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ATP AL 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Under the Civil Aviation Act 18, what does the term Authority apply to?

A

The Civil Aviation Authority

-Section 18 CAAct

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2
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for a Cat C Aicraft in a turn during an Instrument Departure?

A

265kts,

91.413

*Cat B 165kts

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3
Q

What services are provided in Class F airspace?

A

Uncontrolled Airspace. IFR receives advisory service and all other flights (VFR) receive flight information service on request.

71.111

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4
Q

What is the maximum speed permitted below 10,000ft in Class F airspace?

A

250kts

91.237

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5
Q

What is the VFR visibility requirement in Class C airspace below 10,000ft?

A

5km

91.301 Table 4

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6
Q

In an ETOPS operation under Part 121, what are the requirements for a take off below the IAP minima

A

There must be a suitable alternate aerodrome within 1 hr at single engine speed (or 2 hours if 3 or 4 engine aircraft)

121.161

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7
Q

For a flight under IFR without a requirement for an alternate, fuel to fly for_____ minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above the destination is required.

A

45mins

91.403

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8
Q

Which of the following best describes the holding pattern at PRE (paper)

*See page 9 POM ILS holding ILS RWY 14 IAL Chart

A

The 322 radial between 9 & 14 DME with a 1 min right hand pattern

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9
Q

When can a visual approach be requested to RW14 by day

A

By day, within 30nm, +5km vis, able to maintain continuous visual reference with the surface.

By night, within the circling area or 5nm with approach lights visible or 7nm established on ILS

91.423

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10
Q

Established on the Glide Slope, what should your altitude be when crossing the final approach fix (FAF)

A

1400ft (ref glide slope check)
IAL Chart IAL7.3

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11
Q

At which point should the missed approach be initiated?

A

450ft, the DH using Moresby QNH
(Disregard subtracting 100ft for actual QNH)
IAL Chart, AIP FLT SUP 5.3

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12
Q

A survival kit appropriate to the terrain over which the aircraft is operated must be carried in all aircraft in addition to the survival kit, in an aicraft with 72 seats of which 44 are booked, how many first aid kits must be carried?

A

2 first aid kits

91.523

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13
Q

In a Part 121 operation, what is the minimum number of flight attendants that can be carried in an aicraft with 283seats but carrying only 140 passengers.

A

6 flight attendants

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14
Q

When an aircraft is returned to service from maintenance, who is responsible for completing the logbooks and the tech log?

A

The engineer

43.101 and 91.617

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15
Q

Can you operate and electric shaver on an IFR flight?

A

Yes

91.7

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16
Q

Can radioactive products be carried in a passenger compartment?

A

Yes, if contained in an “Excepted package” under the technical instructions

92.9

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17
Q

Which of the listed items are not classified as dangerous goods?

A

Flares packs in the life rafts

Part 92

*The choices are explosives, gas lighters etc

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18
Q

An aircraft with a Vat of 98kts would be in which category and what would its required final approach speed be?

A

Cat B

85-130kts

91.423

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19
Q

In an aircraft able to maintain more than 1000ft AGL with the critical engine inoperative, when must the life rafts be carried for all occupants?

A

200nm off the shore

91.525

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20
Q

When can you descend below the MDA during a circling approach?

A

When the aircraft is positioned for a normal approach with normal approach end of the runway in sight at all times

91.423

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21
Q

What is the definition of the threshold under Part 121 operations?

A

When the approach on the final clear of obstacles intersects the runway at 1:20

121.3

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22
Q

What is the maximum holding speed for all categories of aircraft at or below 14,000ft

A

230kts

91.421

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23
Q

Can loaded firearms be carried by passengers?

A

Yes, by police or specified personnel if carrying our police work or military operations

91.9

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24
Q

If not away from home base where a pilot’s logbook is normally kept, within what period of time must the entries be completed?

A

Within 7 days

61.25

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25
Q

When landing on a contaminated runway, the landing distance required must be increased by what factor?

A

115% of the dry requirement

121.223

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26
Q

Quick donning oxygen masks are required in pressurised aircraft when operating above what altitude?

A

FL250

91.535

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27
Q

Who is responsible for recording and monitoring the flight and duty times of the crew members?

A

The crew members and the certificate holder

122.53, 122.103/105, 122.51c

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28
Q

An aircraft’s altimeter should be set to 1013.2 to cruise in which of the following levels?

A

At or above FL210

91.239

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29
Q

The details of an accident must be reported to CAA by whom and within that time?

A

By the PIC (or the Operator if PIC is unable) within 10 days

12.53

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30
Q

When can an aircraft operate in a danger area?

A

Whenever the pilot feels it is safe to do so and it will not affect the flight.

