AUBF Flashcards by Tatiana Perez

The principle commonly used to measure
the concentration of a particular analyte in
the chemical examination of urine is:
A. Reflectance photometry
B. Digital imaging
C. Flow cytometry
D. Auto Particle recognition

Reflectance photometry

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Reactivity score: “May deteriorate”
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

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Correct hand washing includes all of the
following, except:
A. Using warm water
B. Rubbing to create a lather
C. Rinsing hands in a downward position
D. Turning on the water with a paper
towel

Turning on the water with a paper
towel

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The best way to break the chain of infection
is:
A. Hand sanitizing
B. Personal protective equipment
C. Aerosol prevention
D. Decontamination

Hand sanitizing

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Bacterial growth in an unpreserved
specimen will:
A. Decrease clarity
B. Increase bilirubin
C. Decrease pH
D. Increase glucose

Decrease clarity

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If a patient fails to discard the first specimen
when collecting a timed specimen, then the:
A. Specimen must be re-collected
B. Results will be falsely elevated
C. Results will be falsely decreased
D. Both A and B

Both A and B

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Stamey-Mears Test for Prostatitis: Which
specimen represents the urethral
specimen?
A. VB1
B. VB2
C. EPS
D. VB3

VB1

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Which of the following ketone bodies is not
detected by the ketone reagent strip?
A. β-Hydroxybutyrate
B. Acetone
C. Acetoacetic acid
D. None of the above

β-Hydroxybutyrate

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What is the correct temperature of a urine
for drug testing?
A. 32.7°C - 35.5°C
B. 35.2°C - 37.5°C
C. 32.5°C - 32.7°C
D. 32.5°C - 37.7°C

32.5°C - 37.7°C

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Urine specimen collection for drug testing
requires the collector to do all of the
following except:
A. Inspect the specimen color
B. Perform reagent strip testing
C. Read the specimen temperature
D. Fill out a chain-of-custody form

Perform reagent strip testing

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The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system
is responsible for all of the following except:
A. Vasoconstriction of the afferent
arteriole
B. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole
C. Reabsorbing sodium
D. Releasing aldosterone

Vasoconstriction of the afferent
arteriole

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Secretion of renin is stimulated by:
A. Juxtaglomerular cells
B. Angiotensin I and II
C. Macula densa cells
D. Circulating angiotensin-converting
enzyme

Macula densa cells

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Which of the following tubules is
impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule

Ascending loop of Henle

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Solute dissolved in solvent will:
A. Raise the vapor pressure
B. Lower the boiling point
C. Decrease the osmotic pressure
D. Lower the freezing point

Lower the freezing point

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If ammonia is not produced by the distal
convoluted tubule, the urine pH will be:
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Hypothenuric
D. Hypersthenuric

Basic

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A patient experiencing polyuria has a low
urine osmolality even after fluid restriction
and an ADH challenge test. Which of the
following conditions might the patient
have?
A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. SIADH

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the:
A. Production of excessively acidic urine due
to increased filtration of hydrogen ions
B. Production of excessively acidic urine due
to increased secretion of hydrogen ions
C. Inability to produce an acidic urine due
to impaired production of ammonia
D. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to
increased production of ammonia

Inability to produce an acidic urine due
to impaired production of ammonia

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Which of the following produces a yellow
foam when shaken?
A. Phenazopyridine
B. Albumin
C. Protein
D. None of the above

Phenazopyridine

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Which of the following is an anticoagulant
that causes an orange color in alkaline urine,
and becomes colorless in acid urine?
A. Phenazopyridine
B. Phenindione
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Acriflavine

Phenindione

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Struvite calculi are frequently accompanied
by urinary infections involving the following
bacteria, except:
A. Proteus
B. Klebsiella
C. Escherichia coli
D. None of the above

Escherichia coli

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When calibrating a refractometer using 9%
sucrose, it should give a specific gravity reading
of:
A. 1.000
B. 1.015
C. 1.022
D. 1.034

1.034

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The principle of refractive index is to
compare:
A. Light velocity in solution with light Velocity in
solids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in
solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by
solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution

Light velocity in air with light velocity in
solutions

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A specimen containing 1 g/dL protein and 1
g/dL glucose has a specific gravity reading of 1.030 using a refractometer. Calculate the
corrected reading.
A. 1.023
B. 1.027
C. 1.029
D. 1.032

1.023

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Which of the following will react in the
reagent strip specific gravity test?
A. Glucose
B. Radiographic dye
C. Protein
D. Chloride

Chloride

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A patient with a 2+ protein reading in the afternoon is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen has a negative protein reading. This patient is: A. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria B. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria C. Positive for Bence Jones protein D. Negative for clinical proteinuria

