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Pharmacology Test #2 > Assignment > Flashcards

Assignment Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the role of neurotransmitters?

a. They only bridge the communication pathway from the Peripheral Nervous System to terminal sensory ganglia
b. They mostly bridge the communication pathway only in the Central Nervous System
c. They mostly bridge the communication pathway, across the synaptic cleft, from a preganglionic neuron to a postganglionic neuron
d. They mostly bridge the communication pathway, across the synaptic cleft, from a postganglionic neuron to preganglionic neurons

A

c. They mostly bridge the communication pathway, across the synaptic cleft, from a preganglionic neuron to a postganglionic neuron

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the distinguishing roles of the Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Nervous system divisions?

a. The somatic system is largely concerned with movement, respiration and posture
b. The Enteric Nervous System is receives input from both the Sympathetic and Parasympathetic divisions
c. The somatic system is largely concerned with unconscious functions
d. The Cardiac system is innervated by the sympathetic division

A

c. The somatic system is largely concerned with unconscious functions

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3
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the Anatomy of the Autonomic Nervous System is FALSE?

a. Afferent nerves transmit feedback impulses to the CNS
b. Efferent nerves transmit feedback impulses to the CNS
c. Afferent feedback modulates CNS input to efferent nerves
d. Efferent nerves consists of both preganglionic and postganglionic nerves

A

b. Efferent nerves transmit feedback impulses to the CNS

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Acetylcholine’s action?

a. It activates Sympathetic Norepinephrine release
b. It is released and interacts with Adrenergic receptors
c. It is released into the synaptic cleft between somatic fibers and skeletal muscle
d. It attaches to Parasympathetic Nicotinic receptors

A

b. It is released and interacts with Adrenergic receptors

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5
Q

The release if Acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is dependent on which of the following substances?

a. Oxygen
b. Nitric oxide
c. Calcium
d. Sodium

A

c. Calcium

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6
Q

Sympathetic postganglionic adrenergic nerve fibers are responsible for which of the following reactions?

a. Dilates pupils and bronchioles and increases blood flow to skeletal muscle
b. Increases blood flow to skin and viscera
c. Decreases energy stores and glycolysis
d. Constricts pupils and bronchioles and decreases blood flow to skeletal muscle

A

a. Dilates pupils and bronchioles and increases blood flow to skeletal muscle

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7
Q

Please complete this sentence and choose the best statement: The Parasympathetic Nervous System “…”

a. “…Inhibits aldosterone secretion to increase urine outflow and decrease intravascular volume”
b. “…Stimulates aldosterone secretion to decrease urine outflow and increase intravascular volume”
c. “…increases inotropic cardiac activity and vascular resistance”
d. “…increases venous tone and heart rate”

A

b. “…Stimulates aldosterone secretion to decrease urine outflow and increase intravascular volume”

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8
Q

Which of the following substances is responsible for terminating Acetylcholine’s action?

a. Transferase
b. Acetylcholinesterase
c. Calcium
d. Nitric Oxide

A

b. Acetylcholinesterase

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9
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the termination processes of Norepinephrine’s action?

a. Metabolized by Monoamine oxidase
b. Reuptake, by the Norepinephrine Transporter, is blocked
c. Reuptake into terminal by Norepinephrine Transporter
d. Diffused away from receptor and metabolized

A

b. Reuptake, by the Norepinephrine Transporter, is blocked

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10
Q

A cholinoceptor’s role in ANS processes refers to which of the following?

a. Binding of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
b. Binding of β1 and β2-adrenoceptors
c. Binding of adrenergic and dopamine receptors
d. Binding of α1 and α2-adrenoceptors

A

a. Binding of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

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11
Q

Which of the following receptor is most predominant in Brain tissue?

a. Nicotinic
b. Beta
c. Alpha
d. Dopamine

A

d. Dopamine

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12
Q

Hepatic Gluconeogenesis is modulated by which of the following ANS receptors?

a. M3
b. β 3, α3
c. β 2, α
d. D5

A

c. β 2, α

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13
Q

The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS may work in tandem for which of the following purposes?

a. To prevent homeostatic imbalance
b. To block postsynaptic regulation
c. To inhibit presynaptic regulation
d. To increase effector organ function’s window of tolerance

A

a. To prevent homeostatic imbalance

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14
Q

Which of the following examples best describes autoreceptor regulation?

a. Noradrenergic α2 receptor block by enzymatic processes
b. Noradrenergic α2 receptor binding by catalytic enzymes
c. Noradrenergic α2 receptor stimulation that results in activation-induced reduction in noradrenergic release
d. Noradrenergic α2 receptor inhibition that results in activation-induced reduction in noradrenergic release

A

d. Noradrenergic α2 receptor inhibition that results in activation-induced reduction in noradrenergic release

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15
Q

Please complete this sentence: A clinical consequence of the chronic use of a drug (drug X) that blocks adrenergic receptors to a particular neurotransmitter is…?

