Assignment 1 REVISION Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a reason why organizations develop and abide by values to create an organizational culture and to define a consistent approach for dealing with the needs of their stakeholders, i.e. shareholders, employees, customers, suppliers, and the community?

A. Avoiding unfavourable and favourable publicity.
B. Gaining the goodwill of the community and society.
C. Creating an organization that operates consistently.
D. Protecting the organization from legal action

A

C. Creating an organization that operates consistently.

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2
Q

The specific responsibilities of the ethics officer is trying to establish an environment that encourages ethical decision making are:

A. Ensuring compliance with ethical procedures as well as creating and maintaining the ethics culture envisioned by the lowest level of corporate authority.
B. Creating and maintaining the ethics culture envisioned by the lowest level of corporate authority and serving as the key contact person for ethics issues.
C. Ensuring compliance with ethical procedures as well as serving as the key contact person for ethics issues.
D. A, B, and C are correct.

A

C. Ensuring compliance with ethical procedures as well as serving as the key contact person for ethics issues.

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3
Q

Expanding and changing systems introduce new risks: IT organizations must:

A. Keep up with technological change and implement approaches for dealing with new risks.
B. Perform ongoing security assessments and implement approaches for dealing with new risks.
C. Keep up with technological change and perform ongoing security assessments.
D. Keep up with technological change, perform ongoing security assessments and implement approaches for dealing with new risks.

A

D. Keep up with technological change, perform ongoing security assessments, and implement approaches for dealing with new risks

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4
Q

An employee or contractor who attempts to gain financially and/or disrupt a company’s information systems.

A

Malicious insider

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5
Q

Someone who attempts to destroy government infrastructure, financial institutions, and other corporations, utilities, and emergency response units.

A

Cyberterrorist

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6
Q

An individual who captures trade secrets to gain an unfair competitive advantage.

A

Industrial spy

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7
Q

Someone who violates computer or Internet security maliciously or for illegal personal gain.

A

Black hat hacker

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8
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the reason why social networking companies cannot be sued for defamation for user postings that appear on their sites?

A. The Communications Decency Act (CDA) uses a vague definition of indecency.
B. The Communications Decency Act (CDA) is not applicable to social networking sites.
C. Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act (CDA) is not considered unconstitutional.
D. Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act (CDA) does not provide immunity to an Internet service provider (ISP)

A

C. Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act (CDA) is not considered unconstitutional.

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is/are true of Children’s Internet Protection Act (CIPA)?

A. CIPA requires federally financed schools to use some form of technological protection to block computer access to obscene material.
B. In case of CIPA, Congress specifically defined what content or Web sites should be forbidden and the measures to be used.
C. In June 2004, the Supreme Court ruling in the case of Ashcroft v. American Civil Liberties Union made it clear that CIPA was unconstitutional.
D. CIPA requires the tracking of Internet use by minors or adults.

A

A. CIPA requires federally financed schools to use some form of technological protection to block computer access to obscene material.

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10
Q

In the context of Capability Maturity Model Integration, process is ad hoc and chaotic; organization tends to overcommit, and processes are often abandoned during times of crisis in which of the following maturity levels?

A. quantitatively managed
B. managed
C. defined
D. initial

A

D. Initial

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11
Q

The advantages of the Agile development methodology are:

A. It is an intense process that takes considerable time and effort on the part of project members and can result in burnout for system developers and other project participants.
B. Forces teamwork and lots of interaction between users and project stakeholders so that users are more likely to get a system that meets their needs.
C. For appropriate projects, this approach puts an application into production sooner.
D. Both B and C are correct.

A

D. Both B and C are correct.

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12
Q

Which of the following is/are an advantage(s) of social network advertising over traditional advertising media?

A. ads can be targeted to reach people with the desired demographic characteristics and a cost-effective, when compared to traditional advertising media.
B. ads can be targeted to reach people with the desired demographic characteristics and ad viewers can easily identify useful contacts.
C. it is cost-effective when compared to traditional advertising media and ad viewers can easily identify useful contacts.
D. ads can be targeted to reach people with the desired demographic characteristics.

A

D.ads can be targeted to reach people with the desired demographic characteristics.

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13
Q

The two primary objectives of social media advertisers are driving traffic to a Web site to increase product sales and which of the following?

A. tailor a particular social media platform.
B. raise brand awareness.
C. create a conversation with viewers.
D reach people with desired characteristics.

A

B. raise brand awareness

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14
Q

Important business-technology decisions with strong ethical implications are too often left to the technical experts to decide.

A

True

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15
Q

Multinational and global organizations must not present a consistent face to their shareholders, customers, and suppliers but instead must operate with a different value system in each country they do business in.