Positive for orthostatic proteinuria

The reagent strip test for nitrite uses the: A. Greiss reaction B. Ehrlich reaction C. Peroxidase reaction D. Pseudoperoxidase reaction

Greiss reaction

The most common component of renal calculi is: A. Calcium oxalate B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate C. Cystine D. Uric acid

Calcium oxalate

Which of the following crystals are dumbbell-shaped and found primarily in alkaline urine? A. Calcium carbonate B. Calcium oxalate C. Calcium phosphate D. A and B

Calcium carbonate

The primary component of urinary mucus is: A. Bence Jones protein B. Microalbumin C. Uromodulin D. Orthostatic protein

Uromodulin

Which of the following is reported as quantity per low power field? A. RBCs B. Oval fat bodies C. Abnormal crystals D. Bacteria

Abnormal crystals

Cerebrospinal fluid is found between the: A. arachnoid and dura mater. B. arachnoid and pia mater. C. pia mater and dura mater. D. pia mater and choroid plexus.

arachnoid and pia mater.

When choroid plexus cells and ependymal cells are present in the CSF, they: A. Are often clinically significant. B. Represent the demyelination of nerve tissue. C. Can closely resemble clusters of malignant cells. D. Indicate breakdown of the blood-brain barrier

Can closely resemble clusters of malignant cells.

Which of the following proteins in the CSF is used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier? A. Albumin B. Transthyretin C. Transferrin D. Immunoglobulin G

Albumin

Which of the following tubes could be used for a bacterial culture of serous fluid? A. EDTA B. Sodium citrate C. Sodium fluoride D. Sodium heparin

Sodium heparin

Thoracentesis refers specifically to the removal of fluid from the: A. Abdominal cavity B. Pericardial cavity C. Peritoneal cavity D. Pleural cavity

Pleural cavity

Which of the following anticoagulants does not have the potential to precipitate out in crystalline form when used for synovial fluid specimens? A. Sodium citrate B. Sodium heparin C. Lithium heparin D. Potassium oxalate

Sodium heparin

A synovial fluid specimen has a high cell count and requires dilution to be counted. Which of the following diluents should be used? A. Normal saline B. Dilute acetic acid (2%) C. Dilute methanol (1%) D. Phosphate buffer solution (0.050mol/L)

Normal saline

Differentiation of synovial fluid crystals, based on their birefringence, is achieved using: A. transmission electron microscopy. B. phase-contrast microscopy. C. direct polarizing microscopy. D. compensated polarizing microscopy

compensated polarizing microscopy

The primary function of semen is to: A. Nourish the spermatozoa. B. Coagulate the ejaculate. C. Transport the spermatozoa. D. Stimulate sperm maturation

Transport the spermatozoa.

Which of the following conditions adversely affects the quality of a semen specimen? A. The use of silastic condoms B. The time of day the collection is obtained C. The collection of the specimen in a glass container D. The storage of the specimen at refrigerator temperatures

The storage of the specimen at refrigerator temperatures

Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the ____________ that produces an orange color when fructose is present: A. Benedict’s test B. Seliwanoff’s test C. Resorcinol test D. Clinitest

Resorcinol test

Which of the following best represents a hemothorax? A. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 15 B. Blood HCT: 42 Fluid HCT: 10 C. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 10 D. Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

Non-motile sperm can persist for ____ after intercourse. A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 3 days D. 7 days

3 days

Given the following information, calculate the sperm concentration: dilution, 1:20; sperm counted in five RBC squares on each side of the hemocytometer, 80 and 86; volume, 3 mL. A. 80 million/mL B. 83 million/mL C. 86 million/mL D. 169 million/µL

83 million/mL

Which of the following organisms is adversely affected if a vaginal secretion specimen is refrigerated? A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Candida albicans C. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Trichomonas vaginalis

Trichomonas vaginalis

Which of the following substances is responsible for the foul, fishy odor obtained when the “whiff ” test is performed on vaginal secretions? A. Lactic acid B. Polyamine C. Trimethylamine D. Hydrogen peroxide

Trimethylamine

Which of the following proteins is used as a marker of rupture of membranes in pregnant women? A. Fetal fibrinogen B. Fetal fibronectin C. Alpha-1 microglobulin D. Placental alpha microglobulin-1

Placental alpha microglobulin-1

Amniocentesis is usually performed at 15 to 18 weeks’ gestation to determine which of the following conditions? A. Fetal distress B. Fetal maturity C. Genetic disorders D. Infections in the amniotic fluid

Genetic disorders

The following are correctly matched, except: A. Bilirubin: Ictotest B. Ketones: Acetest C. Glucose: Clinitest D. None of the above

