Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

E175 Systems > Flight Deck & Crew Awareness Questions > Flashcards

Flight Deck & Crew Awareness Questions Flashcards

(76 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Which displays can be reverted? Which cannot?

A

MFDs can be reverted to either EICAS or PFD, PFDs and EICAS cannot be reverted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain the AUTO functions of the EDS REVERSIONARY panels

A

EICAS Failure - each PFD displays EICAS; PFD Failure - respective MFD displays PFD; MFD Failure - No auto reversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain the PFD, MFD, and EICAS selections on the EDS REVERSIONARY panel

A

PFD - Respective PFD will display on MFD; MFD - MFD will not be reverted; EICAS - EICAS displays on the associated MFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many ADS AIR Data Systems are installed and how are they assigned?

A

ADS 1 CA, ADS 2 FO, ADS 3 Standby, ADS 4 IESS, ADS 5 Flight Controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What happens if ADS 1 or 2 fails?

A

ADS 3 automatically becomes the source; if ASD 3 fails then the respective x-side ADS is used (for example ADS 1 reverts to ADS 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens if the ADS button is pushed?

A

The respective onside ADS reverts to ADS 3. The respective onside ADS reverts to the x-side ADS if the button is pushed twice. The respective onside ADS returns if the button is pushed a third time unless the respective side is already failed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is there an automatic reversion for an IRS Internal Reference System failure?

A

No, it must be done manuallly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens if the respective IRS button is pushed?

A

the respective IRS to the x-side source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How would a pilot know if the ADS or IRS button has been pushed?

A

An ADS or IRS flag would be displayed on the associated PFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the primary flight instrument if both IRS’s fail?

A

IESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of approach is prohibited using the EISS?

A

LOC BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When will the EICAS de-clutter?

A

30 seconds after gear and flaps are up, APU off, and all system parameters are normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of the EICAS FULL button?

A

Inhibits the automatic de-clutter of the EICAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When will the EICAS display all of its information?

A

When the gear is down, flaps are extended, or spoilers are deployed under normal conditions; also when the APU is running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What color is the CDI when using the FMS, VOR/LOW and x-side data?

A

FMS Magenta; VOR/LOC Green; X-side info Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What runways are included in the database of the EGPWS?

A

Runways greater than 3,500’ with a published approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long until impact with a terrain alert on EGPWS?

A

Red 30seconds; Amber 60seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should the GND PROX TERR INHIB button be pushed?

A

To cancel unwanted terrain alerts when operating at airports not in the EGPWS database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What will generate a windshear caution? Warning?

A

Caution: increasing headwind and/or updrafts; Warning: decreasing headwind, increasing tailwind, and/or downdrafts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is our policy for windshear encounters?

A

Caution: CA/crew discretion; Warning: Firewall thrust! and climb in current configuration until warning ceases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is the pilot alerted to windshear?

A

Caution: Amber windshear flag on PFD/aural “CAUTION, WINDSHEAR”; Warning: Red windshear flag on PFD/aural “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR; WINDSHEAR”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Will the autopilot deactivate during windshear guidance?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How long will the windshear alerting last?