A

False

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16
Q

A spear-phishing attack typically employs a group of zombies to keep the target so busy responding to a stream of automated requests that legitimate users cannot access the target.

A

False

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17
Q

Bring your own device (BYOD) is a business policy that permits, and in some cases encourages, employees to use their own mobile devices (smartphones, tablets, or laptops) to access company computing resources and applications.

18
Q

Messages whose primary purpose is to communicate information about a specific transaction are subject to the Controlling the Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing (CAN-SPAM) Act.

19
Q

The plaintiff in a strategic lawsuit against public participation (SLAPP) can present themselves to the court admitting that their intent is to censor their critics.

20
Q

A primary cause of poor software quality is that developers do not know how to design quality into software from the very start, or do not take the time to do so.

21
Q

Software suppliers attempt to limit their liability by specifying that although software is warranted to run on a given machine configuration, no assurance is given as to what that software will do.

22
Q

Different types of social media are blogs, discussion forums, media-sharing networks, wikis, social bookmarking tools, social messaging apps, and social networking, news, and shopping platforms.

23
Q

Organic media marketing involves the use of social networks to communicate and promote the benefits of products and services.

24
Q

A(n) _____ is a statement that highlights an organization’s key ethical issues and identifies the overarching values and principles that are important to the organization and its decision making.

A

Code of ethics

25
____________means that shareholders, customers, suppliers, and the community know what they can expect of an organization-that it will behave in the future much as it has in the past.
Consistency
26
The concept of _____ recognizes that managers must use their judgment to ensure that the cost of control does not exceed the system’s benefits or the risks involved.
Reasonable assurance
27
Requiring users to enter a username and password; insert a smart card and enter the associated PIN; or provide a fingerprint, voice pattern sample, or retina scan are all examples of _____.
Authentic methods
28
A _____ is employed by corporations, government officials, and others against citizens and community groups who oppose them on matters of public interest.
Strategic Lawsuit Against Participation (SLAPP)
29
The _____, which was signed into law in 1998, provides limitations on the liability of an ISP for copyright infringement that can arise when an ISP subscriber posts copyrighted material such as audio tracks, videos, books, and news articles on the Internet.
Digital Millenium Copyright Act (DMCA)
30
_____ is an approach to minimizing the impact of software errors by independently implementing the same set of user requirements N times
N-version programming
31
A common way for an individual or an organization to accomplish risk _____ is to purchase auto or business liability insurance.
Transference
32
_____ refers to the media exposure an organization gets through press and social media mentions, positive online ratings, and reviews, tweets and retweets, reposts (or “shares”), recommendations.
Earned media
33
____ is any form of mistreatment or lack of care, both physical and mental, based on the use of an electronic communications device that causes harm and distress to others
Cyberabuse,cyberharrassment,cyberstalking
34
An overwhelmed employee You are the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of a midsized manufacturing firm with annual revenue exceeding R100 million. You have heard nothing but positive comments about the new Chief Information Officer (CIO) you hired three months ago. As you listen to her outline what needs to be done to improve the firm’s computer security, you are impressed with her energy, enthusiasm, and presentation skills. However, your jaw drops when she states that the total cost of the proposed computer security improvements will be R250,000. This seems like a lot of money for security, given that your firm has had no major incident. Several other items in the budget will either have to be dropped or trimmed back to accommodate such an expenditure. In addition, the R250,000 is above your spending authorization and will require approval by the CEO. This will require you to defend the expenditure, and you are not sure how to do this. As you look around the conference room, you can see that other members of your staff are just as surprised as you. What serious mistake has the CIO made and how could this have been avoided?
Discuss
35
Define computer forensics and briefly describe how one may prepare for a role as a computer forensics investigator.
Define
36
Briefly explain why many organizations are choosing to outsource their network security operations to a managed security service provider (MSSP).
The organizations may choose to outsource network service operations to an MSSP because 1. Hiring an MSSP will save the organization time and money they would use to hire and train experienced security specialists. 2. An outsourced MSSP will have all the necessary hardware and software that is needed for security since the MSSP specializes in it.
37
How can speech be considered obscene and not protected under the First Amendment?
Speech is obscene if it describes sexual conduct clearly in an offensive way. If it lacks serious study or gives any political or scientific value. If it appeals to the prurient interest in sex.
38
What actions could an ISP take to censor the flow of information from you to others? What might motivate an ISP to take these actions?
DNS Tampering- IP Blocking- Keyword filtering- involves blocking certain words Packet filtering-
39
What are the standards that the warranty of merchantability requires to be met?
Define
40
Outline some specific actions to take if you are a victim of cyberstalking.
Define