Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

When will the FCGS Flight Control Guidance System automatically select half-bank? What is the bank angle?

A

FL250, 17deg bank angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the FPA?

A

Flight Path Angle is a pilot-selectable pitch attitude (in degrees) of climb or descent; FCGS adjusts thrust and pitch to maintain path angle and airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the TOGA button do?

A

On Ground: Activates takeoff guidance crossbars; In Flight: Activates Go-Around Guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do the takeoff guidance crossbars do?

A

Maintain extended runway centerline, maintain pitch guidance according to flap/slat setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is the TOGA mode deactivated?

A

Another vertical mode is selected, autopilot is activated, TCS button is pressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When will the FD automatically display?

A

TOGA button is pressed, autopilot is activated, windshear detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the function of the TCS button?

A

Allows manual override of the autopilot; when released, airplane maintains new altitude (Provided ALT was the active vertical mode) but will return to previous lateral mode (except ILS, autopilot will recapture the LOC/GS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What will disengage the autopilot?

A

AP button on GP is pushed, any manual trim pitch is activated, either AP/TRIM DISC button is pushed, Stick Shaker activated, Windshear escape guidance is activated, Flight controls in direct mode, aileron or elevator controls disconnected, overpowering the yoke, internal system failures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can the yaw damper be deactivated if the autopilot is on?

A

Yes, it is independent of the autopilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When will the auto-throttles engage on the ground? In flight?

A

On Ground: AT TO (GP) is armed and TLA >50deg; In Flight: AT (GP) is armed and airplane > 400’AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Will the auto-throttles compensate for gusty wind conditions?

A

Yes, up to 5kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What will disengage the auto-throttles?

A

AT (TL or GP) is pushed; TLA difference > 8deg; TL at idle with WOW or wheels spinning; Internal system failures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is SPDe? What mode uses SPDe?

A

Speed on elevator; thrust is fixed and pitch is adjusted to maintain airspeed (VS changes); FLCH uses SPDe for climbs and descents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is SPDt? What modes use SPDt?

A

Speed on Thrust; thrust is adjusted to maintain selected airspeed; FPA, VS, GS, ALT, ASEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the AT modes?

A

SPDe, SPDt, TO, GA, HOLD, RETARD (at 30’ RA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does LIM and OVRD mean on the FMA?

A

LIM: the selected vertical mode requires more or less engine thrust than is available; OVRD: The TL are being manually moved (no AP disengagement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is CRZ automatically selected?

A

When +100’ of selected altitude for 90 seconds; desired airspeed must be achieved or it will remain in CLB mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the SRC button do?

A

Selects pilot or copilot as the data source for the AFCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the red AP/TRIM DISC button on the yoke do?

A

Disconnects the autopilot; stops all trim actuation if button is pushed and held

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the PREV button do?

A

Allows the capture of ILS/BC while still using the FMS as the basic NAV source provided the AUTO TUNE function is enabled on the MCDU and the approach is loaded in the FMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the IRS do?

A

computes position, heading, airspeed and attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

AFCS

A

Automatic Flight Control System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ASEL

