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Airbus 320 > Autoflight > Flashcards

Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

How many FMGCs are there?

A

Two

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2
Q

Does managed or selected guidance have priority?

A

Always selected guidance

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3
Q

What are the two parts of the FMGC?

A

Flight management and Flight guidance

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4
Q

What is the pilots main interface with the FMGS?

A

The MCDU

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5
Q

What are the three modes of operation for the FMGC?

A
  • Dual
  • Independent
  • Single
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6
Q

What causes independent mode of operation?

A

Mismatch in database validity or program compatibility.

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7
Q

What is the indication of independent mode of operation?

A

Amber “Independent Operation” on MCDU scratchpad.

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8
Q

What is the indication of single mode of operation of the FMGC?

A

“OPP FMGC IN PROCESS” on MCDU scratchpad

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9
Q

What causes single mode of operation of the FMGC?

A

Failure of one FMGC

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10
Q

Which FMGC is master with one autopilot engaged?

A

Onside FMGC

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11
Q

Which FMGC controls the FMAs?

A

Master FMGC controls both FMA 1 and 2

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12
Q

How is managed guidance indicated on the FCU?

A

Associated display window has dashes with a white managed dot next to it.

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13
Q

How is selected guidance of a mode engaged?

A

Turning control knob to set desired value, then pulling it out.

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14
Q

How is managed NAV mode armed indicated?

A

By blue NAV on second line of lateral FMA

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15
Q

Will the display in altitude window show dashes in a managed climb or descend?

A

No

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16
Q

Is it possible to be in a managed vertical mode and a selected lateral mode?

A

No

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17
Q

What is the meaning of an ALT indication in magenta on the second line of the vertical FMA?

A

Target altitude for level off is a constraint

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18
Q

What is the meaning of an ALT indication in blue on the second line of the vertical FMA?

A

Target altitude for level off is the FCU armed altitude

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19
Q

What is the meaning of a FMA “FINAL APP NAV” in blue?

A

Managed non-precision approach is armed

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20
Q

When can two autopilots be engaged?

A

ILS mode armed or engaged

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21
Q

What is the indication of A/THR armed?

A

A/THR displayed in blue in the fifth column of the FMA

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22
Q

How is the FM position calculated?

A

Each FMGC computes FM position from MIX IRS position and radio or GPS position.

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23
Q

What is GPIRS position?

A

Hybrid MIX IRS/GPS position calculated by each IRS

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24
Q

What is the bias in navigation?

A

Vector calculated from MIX IRS to GPIRS or Radio position. Applied to MIX IRS position to calculate FM position.

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25
What is the significance of the Navigation Accuracy high or low?
High - Estimated Position Uncertainty (EPU) within RNP. | Low - Estimated Position Uncertainty (EPU) outside RNP.
26
What is meant by the message "GPS PRIMARY"
- Accuracy HIGH | - Integrity criterion met (FDE RAIM)
27
When is the ILS autotuned?
- Departure runway has an associated ILS, or | - Arrival in flight plan has an ILS
28
What is normal IRS alignment time?
10 minutes
29
How long is the fast alignment time?
30 seconds
30
When is the ADF autotuned?
When the flight plan has a NDB approach and a fix in the approach is the TO waypoint.
31
How many DME frequencies are used by the FMGC?
5
32
When do the FD bars become visible?
Pitch bar - T/O thrust applied | Roll bar - Soon after liftoff
33
When is the yaw bar visible?
< 30' RA with a localizer signal
34
What happens with the FD with the failure of one FMGC?
Valid FD will be supplied to both PFD from functioning side. 1 FD 1 or 2 FD 2 on FMA.
35
What is the indication of a lost G/S and/or localizer signal?
FD bars will flash continuously
36
What is the earliest the A/P can be engaged?
5 seconds after liftoff but not before 100'
37
How are the A/P signals distributed from FCU to the F/CTL computers?
From FCU - FMGCs - ELACs and FACs - SECs and BCSU
38
How can the autopilot be disengaged?
- Side stick takeover pushbutton - A/P button on FCU - Side stick or rudder moved beyond limit - MDA -50' on managed NPA - High speed protection active - AOA protection active - Bank angle >45°
39
How can the A/THR be deactivated but remain armed?
Moving thrust levers forward of Climb detent.
40
What is the indication of A/THR armed?
Blue A/THR in the fifth column of FMA
41
What are the different A/THR modes?
- Thrust - Speed/Mach - Retard
42
What are the different settings of the A/THR thrust mode?
- MCT - CLB - IDLE - THR
43
Will altitude constraints be taken into account in OP climb or descent mode?
No
44
Which thrust setting will be used in OP descent?
Idle thrust
45
When does Altitude Hold mode engage from Altitude Aquire mode?
When within 20' of target altitude.
46
What speed will be used in Expedite Climb or Expedite Descent mode?
Climb - Green dot | Descent - 340kts / M0.80
47
How is expedite mode cancelled?
- Engage open climb/descent (Pull alt selector) - Engage managed climb/descent (Push alt selector) - Engage vertical speed mode (Pull V/S selector) - Activate selected speed (Pull speed selector)
48
Is V/S and FPA a managed or selected mode?
Selected only
49
Does speed mode or V/S mode have priority?
V/S mode has priority
50
When will managed NAV engage if armed before takeoff?
At 30'
51
When will RWY mode engage and what does it provide?
Engages on takeoff run, provides yaw bar and guidance up to 30'.
52
When will RWY TRACK mode engage?
At 30' unless NAV mode was armed before takeoff.
53
What is the speed target for pitch in SRS mode?
2 engines - V2 + 10kts | 1 engine - V2 or current speed
54
What are the pitch limits for SRS mode?
Maximum 18°NU | Minimum 120 ft/min
55
When does the LAND mode engage?
400'
56
When does the FLARE mode engage?
40'
57
When does the ROLLOUT mode engage?
Touchdown
58
How can the LAND mode be disengaged?
Only by selecting Go-Around mode
59
How long will FINAL APP mode provide guidance?
To MDA-50' or 400' (with no MDA selected) | - Autopilot disconnects and F/D reverts to HDG V/S.
60
When is the G/S mini function available?
On approach in managed speed
61
With the G/S mini function active, what speed will be maintained on approach?
Vapp + difference between reported wind and actual wind.
62
How is G/A mode engaged?
By moving the thrust levers to the TOGA detent
63
Which vertical and lateral modes will be engaged at TOGA?
SRS vertical and GA TRK lateral
64
Which speed will be maintained by SRS in G/A?
Higher of Vapp or the speed upon activation of TOGA
65
What is the minimum A/P disengage height for a CAT 1 approach?
160' AGL
66
What is the minimum A/P disengage height for a CAT 2 approach?
80' AGL
67
What is the minimum A/P disengage height for a NPA approach?
MDA
68
What are the CAT II/III wind limitations?
Headwind - 30kts Crosswind - 20kts Tailwind - 10kts
69
When does the approach phase activate?
When overflying the DECEL pseudo waypoint with NAV mode engaged <9.500'

Airbus 320 (15 decks)

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