A

Until 1,500’ RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Will the windshear alerting system function if both radar altimeters and/or EGPWS are inop?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is checked when the T/O CONFIG button is pushed?
Parking Brake OFF, Spoilers Stowed, Flaps Set for TO, Pitch Trim Set for TO
26
What does a red ATT or HDG flag on a PFD indicate?
Attitude or Heading Reference cannot be determined by the associated IRS
27
What does a red “x” on the ASI, altimeter, or VSI indicate?
Airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed cannot be determined by the ADS
28
What is the function of the GND PROX GS INHIB button?
To cancel unwanted GS alerts below 2,000’
29
EICAS message that requires immediate crew awareness and a subsequent corrective action is
Caution
30
The system which provides information and alerting to detect a potentially hazardous terrain situation in order to prevent CFIT is
EGPWS
31
TCF Terrain Clearance Floor function is based on airplane present position, RA, and
distance to the nearest runway on database
32
EICAS status messages are displayed in
White
33
EICAS messages are sometimes inhibited to prevent it from being a nuissance, K2b coded messages are inhibited
On takeoff roll
34
The air data system comprises of what components?
4 ADSPs, 2 TAT probes, 3 ADAs, and the Baro Set on the GP
35
What information can the IESS display?
Attitude, Altitude, IAS, Mach, Vmo/Mmo, Slip Indication, VS, ILS, Barometric Pressure, Altitude in meters
36
During normal operation, air data readouts on the captain’s PFD are from which ADS?
ADS 1
37
Which IRS is the primary source for the captain’s PFD?
IRS 1
38
What powers the IESS in case of electircal emergency?
RAT or Batteries
39
How many flight hours does the FDR record? How many minutes does the CVR store?
25 flight hours, 120 minutes
40
What is the primary source of radio tuning? What is secondary?
The MCDU is primary, the CCD is secondary
41
What are the 4 EICAS message types?
Warning (emergency condition requiring immediate action), Caution (abnormal conditions that require immediate awareness, but not immediate action), Advisory (operational conditions that may require future crew action), Status (information)
42
When does the EICAS message inverse video stop flashing?
When the warning/caution message has been canceled, or 5sec for advisory messages
43
Will a warning message ever be displayed out of the EICAS message view?
No. Only caution, advisory, and status messages can be scrolled out of view
44
What are K codes? How do they work?
They are codes for EICAS messages that prevent their display during different phases of operation. The phases of operation are determined by the Radar Altimiters, which is why there may be EICAS messages that become active on takeoff now with 5G interference.
45
What does the takeoff configuaration warning test?
flaps are not in the takeoff position set in the MCDU, any spoiler panel is deployed, parking brakes are applied, pitch trim is out of green range, speed brake lever is not stowed
46
How does the Stall Warning and Protection System work? What changes in direct mode?
A warning is first provided to pilots with the activation of the stick shaker motor on the control column, simulating the aircraft buffeting, along with the yellow and red low airspeed awareness tape, and the PLI Pitch Limit Indicator in the Attitude indicator. THEN if in normal mode, the AOA limit protection mode will engage preventing the aircraft from stalling. This is part of the elevator’s higher level FBW function. In direct mode, the stall recovery must be made by the pilot
47
What does the SHARKER 1 FAIL EICAS message mean?
Channel 1 (of 2) of the SWPS Stall Warning Protection System is inoperative
48
What is the purpose of the Stall Warning Shaker 1 Cutout Button?
If the SWPS Stall Warning Protection System channel 1 (of 2) fails, the stick shaker may activate. Do deactivate it, press the cutout button. A white bar will illuminate.
49
What happens if both SWPS channels have failed?
The EICAS will show STALL PROT FAIL and the pilot must recover from a stall manually. If the SWPS doesn’t recognize the failure, the stick shaker may be activated.
50
What airports are in the TCF Terrain Clearance Floor database?
All hard surface runways >3,500’ with a published IAP
51
Why would the altitude callouts and approaching minimums, minimums callouts not be functional?
The EGPWS is inop
52
What are the colors associated with the EGPWS system and what do they indicate?
- Solid Yellow: 60sec from impact - Solid Red: 30sec from impact - High Density Red Dots: terrain >2,000’ above airplane - High Density Yellow Dots: terrain 2,000-1,000’ above airplane - Low Density Yellow Dots: terrain between 500’, 250’ with gear down, 500’ below, and 1,000’ above airplane - High Density Green Dots: middle elevation band with no yellow or red terrain areas -500’ to -1,000’ - Low Density Green Dots: terrain 1,000’ to 2,000’ below airplane - Low Density Cyan Dots: TERRAIN equal to 0’MSL - Black is fills in the rest
53
How is terrain information given to the MFD?
EGPWS
54
What does the GND PROX TERR INHIB button do?
In approach mode, it inhibits EGPWS and avoids unwanted terrain alerts in airports not covereg by the EGPWS database
55
What does the GND PROX G/S INHIB button do? Will it reset?
Manually cancels glide slope alerts. It illuminates when pressed anytime below 2,000’ RA. It will reset automatically (light off) by climbing above 2,000’ RA or descending below 30’
56
What does the FLAP OVERRIDE SWITCH do?
Inhibits triggering flap alerts in case of landings in which flap configuration is different from flap landing configuration
57
What is a windshear warning alert for?
decreasing headwind, increasing tailwind, severe vertical downdrafts
58
What is a windshear caution alert for?
increasing headwind, severe updrafts
59
When is windshear detection active?
Between 10’-1,500’ RA on initial takeoff, G/A, final approach, when detected by EGPWS
60
What should you use for guidance out of a windshear caution or warning?
Guidance is designed to minimize altitude and airspeed loss. It is a FD mode activated when windshear is detected and TOGA buttons are pushed, or TLA set to TOGA
61
When will windshear conditions not be detected?
When either the EGPWS or RA is not available
62
Where can you test the TCAS, EGPWS, RA, and Stick Shakers?
On the MCSU Misc Menu
63
Does TCAS use ATC for traffic info? Why is TA/RA changed during SE?
No the transponders interrogate other transponders. RA is disabled when on SE because aircraft performance may be degrogated.
64
What airplane antennas are associated with TCAS?
A directional antenna on the top, and an omnidirectional antenna located on the bottom (along with a TCAS computer in the FWD avionics bay)
65
What are the TCAS symbols and what do they mean?
Solid Red Box: RA 20-30sec from collision area Solid Yellow Circle: TA 35-45sec from collision area Solid Cyan Diamond: Proximate Traffic within 6.5NM and +-1,200’ Empty Diamond: Other Traffic
66
What does ABS stand for on the TCAS MFD menu?
Absolute altitude: altitude from MSL instead of relative altitude
67
What does the arrow up or down next to a traffic symbol mean?
The traffic is climbing or descending over 550fpm
68
If you select ABS on the TCAS menu, will the traffic stay in absolute altitude?
No. After 15sec the system will switch back to normal mode, or will switch earlier if there is a RA
69
When there is an RA, what guidance will tell you where to mauenver on the PFD?
A red trapezoid avoidance zone will be shown, or 2 may be displayed for multiple aircraft with a Green Fly-To Zone (box). Also shown on the VSI
70
When are RAs disabled?
Below 900’ RA when descending and below 1,000’ RA while climbing
71
EGPWS
Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System
72
EICAS
Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System
73
SPS
Stall Protection System
74
If ATTCS is ON for takeoff, in what situations will FLEX be canceled and RSV mode automatically activate?
If REF ATTCS (on Takeoff data setting) is set to ON and one of the following events occurs, flex Takeoff is canceled and ATTCS automatically commands RSV thrust: 1. Difference between both engine N1 values is greater than 15%. 2. OEI (One Engine Inoperative). 3. Thrust Levers are moved to MAX detent. 4. Windshear is detected.
75
The air data system comprises of what components?
The Air Data System is comprised of: 4 ADSP’s, 2 TAT probes, 3 ADA’s, and the BARO SET on the GP
76
The ADS probe heater button heats
All ADSP sensors | If batteries are the only source of electrical power, only ADSP 3 will be heated

E175 Systems (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions