AVIXA - Audiovisual Networking Professional Certification (ANP) Exam Questions

Question 1

What is the main limitation of AVB?

• Latency
• Bandwidth reservation requirements
• Security
• Clock inaccuracy

Answer 1

Bandwidth reservation requirements

Question 2

Which is the most widely used layer 3 protocol for Audio transport in networks?
* Dante
* Audio Video Bridging (AVB)
* Ethersound
* Cobranet

Answer 2

Dante

Question 3

A layer 2 protocol can be used to send an AV signal over the internet.
* False
* True

Answer 3

False

Question 4

The addition of a header to a payload is called?
* Fragmentation
* Encapsulation
* Addressing
* Windowing

Answer 4

Encapsulation

Question 5

What is the port number for an HTTP request?
* 80
* 25
* 110
* 23

Answer 5

80

Question 6

A data payload and its header at layer 3 is called?
* Segment
* Bit
* Packet
* Frame

Answer 6

Packet

Question 7

A socket consists of
* IP address and a MAC address
* Port number and window size
* IP address and port number
* MAC address and protocol

Answer 7

IP address and port number

Question 8

Which of the following is a connection-oriented transport protocol with error correction and windowing
* TCP
* LLC
* UDP
* IP

Answer 8

TCP

Question 9

TCP and UDP operate at layer
* 4
* 2
* 5
* 7

Answer 9

4

Question 10

A session between two nodes is established at layer
* 5
* 7
* 2
* 4

Answer 10

5

Question 11

If you don’t know the blanking region, you can best closely estimate it by multiplying the horizontal by vertical pixels by __________.
* 1
* 1.20
* 2
* .666

Answer 11

1.20

Question 12

You need to transport 8-bit, 60 fps, 4:2:0, 1080p (SMPTE blanking of 2200 x 1125) video over your network. This data stream will not be transported over DVI or HDMI. Not factoring compression through CODECs, how much bandwidth does it require?
* 1.49 Gbps
* 1.87 Gbps
* 2.23 Gbps
* 1.78 Gbps

Answer 12

• 1.78 Gbps

Answer: 2200 * 1125 * 60 * 8 * 3 *.50 (4:2:0 = 50% Reduction) = 1,782,000,000 or 1.78 Gbps

Question 13

You need to transport 12-bit, 25 fps, 4:4:4, 4K UHD (3840 x 2160, but SMPTE blanking of 4400 x 2250) video over your SDVoE network. Your system will transport the signal over DVI at some point. Not factoring compression through CODECs, how much bandwidth does it require?
* 3.11 Gbps
* 3.71 Gbps
* 11.1 Gbps
* 9.33 Gbps

Answer 13

9.33 Gbps

Answer: 3840 * 2160 * 25 * 12 * 3 * 1 * 1.25 = 9,331,200,000 or 9.33 Gbps

Question 14

You need to transport 8-bit, 24 fps, 4:2:2, 1080p (VESA Reduced Blanking: 2080 x 1111) video over your network. It will be transported over HDMI. Not factoring compression through CODECs, how much bandwidth does it require?
* 1.7 Gbps
* 1.1 Gbps
* .369 Gbps
* 1 Gbps

Answer 14

• 1.1 Gbps
  Answer: 2080 * 1111 * 24 * 8 * 3 *.666 * 1.25 = 1,108,113,178 or 1.1 Gbps

Question 15

H.264 is:
* A low latency codec
* A lossy codec
* An intraframe compression codec
* A visually lossless codec

Answer 15

• A lossy codec

Question 16

Choose all the visually lossless codecs. (Select all that apply.)
* VC2
* JPEG2000
* H.264
* H.265

Answer 16

VC2
JPEG2000

Question 17

H264/H265 produce a signal with
* Low bandwidth, high latency
* High bandwidth, high latency
* Low bandwidth, low latency
* High bandwidth, low latency

Answer 17

Low bandwidth, high latency

Question 18

The human eye is more sensitive to:
* Dynamic range
* Variations in brightness (Luma)
* Level of blacks
* Variations in color (chroma)

Answer 18

Variations in brightness (Luma)

Question 19

How many pixels does a 4K(UHD) signal have?
* Almost 8.3 million
* Less than 1 million
* Over 2 million
* Over 33 million

Answer 19

Almost 8.3 million
Answer: 3840 * 2160 = 8294400 8,294,400 almost 8.3 millon

Question 20

What percent bandwidth reduction does a 4:2:0 signal have versus a 4:4:4?
* 50%
* 75%
* 66%
* 33%
* 0%

Answer 20

50%

Question 21

Which are the three video properties that are dependent on each other?
* Fps, color palette, HDMI
* HDR, HDCP, bandwidth
* Resolution, latency, bandwidth
* Bit depth, bandwidth, latency
* Bandwidth, latency, image quality

Answer 21

Bandwidth, latency, image quality

Question 22

Reorder the codecs in terms of achievable bandwidth from highest to lowest.
VC2
H.264
JPEG2000
H.265
Blue River

Answer 22

1) Blue River (9 Gbps)
2) VC2 (900 Mbps)
3) JPEG2000 ( 200 - 900 Mbps)
4) H.264 ( 300:1 Compression Ratio)
5) H.265 ( 15 - 50 Mbps)

Question 23

DHCP with reservations requires ___________.
* a Layer 2 switch
* a DNS server
* devices that support DHCP
* zero touch provisioning

Answer 23

devices that support DHCP

Question 24

Hostnames for the internal corporate network can be associated to IP addresses with a ___________.
* DHCP with reservations system
* client static address
* DNS server
* firewall

Answer 24

DNS server

Question 25

An “IP address conflict” occurs when ___________. * DHCP and DHCP with reservations are used on the same subnet * two devices are assigned the same IP address * DHCP and static IP addresses used are on the same subnet * devices lose their DHCP lease and get a new IP address

Answer 25

two devices are assigned the same IP address

Question 26

“Zero touch provisioning” refers to ___________. * Installing equipment without an IP address * Installing network equipment without sending a technician * Submitting a work order for DHCP with reservation assignment * Getting a device’s MAC address without opening the box

Answer 26

Installing network equipment without sending a technician

Question 27

To implement DHCP with reservations, IT needs ___________. * IP address * MAC Address * equipment manufacturer and IP address * device name and MAC address

Answer 27

MAC Address

Question 28

DHCP Addresses always change ___________. * at the end of every week * when the lease expires * when hardware is rebooted * none of the above

Answer 28

none of the above

Question 29

Static IP addresses are preferred by ___________. * IT networking teams * Integrators * Project sponsors * End users

Answer 29

Integrators

Question 30

Enterprise IT teams will provide ___________. * Login access to routers for you to setup IP addresses * IP address configuration information for your devices * Static MAC addresses * MAC addresses of your AV equipment

Answer 30

IP address configuration information for your devices

Question 31

A sender using IntServ QoS, requests all the necessary resources at once for all flows. * False * True

Answer 31

True

Question 32

RSVP means * Reliable Sending Video Protocol * Resource Reservation Protocol * Session initiation Protocol * Please answer the invitation

Answer 32

Resource Reservation Protocol

Question 33

Switches have only 2 queues: priority and best effort * False * True

Answer 33

False

Question 34

Networks by default provide best effort delivery * False * True

Answer 34

True

Question 35

Dante does not implement QoS for their Audio over IP solution * False * True

Answer 35

False

Question 36

Which of the following parameters influence QoS in a network (select all that apply) * Use of VLANs * Jitter * Dropped packets * Web browser selected (Edge vs. Chrome)

Answer 36

Jitter Dropped packets

Question 37

DiffServ advantages are (select all that apply) * Easy to scale * Allows for granularity in QoS * Uses RSVP Path * Require many resources

Answer 37

Easy to scale Allows for granularity in QoS

Question 38

DiffServ in routers is implemented using * CoS codes * DSCP codes * Port 80 * VLAN tags

Answer 38

DSCP codes

Question 39

Videoconferencing has a higher QoS level than VoIP * False * True

Answer 39

False

Question 40

Quality of Service in networking means * Measuring jitter * Best effort delivery * User beware * Implementing a “priority of service” system

Answer 40

* Implementing a “priority of service” system

Question 41

The goal for the next ITU/ISO codec is _____. * Same bandwidth of H.265, but better image quality * 50% reduction in bandwidth versus H.265 * 75% reduction of bandwidth versus H.265 * 25% reduction of bandwidth versus H.265

Answer 41

50% reduction in bandwidth versus H.265

Question 42

Video compression CODECs fall into which two categories? * Statistical and intraframe * Lossy and visually lossless * Lossless and visually lossless * High and low color gamut

Answer 42

Lossless and visually lossless

Question 43

Blue River NT compression _____. (Select all that apply.) * Produces very low latency signals * Outputs low image quality signals * Requires a 10G network * Is very inexpensive

Answer 43

Produces very low latency signals Requires a 10G network

Question 44

JPEG2000 produces compressed signals that have _____. (Select all that apply.) * High latency * Good image quality * Low bandwidth * High bandwidth

Answer 44

Good image quality High bandwidth

Question 45

H.264 produces compressed signals that have _____. (Select all that apply.) * High image quality * High latency * Low bandwidth * High bandwidth

Answer 45

High latency Low bandwidth

Question 46

Intraframe compression _____. * Uses each full frame in the compression process * Selects a key frame and looks at variations in the following frames * Is lossless compression * Results in low bandwidth signals

Answer 46

Uses each full frame in the compression process

Question 47

Interframe compression _____. * Is lossless compression * Uses each full frame in the compression process * Results in high bandwidth signals * Selects a key frame and looks at variations in the following frames

Answer 47

Selects a key frame and looks at variations in the following frames

Question 48

The three interrelated parameters of compression are _____. * Frame rate, color bit depth, and latency * Chroma subsampling, latency, and bandwidth * Image quality, color gamut, and latency * Bandwidth, latency, and image quality

Answer 48

Bandwidth, latency, and image quality

Question 49

Google VP9 codec _____. (Select all that apply.) * Is also called AV1 * Is royalty free * Is used in YouTube videos * Is an intraframe codec

Answer 49

Is royalty free Is used in YouTube videos

Question 50

A correct traceroute response guarantees connectivity between host and destination * False * True

Answer 50

False

Question 51

Ipconfig can be used to test * Determine if a node is in the right subnet * Identifying issues with the DHCP server * Check if your NIC is working properly * Finding problems with the route from host to the destination

Answer 51

Determine if a node is in the right subnet Identifying issues with the DHCP server Check if your NIC is working properly

Question 52

Pinging the loopback address (127.0.0.1) is used to * Testing the DNS server * Determine if a mac address is in the ARP table * Identifying issues with the DHCP server * Check if your NIC is working properly

Answer 52

Check if your NIC is working properly

Question 53

A data distribution method that forwards a data stream only to devices subscribed to the stream is: * Multicast * Unicast * Broadcast

Answer 53

Multicast

Question 54

A local network can have more than one IGMP querier. * True * False

Answer 54

False - In a local network, there can be multiple IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) queriers, but typically only one should be active at a time for a given multicast group. The IGMP querier is responsible for managing multicast group memberships and querying hosts to determine which multicast groups are active. If multiple queriers are present, they use a selection process to determine which one will take the role of the active querier.

Question 55

A multicast address that follows best practices would be: * 192.2.0.1 * 239.2.0.1 * 255.1.0.1

Answer 55

239.2.0.1 Addresses in the range 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 are designated for multicast use, with 239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 being reserved for administratively scoped multicast (private use).

Question 56

The data distribution method that forwards a single data stream to every device on a subnet is: * Broadcast * Unicast * Multicast

Answer 56

Broadcast

Question 57

The data distribution method that sends a separate data stream to each destination device is: * Unicast * Multicast * Broadcast

Answer 57

Unicast

Question 58

Which are true statements about User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Select all that apply.) * Is used for multicast * Keeps sending content even if data is lost * Ensures no data is lost * Is real time

Answer 58

Is used for multicast Keeps sending content even if data is lost Is real time

Question 59

A connection oriented protocol that ensures that no data is lost is: * IGMP * TCP * UDP

Answer 59

TCP

Question 60

Service Level Agreements describe ______________ * Meeting times and payment schedules * Scope of responsibilities and support response times * System designs and equipment models * System performance specifications, network topologies, and truck roll policies

Answer 60

Scope of responsibilities and support response times

Question 61

“Sneakernet” describes ___________. * Access to equipment closets * Subnets with devices that have access to the internet * SLA response times within the same building * Transferring files by walking up to equipment

Answer 61

Transferring files by walking up to equipment

Question 62

“Least Services” and “Least Permissions” do not include policies like ____________. * Providing users with access to only the systems they need * Having the fewest authorized users on a network * Turning off an unused web server * SLA response times

Answer 62

SLA response times

Question 63

Network security teams describe integrity measures as _____________. * Protecting information from unauthorized access or misuse * Protecting information from changes or deletions * Ensuring reliable and uninterrupted access to systems * Making sure that users can’t connect to the network without permission

Answer 63

Protecting information from changes or deletions

Question 64

Infrastructure Engineering teams deal with ____________. * User authorization, network traversal, and physical topology * Network routers, network traversal, and logical topology * Network security, logical topology, and conduit * Cabling, length of runs, and physical topology

Answer 64

Cabling, length of runs, and physical topology

Question 65

During the IT needs analysis phase, you avoid talking about____________. * AV project ideas * Specific equipment * Security requirements * Bandwidth requirements

Answer 65

Specific equipment

Question 66

A Key security principle for network IT teams is abbreviated with the CIA acronym. This refers to_______, __________, __________. * coexistence, integrity, availability * coexistence, integrity, access * confidentiality, integrity, availability * confidentiality, inspection, access

Answer 66

confidentiality, integrity, availability

Question 67

Which of the following is not an option for managing traffic coexistence issues? * Putting equipment on network without IT consent * Isolating traffic with an airgapped network * Putting AV traffic alongside corporate traffic * Creating an AV subnet

Answer 67

Putting equipment on network without IT consent

Question 68

An AV person should expect that all IT departments will provide to the AV team * MAC information * None of the above * Superuser permissions to the network * Security policies

Answer 68

None of the above

Question 69

Security is ___________. * Not an important concern when the AV network is airgapped from the corporate LAN. * Always a key topic of your needs analysis. * Outside of AV project scope. * Considered at the end of the project.

Answer 69

Always a key topic of your needs analysis.

Question 70

Why might AVoIP be preferable to a matrix switcher? (Select all that apply.) * Ability to pass uncompressed video data * Virtual Architecture * Flexibility * Expandability * Remote Control

Answer 70

Virtual Architecture * Flexibility * Expandability * Remote Control

Question 71

High image quality and low latency are typically associated with * 10G networks * Cobranet * 1G networks * Any Ethernet network

Answer 71

10G networks

Question 72

10G networks are difficult to deploy * True * False

Answer 72

False

Question 73

Most point to point applications are suitable for AVoIP * True * False

Answer 73

False

Question 74

What are the advantages of an AVoIP system? (Select all that apply.) * Lack of standards * Virtual architecture * Remote, centralized control * Limited distance

Answer 74

Virtual architecture Remote, centralized control

Question 75

One method to segregate AV traffic on a network is: * VLAN * Using a router * VPN * Trunking

Answer 75

VLAN

Question 76

What does it mean to have a fully non-blocking switch? * All protocol ports are open * Ports have variable bandwidth as a function of usage * All ports have the full bandwidth of the switch * Switch has a 1G uplink port

Answer 76

All ports have the full bandwidth of the switch

Question 77

Which of the following is true about subnets (select of that apply) * /20 CIDR allows more subnets than /24 CIDR * Subnets improve performance by reducing broadcasts domains * You need a router to communicate between subnets * Subnets use 802.1q trunking to communicate between switches