91.129

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31
Q

Under part 121 operations, which of the listed items is true about the load manifest (ie, who signs it)?

A

Required for each flight and signed by the PIC

121.307

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32
Q

Within what distance of an aerodrome is a pilot permitted to operate under night VMC

A

Within 5nm of the aerodrome of departure

91.301

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33
Q

Within what time period is an alternate required if the forecast cloud and/or visibility are below specified alternate minima?

A

If the ETA is within 30 mins before, during or 30 mins after the forecast period of deterioration.

91.405

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34
Q

What is the duration of a Class 1 Medical Certificate for a pilot aged less than 40 years

A

12 months

40-60 is 6 months
40-60, 6 months can be extended to 12 months in a multi crew environment

67.57

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35
Q

In an area with terrain in excess of 10,000ft, what is the obstacle clearance for IFR?
(Vert and hori margins)

A

2000ft vertically
5nm horizontally

91.417

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36
Q

What transponder code should be used following a comms failure?

A

7600

91.437 and 91.249 Table 3

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37
Q

What action should be taken following a transponder failure in controlled airspace?

A

Request from ATC to proceed to destination (including via mid points if req’d) or to a repair facility and follow ATC instructions

91.249

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38
Q

What is the maximum number of passenger seats permitted for single engine IFR under part 125?

A

14 excluding any required crew member seat

125.9

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39
Q

What are the lighting requirements for an alternate aerodrome at night?

A

Must have stby power for the lights

91.405

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40
Q

If a deviation is made from an ATC clearance due to immediate weather avoidance, what action must be taken?

A

Take whatever action is required and notify ATC as soon as practical

91.241

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41
Q

ATC Light Signals

91.243 Table 1

A

See page 42 or Part 91.243

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42
Q

What is the definition of a passenger under Part 121

A

Any person carried on board the aircraft other than a crew member

Definitions Part 121

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43
Q

What area the Special VFR mínimas

A

By day only, 600ft and 1500mtrs

91.303

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44
Q

What are the GPS/NPA alternate minima

A

LSALT +500ft final route segment and 8km vis

91.405

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45
Q

What are the minimum PIC reqs for an ATPL

A

1500 ttl time
500 in type of operation
100 IF (at least 50 real)
100 night

121.505/509

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46
Q

Aircraft with more than 30 seats need how many life rafts when more than 200nm from land?

A

Must cater for all passengers and crew + enough capacity if one raft is lost

91.525

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47
Q

What is the ETOPS requirement for 2 engine out performance for aircraft with 3 or 4 engines

A

Within 90 mins of a suitable aerodrome

2 eng out must maintain 2000ft AGL withing 10nm (5nm if using navaids)

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48
Q

May a VFR equipped aircraft fly above broken cloud for 20 mins?

A

No, VFR (CHTR/RPT) above broken conditions unless IFR capable crew and aircraft single engine capability to maintain 1000ft above cloud

IFR radio equipped

Fuel to go IFR if required

121.155 and 125.115

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49
Q

IFR Holding Patterns Speeds

A

14000 - 230
14to20k - 240
20to34k - 265
+34k - 0.83

91.421 Table 8

50
Q

Definition of Instrument time including instrument flight time and IF in a mechanical device (SIM)

A

Flight solely with reference to the instruments plus instrument time in a mechanical device (SIM)

Part 1 definitions

51
Q

Definitions of RNP
Within what time (as a %) must an aircraft be within the distance/defined containment area?

A

Cross track and along track error of less than 10nm (RNP10) for 95% of the time.

8.1 and definitions Part 1

52
Q

When can VFR depart without submitting a flight plan

A

Not more than 10nm from the aerodrome of departure

91.307

53
Q

What is the 30 day flight limitation

A

100hrs
122.103

54
Q

When can you fly in icing conditions?

A

Aircraft certified to fly in icing conditions.

91.433

55
Q

Who must inform the PIC of Dangerous Goods?

A

The Operator

92.173, 121.307

56
Q

Must you report a bird strike? Who reports it?

A

The PIC as soon as practicable and a written report within 10 days

12.55

57
Q

Which aircraft must be equipped with a weather radar?

A

All turbine aircraft above 5,700kg

125.373

58
Q

What is the landing distance required for a turbine aircraft compared to the landing distance available?

A

60% Turbojet/turbofan (1.67)
70% Turboprop (1.43)

121.221

59
Q

Above what altitude must a pressurised aircraft with more than 20pax capacity be equipped with PBE.
(+15’ O2)

A

14000 ft

60
Q

Can you continue to fly following failure of mode C in your transponder?

A

Can request from ATC to continue any time.

If on ground, 30’ before scheduled departure.

61
Q

When are position reports required when in Radar Airspace?