A

Altitude Select

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

EADI

A

Electronic Attitude Director Indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
EHSI
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator
26
FGCS
Flight Control Guidance System
27
FMA
Flight Mode Annunciator
28
FMS
Flight Management System
29
IESS
Integrated Electronic Standby System
30
LIM
Limited Thrust
31
LSK
Line Select Key
32
MXR
Maximum Reserve
33
RF
Radius to Fix
34
TCS
Touch Control Steering
35
What is required before VNAV will work?
The use of VNAV requires the respective FD vertical guidance mode to be active.
36
What is required before FMS Speed will work?
The use of FMS Speed requires the respective FD vertical guidance mode to be active.
37
When is is VNAV allowed/prohibited?
The use of VNAV is prohibited when the respective FD vertical guidance mode is other than VNAV, unless pilots adjust the ALT SEL to each altitude constraint in the Flight Plan.
38
What extra preparation before dispatch is required for a GPS only approach?
When a GPS Only Approach is planned prior to dispatch, the crew is required to verify that the predictive RAIM at the destination ETA is within the approach criteria. This information (RAIM AVAILABLE) is displayed on the PREDICTIVE RAIM page on the MCDU.
39
Differences between the charts and the FMS information up to 3° are acceptable. What must be done is the charts and FMS information are more than 3deg different?
For areas in which the magnetic database error may differ in more than 3° from the published charts, the following functions must be performed using true heading: a. Manual creation of waypoints by place/bearing/distance; b. Manual creation of waypoints by place/bearing/place/bearing; c. Holding inbound course; d. FIX INFO bearings; e. DIRECT-TO with intercept course.
40
How can a course be flown in True North in the FMS?
To define course and bearing references to TRUE north in the FMS, insert the character “T” after the course/bearing value.
41
Can you fly direct to the TOC?
The selection of course interception to a conditional waypoint (waypoints created automatically by FMS that is not part of NAV database, i.e., TOC) is prohibited.
42
When can the FMS be the navigation source?
ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF, GLS, MLS, Visual and Radar Approaches, using the FMS as the navigation source for guidance, are prohibited. This limitation does not apply to RNAV Visual or FMS Visual Approaches. Prior to commencing and during the final Approach, the APPR annunciator must be visible on the PFD. If the APPR annunciator is not visible, and the appropriate runway visibility indications are not observed, the pilot should request a Missed Approach.
43
Can VNAV path be relied upon during the final approach segment?
No. The flight crew must rely on the altimeter as the primary altitude reference during the final approach segment, including step down fixes. VNAV path guidance is supplementary guidance information.
44
What does the AFCS Automatic Flight Control System consist of?
The FGCS Flight Control Guidance System and TMS Thrust Management System
45
What are the functions of the FGCS Flight Guidance Control System?
Auto pilot Flight director Yaw damper/turn coordination
46
What are the functions of the TMS Thrust Management System?
AT Automatic Throttle ETTS Electronic Thrust Trim System TRS Thrust Rating Selection
47
What are the components of the AFCS?
``` Dual channel guidance panel 2 AP quick disconnect switches TCS Touch Control Steering switches 2 TOGA switches 4 Processing modules Single Elevator Servo Single Aileron Servo Single Rudder Servo ```
48
What does the AP button do?
Automatically activates automatic pitch trim function and the yaw damper/turn coordination functions (if not already active)
49
Will disengaging the AP disengage the YD?
No
50
Will a YD failure affect the autoilot?
No, unless it is related to the FD
51
With no modes armed, what will the FMA show when AP is pressed? What modes are the default?
ROLL and FPA
52
Can autopilot be engaged on the ground?
No. WOW and Mesa/AFM limitations
53
What happens when the AP disc switch is pressed? Pressed twice?
AP is disengaged, aural alarm “Autopilot” | Press twice to cancel aural alarm and visual information
54
What conditions will disengage the autopilot?
``` AP button is pressed Manual pitch trim switches are used Quick disconnect switches pressed Column shakers are activated Reversion of FBW system to direct mode Either the aileron or elevator control system disconnects A column and control wheel force monitor sensor trips Various intermal monitors failure Windshear escape guidance is activated ```
55
What does the TCS button do?
Releases the autopilot clutches and resynchronizes the flight director.
56
Lateral modes are to the ___ of the AP button. Vertical modes are to the ___ of the AP button.
Left, Right
57
What does the FD button do?
Toggles the FD ON/OFF. If OFF, the magenta diamond (FD) will dissapear
58
What does the APP button do?
The APP button arms the approach mode for CAT 1 and CAT II
59
What does the LNAV button do?
Activates the lateral navigation mode
60
What does the BANK button do?
Low BANK button selects the bank angle limit to be used by the FGCS. Either auto bank or low bank (fixed value)
61
What does the HDG button do?
Activates the HDG mode
62
What do the 2 CRS select knobs do?
Manually change the CDI course. Push in to fly direct to the station
63
If the AP is engaged and SRC is pressed, what happens?
Causes the FD to transition to the basic modes ROLL and FPA
64
What happens when the SRC button is pressed without the AP engaged?
The FD drops the standby modes and clears the FD command cue along with the FMA
65
What data is used/switched when the SRC button is pressed?
VOR/LOC 1, VOR/LOC 2 Baro-corrected altitude FMS source (FMS 1, FMS 2)
66
What does the SPEED knob do?
Push to toggle IAS and Mach, turn to select manual speed, FMS for FMS speed targets
67
What does the VNAV button do?
Activates the intercept and tracking of the vertical navigation path, according to the FMS request
68
What does the ALT button do?
Engages altitude hold mode. Press again to revert to FPA mode.
69
What are the VNAV submodes?
``` VARM - VNAV ARM VFLCH - VNAV FLC VASEL - VNAV Altitude Capture VALT - VNAV Altitude Hold VPATH - VNAV Path ```
70
What is FPA?
The basic vertical mode, except for takeoff. When FPA is active, the FPA reference line is displayed. The FPA selector knob can select the FPA
71
What does the FPR button do?
Displays the FPA reference line regardless of the vertical mode selection
72
What does pressing the TOGA button do?
Activates the Takeoff vertical mode. The Takeoff mode is a FD only mode and is represented by a crossbar. In takeoff mode, autopilot engagement is not accepted and the FPA mode is inhibited. Lateral mode changes are allowed. The Takeoff mode is deactivated when another vertical mode is selected, AP is pressed, or TCS is pressed.
73
When airborne and when the indicated air speed is greater than the speed target, the guidance will be speed target based as follows: (All engines operating, SE)
All Engines Operating: V2+10kts SE Engine failure below V2: Guides V2 Engine failure between V2 and V2+10kts: Guides present speed Engine failure above V2+10kts: Guides V2+10kts If speed target is not valid, a fixed pitch according to the flaps setting will be used
74
What is the pitch limited to during takeoff mode?
Min 8deg, Max 18deg
75
In takeoff mode, what is the maximum speed target and minimum speed target?
Maximum speed target: Vfe-5kt Minimum speed target: Vshaker+10kts for all engines operating Vshaker+3kts for SE
76
What does the ALT select knob mode do?
captures and levels off at the selected altitude
77
What does the FLCH button do?
Activates the Flight Level Change Mode Provides flight path commands to climb or descend according to the speed selected, associated with SPDt (speed on thrust control mode)
78
How can a different vertical mode be seleted while in ALT hold mode?
A different altitude must be selected before changing vertical modes, otherwise the altitude bug and ALT FMA box will flash for 5sec. This logic is valid for all vertical modes except GS and VGP. Switching from ALT to GS or VGP mode occurs without change in ALT SEL selection.
79
What is the VS mode?
Maintains a vertical speed rate. Activated by pressing the VS button and rotating the VS range.
80
How is OVSP protection provided to the vertical modes?
The FD provides OVSP protection in VS and FPA modes to maintain the airplane speed below Vmo or Mmo limits, whichever is applicable.
81
In go around mode, when IAS is greater than speed target, the guidance system will be speed target according to the following (all engines and SE)
All engines operating: Vref+20kts SE: Vac (approach climb) These speeds are inserted on the MCDU prior to the approach. If speed target is not valid, the airplane will continue to guide pitch at 8deg.
82
What is pitch limited to in GA mode?
The same as TO mode. 8-18deg The maximum speed target is Vfe-5kts and minimum speed target is Vshaker+10kts for all engines operation For SE the min speed target is Vshaker+3kts
83
VFLCH - VNAV submode
This submode maintains manual or FMS speed by controlling the airplane’s pitch.
84
VASEL - VNAV submode
AFCS captures the ALT selector altitude for the FMS waypoint altitude constraints
85
VALT - VNAV Submode
The AFCS maintains the altitude commanded by the FMS for the altitude selector. If VNAV is disengaged while in VALT, the FPA mode will become the active mode.
86
VPATH - VNAV submode
The FMS commands a constant descent angle between 2 waypoints, as defined by the FMS on the active FPL page. If the angle is too steep, the system may not be able to maintain speed commands (LIM)
87
Descend Now DESNOW
The prompt is displayed on the FMS providing a command to start the descent when the airplane is 50NM or less from the calculated TOD. When selected, the FD commands the airplane to descend according to airplane position relative to the TOD. Early descent: if you select the DESNOW before the TOD is reached, the airplane will go into early descent mode, where the FD commands a 1,000fpm descent up to the point where the planned path or next altitude constraint is intercepted. Late Descent: selecting the DESNOW prompt after the TOD enables the late descent mode where the FD commands a flight angle 1.5deg steeper than the planned descent angle to intercept the planned descent path. If the descent angle is not enough (more than 6deg), the message UNABLE PATH INTERCEPT will appear in the scratchpad.
88
What conditions will cause VPATH to automatically transition to VFLCH for overspeed protection? (latched speed protection)
Speed exceeds Vmo/Mmo +10kts during VPATH descents. The FMS passes through a speed/altitude limit with a speed difference greater than 5kts. In this case the command is to level off until the speed is below plus 2kts. Then the FMS commands the VFLCH down to the Altitude Selector setting. Landing gear/flap speed limit is exceeded by more than 10kts. In VPATH sub-mode with the speed less than Vref -10kts
89
VGP - VNAV submode (armed when pressed within 30NM from the FAF and engaged when within 5NM of the FAF)
FCGS flies a constant glide path angle from the FAF to the MAP regardless of the Alt Selector altitude, which may be set to the missed approach altitude
90
