always proceed shoulder extension.

Question 15

In the lat pulldown, pulling the bar behind the neck …

A. Optimally trains the back muscles
B. Can put undue stress on the shoulder
C. Lines the direction of resistance optimally for the latissimus dorsi
D. Mimics a proper pull-up

Answer 15

B. Can put undue stress on the shoulder

Question 16

In the lat pulldown, the latissimus dorsi…

A. extends the shoulder
B. adducts the shoulder
C. internally rotates the shoulder
D. All of the above

Answer 16

D. All of the above

Question 17

In order to best emphasize the middle deltoid in the lateral raise …

A.most clients will need to lean forward a few degrees.
B. the trainer should position the line of the pull of the middle deltoid to oppose the direction of resistance.
C. the dumbbells should NOT come together at the bottom ROM.
D. All of the above

Answer 17

B. the trainer should position the line of the pull of the middle deltoid to oppose the direction of resistance.

Question 18

The lateral raise is the best shoulder exercise.

A. True, because it targets all three heads of the deltoid through a full ROM.
B. False, the shoulder press is the best because it targets all three heads of the deltoid through a full ROM.
C. False, no exercise can target all three heads of the deltoid through a full ROM.
D. True, because it gives the best definition.

Answer 18

C. False, no exercise can target all three heads of the deltoid through a full ROM.

Question 19

When doing a straight barbell biceps curl, the proper grip width is …

A. narrow – to target the short head of the biceps.
B. determined by the carrying angle of the individual.
C. wide – to target the long head of the biceps.
D. based only on comfort

Answer 19

B. determined by the carrying angle of the individual.

Question 20

The biceps brachii is/are a …

A. elbow flexor.
B. shoulder flexor.
C. forearm supinator.
D. All of the above

Answer 20

D. All of the above

Question 21

In a triceps pushdown, wrist/forearm position …

A. will not dramatically affect the triceps.
B. will work the triceps best if in a supinated position.
C. will work the triceps best if in a pronated position.
D. will emphasize the long head if in a pronated position.

Answer 21

A. will not dramatically affect the triceps.

Question 22

In a triceps pushdown …

A. the shoulder girdle should be protracted through the ROM.
B. the path of motion is straight down.
C. the hands will move in an arc.
D. shoulders should be allowed to horizontally adduct through a full ROM.

Answer 22

C. the hands will move in an arc.

Question 23

Compared to a bench, crunches done on the ball …

A. allow for greater ROM.
B. have greater load on the abdominals in spinal extension.
C. challenges stabilization to a much greater extent.
D. All of the above.

Answer 23

D. All of the above.

Question 24

In the hyperextension bench, the _____________ work as hip extensors.

A. Glutes
B. Hamstrings
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

Answer 24

C. Both of the above

Question 25

When one enters spinal flexion in the downward movement in the hyperextension bench exercise … A. the erector spinae are eccentrically controlling spinal flexion. B. the rectus abdominis is concentrically flexing the spine. C. the hamstrings are controlling spinal flexion. D. All of the above

Answer 25

A. the erector spinae are eccentrically controlling spinal flexion.

Question 26

What is the eye position in relation to a racked bar when initially positioning a client on the bench press? A. 3 inches behind the bar B. Under the bar C. 3 inches in front of the bar D. It doesn’t matter

Answer 26

B. Under the bar

Question 27

The grip width on the bench press … A. depends on the person. B. depends on the goal. C. can be the cause of shoulder pain if not aligned properly. D. All of the above.

Answer 27

D. All of the above.

Question 28

Compared to a low-bar squat, a high-bar squat will …. A. emphasize the quadriceps. B. emphasize the posterior chain. C. emphasize the glutes. D. put more load on the low back.

Answer 28

A. emphasize the quadriceps.

Question 29

In the upward motion of a barbells squat… A. the hips start to extend first. B. the knees start to expand first. C. the hips and knees extend at the same time. D. All of the above.

Answer 29

C. the hips and knees extend at the same time.

Question 30

In a conventional deadlift …. A. the feet are narrow – hip width. B. the feet are in an athletic width (shoulder width). C. the feet are wider than shoulder width. D. the feet are externally rotated 45 degrees.

Answer 30

B. the feet are in an athletic width (shoulder width).

Question 31

In the sumo deadlift … A. the trunk is upright. B. emphasizes the quadriceps more than the conventional lift. C. may be ideal for some individuals but not others. D. All of the above.

Answer 31

D. All of the above.

Question 32

In the second pull of an olympic lift, triple extension refers to extension of … A. vertebrae, knees, and hips. B. ankles, knees, and hips. C. knees, ankles, and vertebrae. D. hips, vertebrae, and ankles.

Answer 32

B. ankles, knees, and hips.

Question 33

Which of the following is not part of the -step progression shown to teach the Olympic lifts? A. The Start B. The Jump Pull C. The Olympic Row D. The RDL (Romanian Deadlift)

Answer 33

D. The RDL

Question 34

In a kettlebell deadlift… A. knees hinge forward first. B. hips hinge back first. C. the upper traps will shrug at the top. D. None of the above.

Answer 34

B. hips hinge back first.

Question 35

In the kettlebell swing… A. the shoulders lift the kettlebell at the top ROM. B. one should have 45 degrees of knee flexion. C. the kettlebell should “float” up due to momentum created by hip extension. D. All of the above.

Answer 35

C. the kettlebell should “float” up due to momentum created by hip extension.

Question 36

____________ is defined as a late stage of frostbite; core body temperature drops. A. Hypofusion B. Hyperthermal C. Hypothermia D. Hyperthermia

Answer 36

C. Hypothermia

Question 37

A _______________ is the result of blood pooling around the site of an injury, usually a blunt force to tissues. A. sprain B. concussion C. contusion D. hematocrit

Answer 37

C. contusion

Question 38

While implementing PRICE, a PFT may need to use ___________ in the first 48 hours of a musculoskeletal injury. A. Ice B. Heat C. Myofascial release D. Topical analgesics

Answer 38

A. Ice

Question 39

A blood pressure reading below normal values (approx. <90/60) is known as ________ . A. hydrolysis B. hyperplasia C. hypertension D. hypotension

Answer 39

D. hypotension

Question 40

If your client experiences excessive thirst, this could be an indicator of ___________. A. underhydration B. dehydration C. diabetes D. All of the above

Answer 40

D. All of the above

Question 41

The condition whereby HR is unusually slow is called _____________; the opposite, a racing HR, is known as ___________ . A. Mitral valve prolapse; congestive heart failure B. Pericarditis; COPD C. Bradycardia; tachycardia D. Myocardial infarction; mitral valve prolapse