A

When requested by ATC only

62
Q

When is smoking allowed in an aircraft?

A

Never unless exempted by the minister for any route or part of a route as designated by the minister.

63
Q

What actions do you take following a radio failure of an IFR flight in VMC and you are sure to maintain VMC

A

When operating under IFR in VMC flight conditions, ir if VMC flight conditions are encountered and able to be maintained after the failure, shall remain in VMC flight conditions and land as soon as practicable at the nearest suitable aerodrome and advise an appropriate ATS unit of the completion of the flight after landing.

91.437

64
Q

What is the IFR minima if it is not published

A

500ft and 4000m

91.413

65
Q

What airspeed deviations from flight planned speeds must you advise at ATC

A

+- 5% or +- 0,01M

91.411

66
Q

What is the minimum number of flight attendants for an aircraft with 136 seats but with only 92 pax on board?

A

3 FA’s

121.517

67
Q

Who is responsible for the position fixing requirements / route requirements if a Nav Aid becomes U/S

A

PIC

91.415

68
Q

What are the recent experience requirements for a pilot in command of a Part 121 operation?
(T/O+LNDGS)

A

3 T/O and 3 Landings of which not less than one should be at night

61.33

69
Q

How much variable reserve fuel do you need?
(% or amount of time)

A

15% or 30 mins

91.403

70
Q

What is the minimum separation from obstacles along the flight path following an engine failure?

A

1000ft within 10nm

121.215

71
Q

What is the LSALT for a non published route if the terrain is more than 5000 ft AMSL

A

1500ft and 5nm

72
Q

What is the requirement regarding carriage of passengers?

A

You can refuse to board a passenger who you believe will be a threat to the safety of the flight or who is under the influence of alcohol and may affect the safety of the flight.

121.77

73
Q

Who is permitted on the flight deck during flight?

A

Crew, CAA/Examiner, Persons permitted by the AOC

121.81

74
Q

Net take-off path ends when?
(At what height or point)

A

Begins at the point of take off or at a screen height of 35ft.

Ends at 1500ft or reaches the take off power time limit or completes the transition to enroute configuration.

121.211

75
Q

When can you fly in a prohibited area

A

Never, no person shall operate an aircraft within a prohibited area

91.129

76
Q

How much fuel do you require for an INTER period?

A

30 mins

77
Q

Define Daylight

A

Hours between morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.

78
Q

What is the validity of a Class 1 medical endorsed with ‘extended validity’?

A

12 months

79
Q

When joining the circuit at an aerodrome at 1500ft and within 5kms, what is the maximum allowable airspeed?

A

200kts

80
Q

What is the reduced take off minima if approved with 2 crew and auto feather?

A

0 feet and 800m vis

81
Q

Can you carry explosives if it is packaged and less than 100kg or less than 5000 detonator plugs?

A
82
Q

What is the maximum net QTY per package of motor oil?

A

60 litres

83
Q

What is the VFR minima at aerodrome within a control zone?

A

1500ft ceiling and 5kms vis day and night

91.301 Table 5

84
Q

What is the VFR minima at an aerodrome within an aerodrome traffic zone or in uncontrolled airspace?

A

By day - 600ft ceiling and 5kms vis
By night - 1500ft ceiling and 8km vis

91.301 Table 6

85
Q

What is the maximum IAS in turbulent conditions in an Instrument Holding Pattern?

A

Below 14k - 280kts
14 to 20k - 280kts or 0.8M (the lower of the two)
20 to 34k - 280kts or 0.8M
Above 34k 0.83M

86
Q

What is the IAS for the Initial Approach for a Cat C Aircraft?

A

200kts

87
Q

What is the IAS for Initial Approach for a Cat B aircraft?

A

170 kts

88
Q

How many flight attendants would you require for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 307 pax while on Part 121 operations

A

9 FA’s

89
Q

How many flight attendants would you require for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 180 pax while on Part 121 operations?

A

4 FA’s

90
Q

Under what conditions may a pilot operate under IFR into known icing conditions?

A

If the aircraft is certified with ice protection equipment for the flight in the type of known icing conditions.

91
Q

Between what altitudes do you need protective breathing equipment capable of providing 15min of oxygen?

A

Above 14,000feet and up to including FL250 AMSL requires one set of PBE for 15min.

92
Q

When can you descend below the MDA during a Circling Approach?

A

Where the a/c is able to continuously descend to land using normal rates of descent and normal manoeuvres

Flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed for the approach

Visual reference is maintained with the intended runway and or its approach end features in sight

And not exceeding the IAS for that Cat A/C

93
Q

Can you operate an electric shaver on an IFR flight during an Instrument Departure?