Answer 77

Subnets improve performance by reducing broadcasts domains You need a router to communicate between subnets

Question 78

Which of the following is correct (select all that apply) * Members of the same VLAN have to be physically connected to the same switch * Static VLAN assignment is easier than Dynamic * Unmanaged switches are used to set up VLANs * VLANs create virtual switches

Answer 78

Static VLAN assignment is easier than Dynamic VLANs create virtual switches

Question 79

Dynamic VLAN port assignment requires a * DNS server * VMPS server * DHCP server * Is not allowed

Answer 79

VMPS server | VMPS, or VLAN Management Policy Server, is a feature used in networking

Question 80

Which of the following is a CIDR address * 11000000101010000000101000000001 * 192.165.1.24 * 2001:0db8:3c4d:0015:0000:0000:1a2f:1a2b * 192.168.1.58/20

Answer 80

192.168.1.58/20

Question 81

Nodes in different VLANs can communicate without the need of a router * False * True

Answer 81

False

Question 82

Which of the following is a trunking protocols used with VLANs * 802.3 * 802.1q * 802.1AS * 802.11a

Answer 82

802.1q

Question 83

Which of the following are reasons to subdivide a network (choose all that apply) * Use of unmanaged switches * Hardware savings * Performance * Security

Answer 83

Performance Security

Question 84

Subnetting is a ______ solution to subdivide a network * Layer two * Layer four * Layer three * Layer one

Answer 84

Layer three

Question 85

A VLAN is a _______ solution to subdivide a network * Layer four * Layer three * Layer two * Layer one

Answer 85

Layer two

Question 86

A 4K, 4:4:4, 10 bit color depth video at 60 fps has an approximate bandwidth of _____. * Lower than 1G * Higher than 10G * Around 12 Mbps * Between 1 and 10 G

Answer 86

Higher than 10G Answer = 4400 * 2250 * 60 * 10 * 3 * 1 = 17,820,000,000 or 17.8 Gbps

Question 87

Can you easily tell the difference between a 4:4:4 and 4:2:0 video signal under normal viewing conditions? * Yes * No * Only if the room is dark enough * Only for 24fps videos

Answer 87

No

Question 88

A signal that has a 33% bandwidth reduction due to chroma subsampling is: * 4:2:0 * 4:4:4 * 4:2:2 * 4:1:1

Answer 88

4:2:2

Question 89

What is chroma subsampling? * A compression CODEC * A bandwidth reduction method based on statistical redundancy * A bandwidth reduction method based on chroma reduction * A subset of the Rec.2020 color space

Answer 89

A bandwidth reduction method based on chroma reduction

Question 90

What does the first “4” in 4:4:4 mean? * The signal has all the Luma information * The signal has all the blue-green information * The signal has all the red minus green information * The bandwidth of the signal has been reduced by 4%

Answer 90

The signal has all the Luma information

Question 91

Applications that require 4:4:4 signals are _____. (Select all that apply.) * Display wall at a stadium * Displays at a sports bar * Brand color accuracy * Medical imaging

Answer 91

Brand color accuracy Medical imaging

Question 92

DVDs and Blu-Ray discs are typically recorded at: * 4:1:1 * 4:2:0 * 4:2:1 * 4:4:4

Answer 92

4:2:0

Question 93

The components of a YCbCr signal are: * R, G, and B * Rec.2020 * Luma and Chroma * Basic Color Palette

Answer 93

Luma and Chroma

Question 94

Chroma subsampling is based on: * Distance of the viewer to the screen * Color Gamut being utilized * Limitations of human hearing * Limitations of human vision

Answer 94

Limitations of human vision

Question 95

A 4:2:0 signal has a reduction of bandwidth relative to the original of: * 33% * 50% * 66% * 25%

Answer 95

50%

Question 96

According to the Nyquist-Shannon Theorem, to be able to digitally reproduce an analog signal the sampling rate has to be greater than: * Triple the frequency of the signal * Double the frequency of the signal * The same as the frequency of the signal * Half the frequency of the signal

Answer 96

Double the frequency of the signal

Question 97

Audio Video Bridging can be routed (layer 3)? * True * False

Answer 97

True

Question 98

Audio requires less processing than video to transport over IP because: * A/D converters are inexpensive * The audio signal is less sensitive to noise * The audio signal has a lower bandwidth than the video signal * Audio uses less bits per sample than video

Answer 98

The audio signal has a lower bandwidth than the video signal

Question 99

AES67 is a * A discovery mechanism * Interoperability standard * A precision clock * Codec

Answer 99

Interoperability standard

Question 100

Which of the following are discovery protocols, mark all that apply: * SAP * QoS * Bonjour * RTP

Answer 100

**SAP** - Service Access Point - A Service Access Point is an interface that allows different layers of a network protocol stack to communicate with each other. It acts as a point of access for services provided by a particular layer, enabling higher-layer protocols to interact with lower-layer protocols. SAPs are commonly used in various networking standards, including those defined by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO). **Bonjour** is a network protocol developed by Apple that enables automatic discovery of devices and services on a local area network (LAN).

Question 101

The main problem of Audio transmission over IP is * Latency * Signal Bandwidth * Availability of CODECs * HDCP

Answer 101

Latency

Question 102

Select the correct chain for transmission of an audio signal over IP * Speakers, network, A/D,D/A, sound * Sound, A/D, network, D/A, speakers * Sound, D/A, network, A/D, speakers * Sound, network, A/D,D/A, speakers

Answer 102

Sound, A/D, network, D/A, speakers

Question 103

What is the bandwidth of an audio signal sampled at 44.1 KHz, 16 bits/sample, stereo * 1.14 Mbps * 1.41 Mbps * 5.64 Mbps * .71 Mbps

Answer 103

1.41 Mbps Answer 44.1 x 16 x 2 = 1411.2 or 1.41 Mbps

Question 104

Bit depth is defined as * Sampling rate of the signal in KB/sec * Number of channels being sampled * Size of the file of the recording in KB * Number of bits per audio sample

Answer 104

Number of bits per audio sample

Question 105

Devices to be installed in an AV network need to be tested for vulnerabilities * During the design phase, before they are installed * When the network is turned on * Never * Once they are installed

Answer 105

During the design phase, before they are installed

Question 106

Accepting trade-offs between security and latency by not using encryption is a best practice * No * Yes

Answer 106

No

Question 107

Which of these protocols is secure * SSH * HTTP * HIPAA * Telnet

Answer 107

SSH - Secure Shell A secure protocol used for secure remote access and management of network devices and servers. It encrypts the communication, making it secure against eavesdropping.

Question 108

What type of tools allow network administrators to attack their own network to check for vulnerabilities * Packet sniffers * Session border controllers * Network protocol analyzers * Vulnerability analysis tools

Answer 108

Vulnerability analysis tools

Question 109

A firewall policy to forbid all traffic except if allowed is called * Default deny * Default allow * Session border controller * Border proxy

Answer 109

Default deny

Question 110

What kind of attack is it when a network resource is bombarded with data packets, making it unavailable * Man in the middle * Phishing * Denial of Service (DoS) * Trojan horse

Answer 110

Denial of Service (DoS)

Question 111

As a security best practice TCP/UDP ports should be * Left open unless there is an attack * Left always open * Always disabled, except for port 80 * Disabled unless the device needs to use them

Answer 111

Disabled unless the device needs to use them

Question 112

It is a best practice to grant users right to access on the basis of * Access request * Open access * Priority access * Least access

Answer 112

Least access

Question 113

Security of the AV system should be discussed * In the final testing phase * In the design phase * In the installation phase * In the program (wants and needs) phase

Answer 113

In the program (wants and needs) phase

Question 114

Security in a networked AV system is the responsibility of * The IT department * Everyone involved in the project * The AV integrator * The customer

Answer 114

Everyone involved in the project

Question 115

An IGMP capable switch is required for: * Unicasting * Trunking * Routing * Multicasting

Answer 115

*Multicasting

Question 116

Order the following protocols in increasing bandwidth of compressed signal: 1) VC2, 2) H264, 3) SDVoE, 4) H265 * 1,2,3,4 * 4,2,1,3 * 4,3,2,1 * 1,3,4,2

Answer 116

1,3,4,2 Here's the reasoning: VC2: Typically has the lowest bandwidth requirements among the listed protocols. SDVoE: This is a standard for AV over IP but generally requires more bandwidth than VC2. H265 (HEVC): Offers better compression than H264, resulting in lower bandwidth usage for the same quality, but generally requires more bandwidth than SDVoE. H264: This generally requires more bandwidth than H265 for similar quality levels. So the order is 1 (VC2), 3 (SDVoE), 4 (H265), 2 (H264).