Does removal of the FD cue depressing FD button on the GP deactivate the current lateral and vertical modes?
No
91
When is ROLL Mode activated?
When TOGA is pressed while on ground and IAS is below 100kts When no lateral mode is active and a vertical mode is selected An active lateral mode is deselected
92
What does Roll mode do?
6deg bank or less: AP levels wings 6deg-35deg: AP holds present bank angle 35deg bank +: AP maintains 35deg bank
93
Which direction will the airplane turn when the heading bug is selected?
In the direction the heading bug was turned, regardless of the turn being more than 180deg
94
How does the YD work?
The YD provides commands to the rudder control surface and actuates it independently of the AP and FD system. The YD remains engaged regardless of AP engagement or disengagement or the loss of turn coordination function.
95
What is the preview feature?
Allows the capture of an ILS course while still using the FMS source as the basic navigation source. The system automatically selects the ILS frequency and course if the preview function is used with AUTO tuning enabled on the MCDU radio page and the aircraft is within 25NM from destination. An ILS or BC procedure has to be loaded in the FMS FPL to allow automatic selection.
96
When will the FMS source change to LOC in preview mode?
Once the APP mode is armed and the LOC is intercepted, the source will change from FMS laternal navigation to LOC or BC.
97
How many channels are operating at one time for the TMS, TRS, ETTS and AT?
One | Can be switched via the MCDU
98
What are the AT modes?
``` SPDt Speed on Thrust SPDe Speed on Elevator (FLCH TCM) TO Takeoff thrust control mode GA Go Around TCM HOLD Takeoff thrust hold mode RETD Retard mode LIM Limited thrust OVRD Override ```
99
When will the AT automatically disconnect?
AT button on TLA is pressed AT button on GP is pressed TLA difference greater than 8deg Transition to on-ground condition and TLA idle and AT in Retard Mode
100
What is SPDt?
Thrust levers maintain desired speed controlled by engine thrust during climb, descent, cruise
101
What are the vertical modes related to SPDt?
``` FPA VS GS ALT ASEL FMS function ```
102
What is SPDe?
FLCH thrust control mode/speed on elevator. The AT maintains a fixed thrust setting and the AP maintains the selected speed using the elevator commanad
103
What vertical modes are related to SPDe?
FLCH | OVSP
104
What is TO thrust control mode?
AT moves TLA to TO position during takeoff
105
What is the GA thrust mode?
Moves the TLA to the TOGA position
106
What is the purpose of the takeoff thrust HOLD mode?
The HOLD mode prevents undesireable movements of the thrust levers causing thrust reductions during the takeoff phase. HOLD mode activates when the TO mode is active and the KIAS is greater than 60kts. The AT servos are then de-energized and TLA movements are not commanded up to 400’AGL
107
What is the Retard thrust mode?
Provides the TLA to idle during flare on landing. Activates based on RA of 30’. Once the airplane touches down the AT automatically disconnects. RETD mode is automatically armed when RA is below 150’AGL, AT engaged, and flaps 5 or Full
108
What is LIM limited thrust mode?
In case the selected vertical mode requires more or less thrust than that available for the thrust rating selected, limited thrust will be set. LIM is associated with SPDt mode.
109
What is OVRD thrust mode?
The AT can be overriden by moving the TLA manually causing no AT disconnection unless TLA is moved beyond TOGA position or below 40deg during takeoff (abort). A green OVRD will appear on the FMA.
110
What happens to the AT operation when the FADEC detects an engine failure or engine in-flight shutdown?
The AT deactivates the failed engine thrust lever
111
When does TO mode switch to CON thrust mode during an engine failure after takeoff?
3,000’ AFE
112
When does the TRS change from TO to CLIMB?
At acceleration altitude, select FLCH or VNAV as required. This will change the thrust rating to CLIMB. With FMS speeds, the selected speed will automatically adjust based on the programmed speeds and any published speed restrictions on the Departure.
113
Can autopilot be selected ON prior to selecting the climb sequence?
Yes, but it shouldn’t be. AP should be engaged after selecting a lateral and vertical mode in order to prevent the AFCS from reverting to the basic modes, ROLL and FPA.
114
What is maximum angle of climb/best angle of climb indicated by?
With flaps retracted, the recommended best Angle of Climb Speed for all operational gross weights and Takeoff altitudes is the Green Dot. It provides for a maximum altitude gain at a minimum ground distance.
115
What is maximum rate of climb/best rate of climb indicated by?
Green Dot + 50 KIAS is approximately the maximum rate of climb Speed. As it is a function of gross weight and altitude, Refer to Chapter 6: "Flight Planning" in this manual, for accurate speeds and Mach number.
116
When does speed in IAS switch to Mach?
Usually a constant IAS is selected as enroute climb Speed. This IAS is maintained until a certain altitude where the IAS intercepts a selected Mach number. The Mach number is maintained until cruise altitude. The altitude where the Speed reference changes from IAS to Mach number is called “crossover altitude” and is around 29,000 ft.
117
What is green dot?
Green dot is 1.3g over Stick Shaker, or 40deg of bank angle, for wings leveled condition during any flight phase and slat/flap setting. The green dot is: - a good fast slow indicator - best L/D speed - best drift down speed In cruise when the EICAS message STALL PROT ICE SPEED is displayed, fly Green Dot +10kts
118
Is the EJET authorized for LPV or LNAV/VNAV minimums?
LNAV/VNAV minimums only | The EJET is not authorized for LPV minimums