A

Yes

91.7 a)

94
Q

What is the VFR visibility requirement in Class C airspace below 10,000ft at night?

A

2000ft hori
1000ft vert (500ft in CTZ)

The PIC shall not operate more than 5nm from the aerodrome of departure at night

95
Q

At altitudes above FL300 what are the oxygen requirements?

A

Quick donning oxy masks

02 masks to provide supplemental oxy to all pax and crew

Therapeutic 02 capable of providing no less than 45min supply for 10% of the passengers carried

A manual means of making the pax masks available in the event of an auto sys failure

96
Q

When can an aircraft operate in a danger area?

A

After due consideration that the type of activity being conducted will not affect the safety of the aircraft.

97
Q

Within what distance from an aerodrome is the pilot able to operate under night VFR?

A

No more than 5nm from the departure point at night

98
Q

In an area with terrain in excess of 10,000ft what is the obstacle clearance req’d?

A

2000ft and 5nm radius within the navigation area.

99
Q

An alternate is required if the cloud and visibility are forecast to be below the specified Alternate Minima within what time period?

A

30 min before and 30 min after the ETA
Or a prob of reduced vis due to fog, mist or dust.

100
Q

What are the lighting requirements for an alternate aerodrome at night?

A

Must make provision for an alternate unless that aerodrome is equipped with a secondary electric power supply for electronic navaids required for the Instrument Appoach
For night ops, aerodrome night lighting req

101
Q

When can a pilot fly into a Restricted Area?

A

No pilot shall fly into a restricted area unless they have the approval of the controlling authority.

91.129

102
Q

In terms of before and after ETA, what period of time must the TAF be valid for?

A

30mins before and 60 mins after the ETA.

103
Q

What should a pilot do if encountering a hazard within a controlled airspace?

A

Report it to ATC

104
Q

Can a VFR flight fly in Class A Airspace?

A

No

71.101

105
Q

How is ARC (Aerodrome Reference Code) derived?

A

To determine Minimum runway width for an A/C, you determine the A/C’s ARC Code by using Table 1.
This takes into account the ARFL, main gear width and wing span.

121 Appendix B - Runways

*A/C ref. field length

106
Q

Do you need a PA syst or a crew intercom or both in a 30 seat A/C?

A

Yes

*part 121 is for aircraft above 20 seats and 2.5t

125.365 PA
121.367 PA and Crew Intercom

107
Q

Flight crew fatigue

A

122.51 Certificate holder responsibilities

122.53 Crew member responsibilities

108
Q

Define decision speed for a 15 seat A/C, is it described as:

*Silly options shown: VDec etc

A

V1

109
Q

Who is allowed to manipulate the controls in an aircraft?

A

121.83

1) Flight crew member authorised by the certificate holder

2) An authorized rep of the Director

*above in accordance with 121.503

110
Q

Technical performance data for an aircraft taking off on a dry runway is derived from which of the following?

PNG CAA
AFM
Data for the aircraft manufacturer acceptable for the Director
An aeronautical surveyor

A

AFM

121.505

111
Q

3 Engine aicraft 90 min limitation

Suitable aerodrome 1 Eng Inop
Suitable aerodrome 2 Eng Inop
100nm
200nm

A

Suitable aerodrome 2 Eng Inop

112
Q

Termination of an IFR flight plan

A

In the vicinity of the circuit area at the destination aerodrome

91.407

113
Q

Total pax weights what system may be used?

A

Either scale weights or standard weights but not both at the same time.

125.303

114
Q

Privileges and limitations of ATPL, which is correct:

Current medical for the type of operation
3 T/O+LNGS in preceding 90 days
Completed a Flight Review in the last 2 years

A

All of the above

61.207

115
Q

Load manifest is not required when?

A

Only for a VFR non-stop flight that will depart remain within 25nm and return to the same aerodrome.

116
Q

Glasses for distance vision correction.
How and what is written on the Medical Certificate?

A

Limitations:

(Visual acuity not worse than 6/9)

Correcting lenses must be worn for distance vision

(And if visual acuity 6/36 or worse)

Spare spectacles must be readily available

Part 67 Visual Standards

117
Q

Electric shaver during the Instrument Approach, can you use it?

A

Yes

118
Q

22 seat aircraft but only 15 pax conducting a private operation. How many FA’s do you req?

A

1 FA

91.115

119
Q

What is the height at the ILS 32R Proc B FAF

A

2000ft

120
Q

ILS 32R Proc B. When do you carry out the missed approach?

A

450 ft

121
Q

ILS 32R Proc B. You are tacking to the PY VOR/DME. Sector 3 into the Bayview Holding pattern you can join via:

A

See Holding notes on IAL Chart

Radar vector, INS or IFR GPS

123 (7 decks)

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