Question 117

RTP is a protocol for * Layer 2 mac address resolution * Audio transport in Layer 1 * AV signal transport in networks * Encryption of signals

Answer 117

AV signal transport in networks RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol) is a protocol used for delivering audio and video over IP networks.

Question 118

HLS is a protocol * Streaming signals * For timing of signal * Layer 2 transport * To establish a session

Answer 118

Streaming signals HLS (HTTP Live Streaming) is a streaming protocol developed by Apple for delivering audio and video content over the internet.

Question 119

Latency in data sheets is typically measured in * Bytes * Frames * Second * Frames per sec

Answer 119

Second

Question 120

Select the data sheet information relevant to IT (select all that apply) * Resolution of the compressed signal * Ethernet speed * Color space * Resolution of the source signal

Answer 120

Resolution of the compressed signal - Relevant for bandwidth and storage considerations in a networked environment. Ethernet speed - This is crucial for network performance and compatibility.

Question 121

A 4K/UHD signal has a resolution of * 3840x2160 * 4096x2160 * 720x480 * 1920x1080

Answer 121

3840x2160

Question 122

A non-blocking switch * Allows any VLAN tagged signals through * Cannot use IGMP * Restricts the bandwidth of each port to 25% of the totally available bandwidth * Guarantees full bandwidth in every port

Answer 122

Guarantees full bandwidth in every port

Question 123

AVB is based on * Time Sensitive Networking * Layer 3 implementation * Visually lossless codec * Proprietary protocol

Answer 123

Time Sensitive Networking AVB (Audio Video Bridging) is based on IEEE standards that provide improved audio and video streaming over Ethernet networks. Specifically, AVB encompasses several key IEEE standards, including: IEEE 802.1AS: Time synchronization, enabling precise timing across devices to ensure that audio and video streams are synchronized. IEEE 802.1Qav: Traffic shaping to manage and prioritize audio and video streams over the network, reducing latency and jitter. IEEE 802.1Qat: Stream reservation, allowing applications to reserve bandwidth for time-sensitive data streams, ensuring quality of service. IEEE 802.1Q: VLAN tagging, which allows for the separation of different types of traffic on the same network. Together, these standards facilitate the reliable transmission of time-sensitive media, making AVB suitable for professional audio and video applications in networks.

Question 124

What is VC-2 * A transport protocol * A software controller * A type of QoS * A codec

Answer 124

A codec - VC-2 is a video compression standard that is designed for high-quality video encoding and is often used in professional video applications, including broadcasting and post-production. It provides efficient compression while maintaining visual quality, making it suitable for various video workflows.

Question 125

A switch should be capable of providing ____% of the required budget.

Answer 125

120 (120%)

Question 126

Thermal effects are an issue for PoE levels below 60 Watts. * True * False

Answer 126

False

Question 127

What are the advantages of PoE? (Select all that apply.) * Switch redundancy * Centralized, remote control, with networking tools * Safe and convenient * Simple cabling and reduced installation cost

Answer 127

Centralized, remote control, with networking tools Safe and convenient Simple cabling and reduced installation cost

Question 128

PoE Type 3 has a power budget per device at: * 60 W * 90-95 W * 30.8 W * 15.4 W

Answer 128

60 W

Question 129

Wireless devices have a MAC address. * True * False

Answer 129

True

Question 130

If the source device is sending a video stream, it can only send less than a hundred frames per second to the destination. * True * False

Answer 130

False

Question 131

When the destination device receives an ARP request, it will recognize its IP address and ______. * restart immediately * send a unicast reply to the requestor * keep its MAC address hidden from other switches * reply to every endpoint on the local area network

Answer 131

send a unicast reply to the requestor

Question 132

The ARP request is sent ______. * to all the subscribed devices * to all the devices on the local network * only to the device with the matching IP address * to all the devices attached to the same switch

Answer 132

to all the devices on the local network ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) broadcasts a request to all devices in the local subnet to find the MAC address associated with a specific IP address. All devices receive the ARP request, but only the device with the matching IP address will respond with its MAC address.

Question 133

ARP stands for _______. * Address Record Procedure * Address Register Protocol * Address Resolution Protocol * Address Repository Program

Answer 133

Address Resolution Protocol

Question 134

What do you do if a source doesn’t know the MAC address of the destination? * You need to restart the source and destination * You need to perform an update on your destination device * You need to replace the layer 2 switch * You need to correlate the destination IP address with the unknown MAC address

Answer 134

You need to correlate the destination IP address with the unknown MAC address This is typically done using ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), which broadcasts an ARP request on the local network to discover the MAC address associated with the given IP address. The device with that IP address will respond with its MAC address, allowing communication to proceed.

Question 135

When might your network need to use two switches? * If they are on two floors of a building * To send larger frames faster * A client is sending confidential information * To avoid overheating

Answer 135

If they are on two floors of a building

Question 136

Depending on the manufacturer, the active port number on a switch may light up green, yellow, or orange when a device is plugged in. A green light likely means: * A successful connection has been made * You need to replace the cable * There’s a disruption in power supply * It’s testing the connection speed

Answer 136

A successful connection has been made

Question 137

We may refer to our source and destination as endpoints, but sometimes we refer to them as _______. (Select all that apply.) * Nodes * Devices * Clients * Hosts

Answer 137

All these terms can describe the endpoints in a network context: Nodes: General term for any active device on a network. Devices: A broad term that can refer to any hardware component connected to a network. Clients: Typically refers to devices that request services from servers. Hosts: Refers to any device connected to a network that has an IP address.

Question 138

When devices send information to each other using layer two ethernet switches, they are sending _______. * Endpoints * Hosts * Frames * Ports

Answer 138

Frames

Question 139

H.264 is: * A lossy codec * A low latency codec * An intraframe compression codec * A visually lossless codec

Answer 139

A lossy codec

Question 140

Choose all the visually lossless codecs. (Select all that apply.) * H.265 * JPEG2000 * H.264 * VC2

Answer 140

JPEG2000 VC2

Question 141

H264/H265 produce a signal with * Low bandwidth, low latency * High bandwidth, high latency * Low bandwidth, high latency * High bandwidth, low latency

Answer 141

Low bandwidth, low latency Both H.264 and H.265 (HEVC) are designed to provide high-quality video compression, which reduces the bandwidth required for streaming or transmission while maintaining good video quality. While H.265 typically offers better compression efficiency than H.264, both formats are aimed at minimizing bandwidth usage. Latency can vary based on implementation and settings, but generally, they are optimized for lower latency in real-time applications.

Question 142

A higher bandwidth compressed signal has: * Low latency, low image quality * Low latency, high image quality * High latency, high image quality * High latency, low image quality

Answer 142

Low latency, high image quality Higher bandwidth typically allows for more data to be transmitted, which can support higher image quality and lower latency, making it ideal for applications such as real-time video streaming and gaming.

Question 143

The human eye is more sensitive to: * Variations in brightness (Luma) * Variations in color (chroma) * Level of blacks * Dynamic range

Answer 143

Variations in brightness (Luma)

Question 144

How many pixels does a 4K(UHD) signal have? * Almost 8.3 million * Over 33 million * Less than 1 million * Over 2 million

Answer 144

A 4K (UHD) signal has almost 8.3 million pixels. Specifically, the resolution for 4K UHD is typically 3840 x 2160 pixels, which results in approximately 8,294,400 pixels.

Question 145

What percent bandwidth reduction does a 4:2:0 signal have versus a 4:4:4? * 0% * 33% * 75% * 50% * 66%

Answer 145

50%

Question 146

Which are the three video properties that are dependent on each other? * Fps, color palette, HDMI * Bit depth, bandwidth, latency * Bandwidth, latency, image quality * HDR, HDCP, bandwidth * Resolution, latency, bandwidth

Answer 146

Bandwidth, latency, image quality These properties are interconnected because: Bandwidth: Higher bandwidth can allow for better image quality. Latency: Increasing bandwidth can help reduce latency in real-time applications. Image Quality: The quality of the video can be influenced by the available bandwidth and can impact latency if compression techniques are used to fit a higher quality signal within bandwidth limits.

Question 147

What is a network primarily defined as? A) A collection of data packets B) A group of people sharing information C) A collection of interconnected nodes that share data D) A system of electronic devices only

Answer 147

A collection of interconnected nodes that share data

Question 148

What are the two main parts of a network? A) Devices and software B) Nodes and connections C) Users and devices D) Hardware and protocols

Answer 148

Nodes and connections

Question 149

What was the original purpose of ARPAnet? A) To create the Internet B) To allow different computers to communicate C) To provide wireless communication D) To establish video conferencing

Answer 149

To allow different computers to communicate

Question 150

What is circuit switching? A) A method that divides data into packets B) A method establishing a dedicated communication channel C) A method for broadcasting data D) A system for wireless data transmission

Answer 150

A method establishing a dedicated communication channel

Question 151

In packet switching, how is data transmitted? A) In a continuous stream B) In small individual units called packets C) Only during dedicated times D) Using a single channel only

Answer 151

In small individual units called packets

Question 152

What is a key advantage of packet-switched networks? A) They are always faster than circuit-switched networks B) They require less hardware C) They allow multiple devices to communicate simultaneously D) They are easier to set up

Answer 152

They allow multiple devices to communicate simultaneously

Question 153

Which type of network is typically limited to a single building? A) Wide Area Network (WAN) B) Local Area Network (LAN) C) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) D) Personal Area Network (PAN)

Answer 153

Local Area Network (LAN)

Question 154

What unique identifier is used in Local Area Networks? A) IP address B) MAC address C) Device name D) Network address

Answer 154

MAC address

Question 155

What is a Wide Area Network (WAN) primarily used for? A) To connect devices within a single location B) To connect multiple LANs C) To provide local wireless access D) To enhance video quality

Answer 155

To connect multiple LANs

Question 156

Who usually owns the connection media used by a WAN? A) Individual users B) Internet Service Providers (ISPs) C) Private corporations D) Government agencies

Answer 156

Internet Service Providers (ISPs)

Question 157

What is an enterprise network? A) A network only for public access B) A private WAN connecting resources at different locations C) A network with no security features D) A system that cannot communicate with the Internet

Answer 157

A private WAN connecting resources at different locations

Question 158

What happens to MAC addresses when data travels over a WAN? A) They are preserved for identification B) They are stripped from data packets C) They are transformed into IP addresses D) They remain unchanged

Answer 158

They are stripped from data packets

Question 159

What is the primary characteristic of network topology? A) The physical location of devices B) The path data travels to its destination C) The types of devices connected D) The speed of data transmission

Answer 159

The path data travels to its destination

Question 160

What are the two basic categories of network topologies? A) Logical and virtual B) Physical and logical C) Wired and wireless D) Client and server

Answer 160

Physical and logical

Question 161

In a bus topology, how are nodes connected? A) All nodes connect through a single cable B) Each node connects to every other node C) Nodes are connected in a circular manner D) Nodes connect to a central hub

Answer 161

All nodes connect through a single cable

Question 162

What is a key feature of ring topology? A) Nodes connect in a straight line B) Data travels in a circular path C) It is always fully meshed D) Each node connects to a central router

Answer 162

Data travels in a circular path

Question 163

Which topology provides the best redundancy? A) Bus topology B) Ring topology C) Meshed topology D) Star topology

Answer 163

Meshed topology

Question 164

What is a single point of failure in a network? A) A device that enhances performance B) A device whose failure causes the entire network to fail C) A backup device for redundancy D) A redundant connection

Answer 164

A device whose failure causes the entire network to fail

Question 165

In wireless topology, what do transmission lobes refer to? A) The physical cables used B) The RF signals emitted by devices C) The distance between devices D) The network's security features

Answer 165

The RF signals emitted by devices

Question 166

What defines a hybrid topology? A) A combination of wired and wireless connections B) Incorporating multiple topology types C) Using only peer-to-peer connections D) A single point of failure for redundancy

Answer 166

Incorporating multiple topology types

Question 167

In client-server architecture, who provides services? A) The server B) The client C) Both client and server equally D) The network administrator

Answer 167

The server

Question 168

What is a defining feature of peer-to-peer (P2P) architecture? A) Centralized management B) Multiple server roles C) All nodes act as both clients and servers D) Strict security measures

Answer 168

All nodes act as both clients and servers

Question 169

What organization published the IEEE 802 standards for Ethernet? A) Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) B) International Organization for Standards (ISO) C) Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) D) Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)

Answer 169

Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)

Question 170

What is the OSI model primarily focused on? A) Wireless communications B) International networking standards C) Internet usage D) Ethernet cabling specifications

Answer 170

International networking standards

Question 171

What is the primary focus of a needs analysis in network design? A) Identifying the latest technology B) Determining customer needs to meet business objectives C) Establishing limitations and regulations D) Planning the physical layout of the network

Answer 171

Establishing limitations and regulations

Question 172

Which phase of the needs analysis involves data gathering? A) Pre-assessment B) Assessment C) Post-assessment D) Documentation

Answer 172

Assessment

Question 173

What must be documented at the end of the needs analysis process? A) An equipment list B) A full network design C) A list of employees D) A summary of customer needs and system support

Answer 173

A summary of customer needs and system support

Question 174

During which phase do you gauge the success of the network project? A) Pre-assessment B) Assessment C) Post-assessment D) Implementation

Answer 174

Post-assessment

Question 175

What is essential for balancing system security and availability in AV and IT systems? A) High budget allocations B) Advanced technology C) Customer satisfaction D) Understanding customer needs

Answer 175

Understanding customer needs

Question 176

What should be considered when planning the physical topology of a network? A) The latest software updates B) The physical characteristics of the buildings C) The number of users only D) Existing equipment alone

Answer 176

The physical characteristics of the buildings

Question 177

Why is stakeholder buy-in important during the network design process? A) To increase project costs B) To reduce documentation needs C) To maintain open communication and support D) To limit the number of users

Answer 177

To maintain open communication and support

Question 178

What should the needs analysis documentation include at a minimum? A) A complete list of hardware B) A budget breakdown C) An Executive Summary D) User manuals

Answer 178

An Executive Summary

Question 179

What is one major factor in determining customer readiness for a new network? A) The number of devices B) The complexity of the network C) The size of the building D) The available budget and resources

Answer 179

The available budget and resources

Question 180

In network design, what does "top-down design" focus on? A) The physical layout of the cables B) User needs and supported applications C) Security policies D) Equipment brands

Answer 180

User needs and supported applications

Question 181

What type of documentation is essential for tracking cable runs and connections? A) Marketing reports B) Cable documentation schemes C) Employee records D) Financial audits

Answer 181

Cable documentation schemes

Question 182

How does the network's logical topology impact physical connectivity? A) It determines the user roles B) It sets the budget for the project C) It helps identify necessary cables D) It defines the physical location of users

Answer 182

It helps identify necessary cables

Question 183

What is the primary goal of designing a network's logical topology? A) To maximize costs B) To eliminate single points of failure C) To ensure adequate bandwidth for all network parts D) To minimize the number of nodes

Answer 183

To ensure adequate bandwidth for all network parts

Question 184

Why is it beneficial to mirror an organization’s logical business units in network design? A) It improves intra-departmental communication and productivity. B) It complicates network maintenance. C) It reduces the number of LANs needed. D) It makes data transfer slower.

Answer 184

It improves intra-departmental communication and productivity.

Question 185

Who should be consulted to determine electrical requirements for a data center? A) HVAC engineer B) Electrical engineer C) Network engineer D) IT manager

Answer 185

Electrical engineer

Question 186

What is the main concern when addressing cooling requirements for telecommunication closets? A) Heat dissipation and humidity B) Cable management C) Data transfer speed D) Power consumption

Answer 186

Heat dissipation and humidity

Question 187

What does a risk consist of? A) Threat only B) Vulnerability only C) Threat and vulnerability combined D) Vulnerability, threat, and likelihood

Answer 187

Vulnerability, threat, and likelihood

Question 188

What is mitigation in the context of network security? A) Accepting risks without action B) Actions taken to lessen or eliminate the impact of a risk C) Ignoring security measures D) Documenting risks only

Answer 188

Actions taken to lessen or eliminate the impact of a risk

Question 189

Which of the following is NOT part of the CIA triad? A) Confidentiality B) Integrity C) Accountability D) Availability

Answer 189

Accountability

Question 190

What is fault tolerance in network design? A) A method for increasing speed B) A system that can be easily repaired C) The ability to maintain operations despite failures D) A method for reducing costs

Answer 190

The ability to maintain operations despite failures

Question 191

What does Quality of Service (QoS) refer to? A) Managing data traffic to preserve system usefulness B) A measure of network speed C) A type of network security D) A hardware specification

Answer 191

Managing data traffic to preserve system usefulness

Question 192

Which DiffServ class is designed for VoIP traffic? A) Low-priority data class B) Telephony class C) Multimedia streaming service class D) Standard class

Answer 192

Telephony class

Question 193

Why is it important to build security into a network from the outset? A) It complicates the design process. B) It reduces long-term costs and increases security. C) It allows for more users on the network. D) It speeds up data transmission.

Answer 193

It reduces long-term costs and increases security.

Question 194

What should organizations prioritize when using the DiffServ classes? A) Equal treatment for all data types B) Prioritizing time-sensitive traffic over less critical traffic C) Eliminating low-priority data class D) Increasing the number of classes used

Answer 194

Prioritizing time-sensitive traffic over less critical traffic

Question 195

What is the primary language used by computers for data transmission? A) Hexadecimal B) ASCII C) Binary D) Decimal

Answer 195

Binary

Question 196

What does bandwidth refer to in the context of networking? A) The physical size of cables B) The amount of data that can pass through a system in a given time C) The number of devices connected to a network D) The distance data can travel

Answer 196

The amount of data that can pass through a system in a given time

Question 197

Which of the following describes baseband transmission? A) Multiple signals sent simultaneously B) One signal using the entire frequency range C) Signals modulated into sub-frequencies D) Used exclusively for fiber optic cables

Answer 197

One signal using the entire frequency range

Question 198

What is a key characteristic of half-duplex communication? A) Data can flow in both directions simultaneously B) Only one device can transmit at a time C) It is only used for video transmission D) It is a type of simplex communication

Answer 198

Only one device can transmit at a time

Question 199

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing and switching? A) Application Layer B) Network Layer C) Transport Layer D) Presentation Layer

Answer 199

Network Layer

Question 200

How does the OSI model help with troubleshooting? A) It defines hardware specifications B) It provides a roadmap for the data transfer process C) It shows the physical layout of devices D) It eliminates all potential errors

Answer 200

It provides a roadmap for the data transfer process

Question 201

What is the function of Quality of Service (QoS) in a network? A) To increase the physical bandwidth B) To allow multiple devices to connect C) To prioritize certain types of data traffic D) To convert analog signals to digital

Answer 201

To prioritize certain types of data traffic

Question 202

Which type of transmission allows data to flow in one direction only? A) Full Duplex B) Simplex C) Half-Duplex D) Bidirectional

Answer 202

Simplex

Question 203

What type of signal is used for Ethernet baseband transmission? A) Light pulses B) Pulses of DC current C) Radio frequency signals D) Analog waveforms

Answer 203

Pulses of DC current

Question 204

How does broadband differ from baseband? A) Broadband is simpler to implement B) Broadband allows multiple signals over sub-frequency ranges C) Baseband is limited to video signals D) Baseband requires modems

Answer 204

Broadband allows multiple signals over sub-frequency ranges

Question 205

What is a bandwidth bottleneck? A) A type of high-speed connection B) The smallest capacity segment in a network path C) A device that increases network speed D) A network security measure

Answer 205

The smallest capacity segment in a network path

Question 206

Which OSI layer is responsible for ensuring that data is error-free upon arrival? A) Application Layer B) Transport Layer C) Session Layer D) Physical Layer

Answer 206

Transport Layer

Question 207

What is the primary function of a gateway in a network? A) To connect devices within a LAN B) To translate data from one protocol to another C) To store MAC addresses D) To manage traffic within a LAN

Answer 207

To translate data from one protocol to another

Question 208

Which device forwards data between devices not physically connected? A) Switch B) Hub C) Router D) Bridge

Answer 208

Router

Question 209

What distinguishes a managed switch from an unmanaged switch? A) Managed switches have fewer ports B) Managed switches can be configured for network settings C) Unmanaged switches can support VLANs D) Managed switches cannot connect to multiple devices

Answer 209

Managed switches can be configured for network settings

Question 210

Which of the following statements about hubs is true? A) They can send and receive data simultaneously B) They broadcast incoming frames to all ports C) They maintain a MAC address table D) They are faster than switches

Answer 210

They broadcast incoming frames to all ports

Question 211

What is a Network Interface Card (NIC)? A) A device that connects switches to the internet B) An interface that connects a device to a network C) A type of switch D) A storage device for network data

Answer 211

An interface that connects a device to a network

Question 212

What is the maximum bit length of a MAC address? A) 32 bits B) 64 bits C) 48 bits D) 56 bits

Answer 212

48 bits

Question 213

How does a switch maintain efficiency in a network? A) By broadcasting to all devices B) By keeping a lookup table of MAC addresses C) By limiting connections to two devices D) By using half-duplex communication

Answer 213

By keeping a lookup table of MAC addresses

Question 214

What is the main difference between a switch and a hub? A) A switch can operate in full-duplex mode, while a hub can only use half-duplex. B) A hub can connect to wireless devices; a switch cannot C) Switches are more expensive than hubs D) Hubs can connect more devices than switches

Answer 214

A switch can operate in full-duplex mode, while a hub can only use half-duplex.

Question 215

Which of the following best describes a router? A) A device that directs traffic between different networks B) A device that connects devices on the same LAN C) A storage device for network data D) A wireless connection device

Answer 215

A device that directs traffic between different networks

Question 216

What does a wireless access point (WAP) do? A) Connects multiple devices with wired connections B) Allows devices to access a wireless network C) Serves as a router for data packets D) Translates data between protocols

Answer 216

Allows devices to access a wireless network

Question 217

Which type of switch can perform hardware-based routing? A) Unmanaged switch B) Layer 3 switch C) Multilayer switch D) Hubs

Answer 217

Layer 3 switch

Question 218

What is the collision domain in a network? A) A network segment with only one connection B) A network segment where data collisions can occur C) The area covered by a wireless access point D) A private connection between two devices

Answer 218

A network segment where data collisions can occur

Question 219

What defines a server? A) A specific type of hardware B) A role that hardware can play C) A desktop computer D) A type of software

Answer 219

A role that hardware can play

Question 220

Which of the following is NOT typically a function of a server? A) Providing services to other computers B) Running high-end graphics applications C) Storing data D) Managing network resources

Answer 220

Running high-end graphics applications

Question 221

What is the primary component that distinguishes servers from typical PCs? A) Operating system B) Power and memory capacity C) Color and design D) User interface peripherals

Answer 221

Power and memory capacity

Question 222

Which of the following I/O ports is commonly found on servers? A) Ethernet jack (RJ-45) B) HDMI C) VGA D) DisplayPort

Answer 222

Ethernet jack (RJ-45)

Question 223

What type of server handles authentication, authorization, and accounting? A) File Server B) Web Server C) AAA Server D) Email Server

Answer 223

AAA Server

Question 224

What is the main purpose of a DHCP server? A) To store files B) To manage emails C) To assign IP addresses to devices D) To synchronize time

Answer 224

To assign IP addresses to devices

Question 225

Which protocol is primarily used for email services? A) HTTP B) FTP C) SMTP D) SNMP

Answer 225

SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. It is a protocol used for sending and receiving email over the Internet.

Question 226

What type of server provides name resolution for client computers? A) DNS Server B) NTP Server C) File Server D) Database Server

Answer 226

DNS Server Domain Name System. It is the system that translates human-friendly domain names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses that computers use to identify each other on the network.

Question 227

How are servers typically classified by hardware specifications? A) By color and design B) By number of users C) By number of processors D) By operating system

Answer 227

By number of processors

Question 228

What is a characteristic of blade servers? A) They are enclosed and heavy B) They are modular and scalable C) They require individual power supplies D) They are typically used for personal use

Answer 228

They are modular and scalable

Question 229

Which server type is essential for time synchronization in networks? A) DNS Server B) NTP Server C) Email Server D) File Server

Answer 229

NTP Server Network Time Protocol. It is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network.

Question 230

What distinguishes a file server from a database server? A) File servers manage data files for sharing, while database servers host database software. B) Database servers are more powerful than file servers. C) File servers are only for email storage. D) Database servers are not used on networks.

Answer 230

File servers manage data files for sharing, while database servers host database software.

Question 231

What does RAID stand for? A) Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks B) Redundant Array of Independent Disks C) Random Access Independent Drives D) Readable Array of Independent Disks

Answer 231

Redundant Array of Independent Disks

Question 232

Which of the following is a feature of RAID systems? A) Increased graphics processing B) Fault tolerance C) Single drive operation D) Decreased data access speed

Answer 232

Fault tolerance

Question 233

What is a “hot spare” in a RAID configuration? A) A backup power supply B) A drive that is inactive until needed C) A standby drive that automatically replaces a failed drive D) A drive used for temporary storage

Answer 233

A standby drive that automatically replaces a failed drive

Question 234

Which RAID level is primarily known for data mirroring? A) RAID 0 B) RAID 1 C) RAID 5 D) RAID 10

Answer 234

RAID 1 RAID 0:Striping without redundancy. Data is split across multiple drives, improving speed but offering no fault tolerance. If one drive fails, all data is lost. RAID 1: Mirroring. Data is duplicated across two drives. If one drive fails, the data is still available on the other. Offers high fault tolerance but reduces total storage capacity by half. RAID 5: Striping with parity. Data is distributed across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance (can survive one drive failure) while maintaining better storage efficiency than RAID 1. RAID 6: Similar to RAID 5 but with double parity. It can tolerate the failure of two drives, offering greater fault tolerance at the cost of additional storage overhead for parity. RAID 10 (or 1+0): A combination of RAID 1 and RAID 0. Data is mirrored across pairs of drives and then striped. It provides both high performance and fault tolerance but requires a minimum of four drives. RAID 2, 3, and 4: Less commonly used, these levels involve varying methods of striping and parity. RAID 2 uses bit-level striping, RAID 3 uses byte-level striping with dedicated parity, and RAID 4 uses block-level striping with dedicated parity. RAID 50 and RAID 60: These are nested RAID configurations that combine RAID 5 and RAID 0, and RAID 6 and RAID 0, respectively. They offer enhanced performance and fault tolerance.

Question 235

What is the main purpose of a Network Attached Storage (NAS) system? A) To serve as a gaming server B) To connect various networks C) To provide optimized file management over a network D) To replace traditional hard drives

Answer 235

To provide optimized file management over a network

Question 236

Which network type can NAS systems be deployed on? A) Only local area networks (LAN) B) Only wide area networks (WAN) C) Various network types, including VPNs D) Only wireless networks

Answer 236

Various network types, including VPNs

Question 237

What does a Storage Area Network (SAN) primarily focus on? A) Connecting storage devices B) Providing internet access C) Data visualization D) Connecting user workstations

Answer 237

Connecting storage devices

Question 238

What is the primary advantage of a SAN? A) It connects user devices B) High-speed data transfer and low latency C) Increased graphic performance D) Simplicity in configuration

Answer 238

High-speed data transfer and low latency

Question 239

Which category of twisted pair cable supports data transmission speeds of up to 10 Gbps? A) Cat 5e B) Cat 6A C) Cat 6 D) Cat 7

Answer 239

Cat 6A

Question 240

What is the most common connector type used for Cat cables? A) USB B) RJ-45 C) HDMI D) DVI

Answer 240

RJ-45

Question 241

Which of the following is a common transmission problem for copper cables? A) Increased bandwidth B) Electromagnetic interference (EMI) C) Improved connectivity D) Data compression

Answer 241

Electromagnetic interference (EMI)

Question 242

What does the term “crosstalk” refer to? A) Enhanced data speeds B) Interference between adjacent circuits C) A type of network error D) Increased power consumption

Answer 242

Interference between adjacent circuits

Question 243

What is the main advantage of fiber optic cables in networking? A) Lower cost than copper B) High bandwidth and long-distance transmission C) Simplicity of installation D) Flexibility in design

Answer 243

High bandwidth and long-distance transmission

Question 244

What is the primary material used in fiber optic cables to transmit information? A) Copper B) Aluminum C) Glass or plastic D) Fiberboard

Answer 244

Glass or plastic

Question 245

Which of the following describes single-mode fiber? A) Uses LED light for transmission B) Achieves high bandwidth over long distances C) Requires more glass than multimode fiber D) Has a larger core diameter than multimode fiber

Answer 245

Achieves high bandwidth over long distances

Question 246

What is a key disadvantage of using fiber optic cables? A) Limited distance capabilities B) Higher installation cost C) Difficult to terminate D) Susceptibility to electromagnetic interference

Answer 246

Higher installation cost

Question 247

Which fiber connector utilizes a "stab and twist" locking mechanism? A) LC B) ST C) SC D) MPO

Answer 247

ST The "ST" in ST fiber optic connector stands for "Straight Tip." It is a type of connector commonly used in fiber optic networks, known for its bayonet-style coupling mechanism that ensures a secure connection.

Question 248

What type of network does Wi-Fi typically create? A) Point-to-point B) Local area network (LAN) C) Ad hoc D) Wide area network (WAN)

Answer 248

Local area network (LAN)

Question 249

What Standards organization created the Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)? A) The Institute for Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) B) The International Organization for Standards (ISO) C) The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) D) The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)

Answer 249

The Internet Engineering Yask Force (IETF) - creates standards that apply to the Internet and improving Internet usability. IETF cooperates closely with the W3C and the ISO. The IETF produced the Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) and Internet Protocol (IP) suites. They also maintain the Request for Comment (RFC) repository, which defines many TCP/IP protocols.

Question 250

What does PSTN stand for? A) Public Switched Telephone Network B) Private Switched Telephone Network C) Public Signal Transmission Network D) Private Signal Transmission Network

Answer 250

Public Switched Telephone Network

Question 251

Which technology is primarily used for traditional dial-up internet access? A) Fiber optics B) Satellite C) Modems D) Cable modems

Answer 251

Modems

Question 252

What is the maximum download speed offered by the latest dial-up modems? A) 56 Kbps B) 256 Kbps C) 1 Mbps D) 10 Mbps

Answer 252

1 Mbps

Question 253

Which of the following uses digital telephone lines to transmit data? A) Dial-Up Networking B) Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) C) DSL D) All of the above

Answer 253

All of the above

Question 254

What type of internet access does cable internet use? A) Telephone infrastructure B) Cable television network infrastructure C) Satellite connections D) T-carrier systems

Answer 254

Cable television network infrastructure

Question 255

What does SONET stand for? A) Synchronous Optical Network B) Standard Optical Network C) Synchronous Online Network D) Simple Optical Network

Answer 255

Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) is a standardized digital communication protocol used to transmit data over fiber optic networks. It enables high-speed data transfer and is widely used in telecommunications for building high-bandwidth networks.