None of the above

What is the primary inorganic component of urine? A. Water B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Urea

Chloride

The inability to convert dietary foodstuffs into readily absorbable substances is called intestinal: A. Inadequacy B. Hypermotility C. Malabsorption D. Maldigestion

Maldigestion

An alternate method that can minimize the occurrence of the “pass-through phenomenon” during a Clinitest is: A. Using two drops instead of five drops of urine B. Using five drops instead of two drops of urine C. Using three drops instead of five drops of urine D. Using three drops instead of six drops of urine

Using two drops instead of five drops of urine

The ultimate goal of urinalysis automation:* A. Reduce man-power B. Color discrimination C. Both A and B D. None of the above

Color discrimination

In a brightfield microscope, which lens produces the secondary image magnification? A. Condenser B. Eyepiece (ocular) C. Numerical aperture D. Objective

Eyepiece (ocular)

I. Two types of interference-contrast microscopy are available: modulation contrast (Hoffman) and differential-interference contrast (Nomarski). II. Bright-field microscopes can be adapted for both methods. A. The first statement is correct B. The second statement is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

Both statements are correct

Which of the following casts signify extreme urine stasis and is known as "renal failure casts"? A. Granular casts B. Waxy casts C. Fatty casts D. Broad casts

Broad casts

Identify the crystal: - Coffin-lid (normal) - X-shaped, Fern-like (dissolving) A. Struvite B. Apatite C. Calcium oxalate D. Calcium phosphate

Struvite

The major variable in urinalysis testing is the conscientiousness of the laboratory personnel in: A. Interpretation of color reactions B. Identification of abnormal crystals C. Identification of casts D. All of the above

Interpretation of color reactions

Which of the following parameters in the reagent strip should be read within 30 seconds? A. Specific gravity B. Bilirubin C. Ketones D. Protein

Bilirubin

Which of the following is not a shape of transitional epithelial cells?* A. Caudate B. Convoluted C. Spherical D. Polyhedral

Convoluted

What stain is used for confirming hemosiderin in urine?* A. Guaiac B. Perl's Prussian blue C. Sternheimer-Malbin D. Toluidine blue

Perl's Prussian blue

Each kidney contains approximately how many nephrons? A. 0.5 – 1 million B. 1 – 1.5 million C. 1.6 – 1.8 million D. 1 – 2 million

1 – 1.5 million

High protein intake causes _________ urine: A. Alkaline B. Acidic C. Concentrated D. Diluted

Acidic

Ketones is seen in urine due to:* A. Incomplete fat metabolism B. Fatty acid consumption C. High carbohydrate diet D. Low carbohydrate diet

Low carbohydrate diet

All are factors affecting the formation of urinary crystals, except:* A. pH B. Solute concentration C. Temperature D. Protein Concentration

Protein Concentration

A large amount of white foam appears after a urine specimen was shaken. Which of the following is increased? A. pH B. Protein C. Glucose D. Bilirubin

Protein

Failure to mix the specimen before testing causes a/an _______ reading that is falsely decreased. A. RBC and WBC B. pH C. Specific gravity D. Glucose and Ketone

RBC and WBC

To ensure against runover, blotting the edge of the strip on adsorbent paper and holding the strip ________ while comparing it with the color chart is recommended. A. Horizontally B. Vertically C. Diagonally D. In any direction

Horizontally

Correct evaluation of urine turbidity:* A. Against a white background B. Against a black background C. Light source behind analyst D. Light source in front of analyst

Against a white background

Correct way of adding reagents together:* A. Mix water and acid at the same time B. Do not mix acid and water C. Add water to acid D. Add acid to water

Add acid to water

Which of the following is the urine specimen of choice for cytology studies? A. First morning specimen B. Random specimen C. Midstream clean catch D. Timed collection

Random specimen

Which of the following best differentiates pyelonephritis from cystitis? A. Crystals B. WBC casts C. Ghost cells D. Eosinophils

WBC casts

Ultrafiltration of plasma occurs in glomeruli located in the renal: A. Cortex B. Medulla C. Pelvis D. Ureter

Cortex

What percent of the original ultrafiltrate formed in the urinary space actually is excreted as urine? A. 1% B. 10% C. 25% D. 100%

Urine Clarity: Cloudy A. No visible particulates, transparent B. Few particulates, print easily seen through urine C. Many particulates, print blurred through urine D. Print cannot be seen through urine

Many particulates, print blurred through urine

The final concentration of the urine is determined within the: A. Collecting ducts B. Distal convoluted tubules C. Loops of Henle D. Proximal convoluted tubules

Collecting ducts

Another name for a peritoneal effusion is: A. Peritonitis B. Lavage C. Ascites D. Cirrhosis

Ascites

ANCA is diagnostic for: A. IgA nephropathy B. Granulomatosis with polyangitis C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura D. Goodpasture syndrome

Granulomatosis with polyangitis

Which of the following urine characteristics provides the best rough indicator of urine concentration and body hydration? A. Color B. Clarity C. Foam D. Volume

Color

Which of the following is not a characteristic of neutrophils found in the urine sediment? A. They are approximately 10 to 14 μm in diameter. B. They form “ghost cells” in hypotonic urine. C. They shrink in hypertonic urine but do not crenate. D. As they disintegrate, vacuoles and blebs form and their nuclei fuse

They form “ghost cells” in hypotonic urine.

Urinary casts are formed in: A. The distal and collecting tubules B. The distal tubules and the loops of Henle C. The proximal and distal tubules D. The proximal tubules and the loops of Henle

The distal and collecting tubules

Which differentiates CSF Protein from Serum Protein:* A. Absence of fibrinogen B. Presence of fibrinogen C. Presence of IgG D. Presence of Ceruloplasmin

Absence of fibrinogen

Which of the following are tests for synovial fluid viscosity?* A. Ropes test B. Mucin clot test C. String test D. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is the correct dilution for a total CSF cell count on a clear fluid? A. 1:10 B. 1:20 C. 1:100 D. None of the above

None of the above

The purpose of adding albumin to CSF before cytocentrifugation is to: A. Increase the cell yield B. Decrease the cellular distortion C. Improve the cellular staining D. Both A and B

Both A and B

The finding of oligoclonal bands in the CSF and not in the serum is seen with: A. Multiple myeloma B. Neurosyphilis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. CNS malignancy

Neurosyphilis

A patient with a blood glucose of 120 mg/dL would have a normal CSF glucose of: A. 20 mg/dL B. 60 mg/dL C. 80 mg/dL D. 120 mg/dL

80 mg/dL

Sulfosalicylic Acid Precipitation Test: Turbidity, granulation, no flocculation A. 6-30 mg/dL B. 30-100 mg/dL C. 100-200 mg/dL D. 200-400 mg/dL

100-200 mg/dL

2.8 g of ammonium sulfate was added to a 5 mL reddish urine, and centrifuged. Upon testing using a reagent strip for blood, which result indicates the absence of myoglobin in the sample? A. Positive B. Negative C. Faint D. Trace

Negative

Given the following results, classify this peritoneal fluid: serum albumin, 2.2 g/dL; serum protein, 6.0 g/dL; fluid albumin, 1.6 g/dL. A. Transudate B. Exudate C. Both A and B D. None of the above

Exudate

Patients must be given explicit dietary instructions before collecting any specimen to be tested for 5-HIAA. The following foods should be avoided for 3 days before and during urine collection, except: A. Pineapple B. Tomato C. Avocado D. None of the above

None of the above

Computer-assisted semen analysis provides objective determination of the following, except: A. Sperm velocity B. Sperm trajectory C. Sperm vitality D. Sperm concentration

Sperm vitality

The purpose of the special mat supplied with the Ictotest tablets is that: A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat B. It contains the dye needed to produce color C. It removes interfering substances D. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat

Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat

Usually development is normal for the first 6 to 8 months, and often the first sign is uric acid crystals resembling orange sand in diapers. A. Indicanuria B. Cystinuria C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome D. Argentaffinoma

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

How are specimens for FLM testing delivered to and stored in the laboratory? A. Delivered on ice and refrigerated B. Immediately centrifuged C. Kept at room temperature D. Delivered in a vacuum tube

Delivered on ice and refrigerated

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 450 nm indicates the presence of which analyte? A. Bilirubin B. Lecithin C. Oxyhemoglobin D. Sphingomyelin

Bilirubin

The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by: A. Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin B. Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein C. Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl glycerol D. Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase

Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein

All of the following are auto-classified by the iQ200, except? A. Unclassified casts B. Nonsquamous epithelial cell C. Bacteria D. Uric acid

Uric acid

Based on the Bristol stool form scale, which of the following describes a type 3 stool? A. Separate hard clumps B. Lumpy and sausage-like C. Like a smooth, soft sausage or snake D. A sausage shape with cracks in the surface

A sausage shape with cracks in the surface

The ΔA₄₅₀ value is determined using amniotic fluid from a mother at 20 weeks’ gestation. Which chart(s) should be used to assess this value and the status of the fetus? A. Liley chart B. Queenan chart C. Either chart can be used. D. More information is needed

Queenan chart

AUBF Flashcards

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