a. An exaggerated response to the neurotransmitter when drug X is discontinued
b. A decreased response to the neurotransmitter when drug X is discontinued
c. An exaggerated response to presynaptic Bretylium and guanethidine
d. An inhibitory response to post synaptic potentials

A

a. An exaggerated response to the neurotransmitter when drug X is discontinued

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16
Q

Neurotransmitters can be affected by specific drugs in which of the following ways?

a. Alteration of direction of action potential
b. Alteration of the synaptic cleft
c. Alteration of neurotransmitter receptors
d. Alteration of axonal-dendritic arborization

A

c. Alteration of neurotransmitter receptors

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17
Q

Which of the following response would be expected from a cholinesterase inhibitor?

a. Permanent destruction of acetylcholine receptors
b. Increased acetylcholine
c. No change in acetylcholine
d. Decreased acetylcholine

A

b. Increased acetylcholine

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18
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the role of Muscarinic Receptors and autonomic effector tissue response?

a. M2 and M4 have no role in autonomic effector response
b. M2 and M4 lead to cellular excitation
c. M1, M3 and M5 lead to cellular excitation
d. M1, M3 and M5 inhibits cellular excitation

A

c. M1, M3 and M5 lead to cellular excitation

19
Q

Which of the following receptors and target tissues respond to Nicotinic Alkaloid?

a. Heart and smooth muscle
b. Neuromuscular end plate and skeletal muscle
c. Glands and endothelium
d. Skin and fatty tissue

A

b. Neuromuscular end plate and skeletal muscle

20
Q

The action of the norepinephrine transporter can be blocked by which of the following drugs?

a. Guanethidine
b. Cocaine
c. Reserpine
d. Botulinum toxin

A

b. Cocaine

21
Q

The main effect, caused by Cholinomimetics, on the Genitourinary (GU) system, in a patient with urinary retention, is best explained by which of the following mechanisms?

a. Contracts the trigone and sphincter muscles and relaxes the detrusor muscle
b. Relaxes the trigone, sphincter and detrusor muscles
c. Contracts the trigone, sphincter and detrusor muscles
d. Relaxes the trigone and sphincter muscles and contracts the detrusor muscle

A

d. Relaxes the trigone and sphincter muscles and contracts the detrusor muscle

22
Q

A 42 year-old farmer presents to your office with muscle weakness, spasms and paresis, difficulty with walking, speaking and swallowing, miosis, excessive salivation, lacrimation, bronchial secretions with shortness of breath (SOB), uncontrollable diarrhea and voiding, hypotensive with bradycardia. Which of the following is the most likely cause of your patient’s symptoms?

a. Exposure to norepinephrine insecticides
b. Exposure to wife’s Beta agonist medication
c. Exposure to farm animals’ secretions
d. Exposure to organophosphate insecticide

A

d. Exposure to organophosphate insecticide

23
Q

The treatment of choice for a patient who comes in with generalized weakness of limbs, respiratory and ocular muscles, ptosis and difficulty speaking would be which of the following?

a. Organophosphates
b. Echothiophate
c. Nicotine
d. Neostigmine

A

d. Neostigmine

24
Q

Atropine and scopolamine are examples of which of the following Rx classes?

a. Nicotinic neuromuscular blockers
b. Cholinomimetics
c. Sympathomimetics
d. Muscarinic parasympatholytics

A

d. Muscarinic parasympatholytics

25
Q

Organ systems most affected by Atropine and its derivatives include which of the following groups?

a. Eye, Cardiovascular, Genitourinary
b. Lymphatics
c. Dermatologic, muscular
d. Hair follicles, nail beds

A

a. Eye, Cardiovascular, Genitourinary

26
Q

Which of the following drugs might you consider in a patient with Parkinson’s Disease?

a. Benztropine
b. Succinylcholine
c. Scopolamine
d. Atropine

A

a. Benztropine

27
Q

The use of antimuscarinics must be avoided in which of the following patients?

a. Asthmatic with excessive secretions
b. Uncontrolled narrow angle glaucoma
c. In the ophthalmic use to induce mydriasis
d. Bradycardic

A

b. Uncontrolled narrow angle glaucoma

28
Q

A patient who presents with urinary incontinence might do well with which of the following medications?

a. Echothiophate
b. Oxybutynin
c. Pilocarpine
d. Ipratropium

A

b. Oxybutynin

29
Q

In a patient whom you are suspecting cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning, which of the following agents would be the best treatment choice?

a. Dicyclomine
b. Atropine
c. Oxybutynin
d. Ipratropium

A

b. Atropine

30
Q

A patient who presents with dry mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention and fecal incontinence and is on an unknown medication may be on which of the following drug classes?

a. Direct acting nicotinic agonist
b. Anticholinergics
c. Cholinesterase inhibitor
d. Cholinergics

A

b. Anticholinergics

31
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding dopamine’s action on receptors?

a. D2 receptor is found in renal vascular smooth muscle that corresponds to vascular constriction
b. D2 receptor is found in renal vascular smooth muscle that corresponds to vascular dilation
c. D1 receptor is found in renal vascular smooth muscle that corresponds to vascular constriction
d. D1 receptor is found in renal vascular smooth muscle that corresponds to vascular dilation

A

d. D1 receptor is found in renal vascular smooth muscle that corresponds to vascular dilation

32
Q

The function of Alpha 2 receptors is represented in which of the following statements?

a. Stimulates cardiac inotropy and excitability
b. Stimulates the release of norepinephrine and insulin
c. Inhibits the release of norepinephrine and insulin
d. Stimulates cardiac chronotropy and dromotropy

A

c. Inhibits the release of norepinephrine and insulin

33
Q

A 12 year-old girl presents to your office with a new onset of allergic induced asthma. Which of the following drug classes would be most efficacious in controlling her condition?

a. Beta 2 agonist
b. Dopamine 2 agonist
c. Alpha 1 agonist
d. Beta 1 antagonist

A

a. Beta 2 agonist

34
Q

Dopamine, has which of the following effects on adrenergic receptors?

a. Adrenergic receptors do not respond to dopamine stimulation
b. At moderate doses has no effect on Beta or Alpha receptors
c. At moderate doses can effect Beta and higher doses effect Alpha receptors
d. Dopamine only interacts with dopaminergic receptors

A

c. At moderate doses can effect Beta and higher doses effect Alpha receptors

35
Q

Which of the following drug classes would have the potential to worsen your diabetic patient’s hyperglycemia?

a. Dopamine 4 and beta 1 agonists
b. Alpha 3 and 4 agonists
c. Alpha 1 , 2 agonists, beta 2
d. Dopamine 1 and 2

A

c. Alpha 1 , 2 agonists, beta 2

36
Q

A hypotensive patient, who is being treated in the Intensive Coronary Unit (ICU), has been placed on a Dopamine IV infusion. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Dopamine infusion and the cardiovascular response?

a. A low infusion rate increases vasoconstriction
b. Dopamine has no effects on cardiovascular receptors
c. A high infusion rate increases vasoconstriction
d. Dopamine infusion rates have no effect on the cardiovascular system

A

c. A high infusion rate increases vasoconstriction

37
Q

A patient with dangerous hypotension that is progressing to imminent cardiac shock and arrest, might be best treated with which of the following medications?

a. Clonidine
b. Fenoldopam
c. Isoproterenol
d. Bromocriptine

A

c. Isoproterenol

38
Q

A patient with chronic orthostatic hypotension, due to impaired autonomic reflexes, may be best treated with which of the following medications?

a. Fenoldopam
b. Midodrine
c. Clonidine
d. Dobutamine

A

b. Midodrine

39
Q

Please complete this sentence: “The drug, Modafinil, is useful for the treatment of narcoplesy because…”

a. “It has an alerting action, that affects the CNS and cardio-respiratory centers that inhibits deoxygenation throughout the day.”
b. “It has the ability to deepen sleep and dreaming quality, this reducing the tendency to “day-dream.”
c. “It has an alerting, sleep deferring action that improves attention to repetitive tasks.”
d. “It has the ability to deepen sleep quality, thus, improving alertness.”

A

c. “It has an alerting, sleep deferring action that improves attention to repetitive tasks.”

40
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the cardiovascular effect of Alpha1 receptor Antagonists?

a. Stimulates vasodilation, decreases peripheral resistance and blood pressure and can cause reflex tachycardia and postural (orthostatic) hypotension
b. Stimulates vasodilation, increases peripheral resistance and blood pressure and can cause reflex tachycardia and postural (orthostatic) hypotension
c. Stimulates vasodilation, increases peripheral resistance and blood pressure and can cause hypertensive crisis
d. Stimulates vasoconstriction, decreases peripheral resistance and blood pressure

A

a. Stimulates vasodilation, decreases peripheral resistance and blood pressure and can cause reflex tachycardia and postural (orthostatic) hypotension

41
Q

Which of the following drugs is to be avoided in a patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

a. Acebutolol
b. Atenolol
c. Propranolol
d. Metoprolol

A

c. Propranolol

42
Q

Beta antagonists exert an antihypertensive by which of the following mechanisms?

a. Renin is not involved in intra-arterial pressure control
b. Deceases renin secretion
c. Has no effect on renin secretion
d. Increase in renin secretion

A

b. Deceases renin secretion

43
Q

Please complete the sentence: “Beta blockers are used in the treatment of glaucoma because of their…”

a. Ability to increase tear production
b. Ability to decrease tear production
c. Ability to decrease aqueous humor production
d. Ability to increase aqueous humor production

A

c. Ability to decrease aqueous humor production

44
Q

Which of the following are correct regarding clinical use of Beta Antagonists (Blocker)?

a. Most beta blockers are poorly metabolized excreted unchanged in the urine
b. Beta blockers are self-metabolizing and need little clinical monitoring
c. Tapering is not essential once discontinued since the half-life is long enough
d. Tapering is essential to avoid rebound cardiac ischemia

A

d. Tapering is essential to avoid rebound cardiac ischemia

Pharmacology Test #2 (7 decks)

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