Question 255

What is a major drawback of satellite internet? A) Slow download speeds B) Limited availability C) High costs and reliability issues due to weather D) Requires fiber optics

Answer 255

High costs and reliability issues due to weather

Question 256

What is the primary purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model? A) Transporting data over long distances B) Managing physical network connections C) Transporting data between nodes in a LAN D) Encrypting network data

Answer 256

Transporting data between nodes in a LAN

Question 257

Which Ethernet standard is capable of transmitting data at 10 Gbps? A) 100Base-T B) 1000Base-X C) 10Base-T D) 10 Gigabit Ethernet

Answer 257

10 Gigabit Ethernet

Question 258

What is the maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size for Ethernet frames? A) 1,500 bytes B) 1,542 bytes C) 9000 bytes D) 64 bytes

Answer 258

1,500 bytes This size includes the payload data and the frame itself, excluding the headers. The Ethernet frame can have a minimum size of 64 bytes and a maximum size of 1,542 bytes; however, the standard MTU for the data payload is set at 1,500 bytes. Additionally, Ethernet supports "Jumbo frames," which can carry more data, usually up to 9,000 bytes, depending on the network configuration and equipment used. Jumbo frames are used to improve network efficiency in environments where large data transfers are common.

Question 259

Which of the following Ethernet speeds is considered "Fast Ethernet"? A) 10 Mbps B) 100 Mbps C) 1 Gbps D) 10 Gbps

Answer 259

B) 100 Mbps

Question 260

What does the shorthand "100Base-T" refer to? A) 100 Mbps Ethernet over twisted pair cabling B) 100 Kbps Ethernet over fiber optics C) 100 Mbps over coaxial cable D) 100 Gbps Ethernet standard

Answer 260

100 Mbps Ethernet over twisted pair cabling

Question 261

What is a VLAN? A) A physical network segment. B) A logical group of devices on separate LAN segments. C) A type of Ethernet switch. D) A network protocol for file transfer.

Answer 261

A logical group of devices on separate LAN segments.

Question 262

Why would a network administrator create a VLAN? A) To increase the physical distance between devices. B) To enable devices to communicate regardless of their physical location. C) To reduce the number of switches in the network. D) To eliminate the need for routers.

Answer 262

To enable devices to communicate regardless of their physical location.

Question 263

What is a primary benefit of VLANs in terms of traffic? A) All devices can communicate freely with one another. B) It allows devices to receive broadcast messages from any network. C) It reduces broadcast traffic that reaches certain groups of devices. D) It simplifies network configurations.

Answer 263

It reduces broadcast traffic that reaches certain groups of devices.

Question 264

What does VLAN tagging help switches identify? A) The total number of devices in a VLAN. B) Whether an Ethernet frame belongs to a specific VLAN. C) The priority level of network traffic. D) The type of switch being used.

Answer 264

Whether an Ethernet frame belongs to a specific VLAN.

Question 265

Which field in the VLAN tag indicates the VLAN to which a frame belongs? A) Tag Protocol ID B) User Priority C) Canonical Format Indicator D) VLAN ID

Answer 265

VLAN ID

Question 266

When requesting a VLAN, what should be clearly stated? A) The total cost of the VLAN setup. B) The purpose behind the request. C) The brand of switches being used. D) The network speed requirements.

Answer 266

The purpose behind the request.

Question 267

What is the default VLAN for switch ports if none are configured? A) VLAN 2 B) VLAN 10 C) VLAN 5 D) VLAN 1

Answer 267

VLAN 1

Question 268

What step should be taken first when setting up a VLAN? A) Assign ports to the VLANs. B) Plan the VLAN requirements. C) Access the switch operating system. D) Save the configuration.

Answer 268

Plan the VLAN requirements.

Question 269

What does the User Priority field in a VLAN tag indicate? A) The number of VLANs. B) The frame's priority level. C) The MAC address format. D) The VLAN number.

Answer 269

The frame's priority level.

Question 270

If a device needs to be moved from one VLAN to another, what must be done? A) It will automatically switch VLANs without any changes. B) The administrator must update the VLAN configuration and port assignments. C) The device will lose connectivity until the switch is restarted. D) The device cannot be moved to another VLAN.

Answer 270

The administrator must update the VLAN configuration and port assignments.

Question 271

How do VLANs enhance network security? A) By allowing all devices unrestricted access to the network. B) By restricting communication between devices on different VLANs. C) By increasing the physical distance between devices. D) By eliminating the need for routers.

Answer 271

By restricting communication between devices on different VLANs.

Question 272

What should an administrator do when updating VLAN configurations? A) Ignore any old configurations. B) Ensure all details of the VLAN request are documented. C) Delete all VLANs and recreate them from scratch. D) Only update the device labels on the switch.

Answer 272

Ensure all details of the VLAN request are documented.

Question 273

What does QoS stand for in networking? A) Quality of Service B) Quality of Signal C) Quantity of Service D) Quality of Speed

Answer 273

Quality of Service

Question 274

What is the primary purpose of QoS? A) To increase bandwidth for all applications B) To manage data traffic and enhance user experience C) To eliminate network congestion D) To prioritize all network traffic equally

Answer 274

To manage data traffic and enhance user experience

Question 275

Which QoS strategy categorizes network traffic into distinct classes? A) VoIP B) DiffServ C) ARP D) TCP/IP

Answer 275

DiffServ Differentiated Services, is a network architecture concept used to manage and prioritize network traffic. It allows network administrators to classify and prioritize data packets based on specific criteria, ensuring that critical applications receive the bandwidth and performance they require.

Question 276

What is the lowest-priority class in DiffServ called? A) High priority B) Low loss C) Best effort D) Critical service

Answer 276

Best effort

Question 277

How does a switch utilize ARP? A) To route packets to different subnets B) To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses C) To prioritize voice traffic D) To enhance security protocols

Answer 277

To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses

Question 278

Which type of delivery option is characterized by one-to-one connections? A) Multicast B) Broadcast C) Unicast D) Layer 3 Delivery

Answer 278

Unicast

Question 279

What is a defining feature of multicast streaming? A) Each client receives a separate stream B) A single stream is sent to multiple clients C) Data is sent only to a single IP address D) It cannot be used on LANs

Answer 279

A single stream is sent to multiple clients

Question 280

What is the role of IGMP in multicast networks? A) It monitors IP address allocation B) It manages multicast subscriptions C) It provides QoS guarantees D) It translates MAC addresses

Answer 280

It manages multicast subscriptions

Question 281

Which protocol is essential for establishing reliable communications in a network? A) UDP B) FTP C) TCP D) DHCP

Answer 281

TCP Transmission Control Protocol, is one of the main protocols of the Internet Protocol Suite. It operates at the transport layer of the OSI model and is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between networked devices.

Question 282

What happens during the ARP process if no device responds to an ARP request? A) The switch will cache the request B) The data will be sent back to the sender C) The data will be forwarded to the router D) The network will crash

Answer 282

The data will be forwarded to the router

Question 283

What type of transport protocol is typically used for multicast streaming? A) TCP B) HTTP C) UDP D) ICMP

Answer 283

UDP User Datagram Protocol, is a communication protocol used across the Internet and in private networks. It operates at the transport layer of the OSI model and is known for its simplicity and speed.

Question 284

What is Power over Ethernet (PoE)? A) A method for wireless data transmission B) A series of IEEE standards for delivering power and data over Ethernet cables C) A protocol for video compression D) A type of Ethernet switch

Answer 284

A series of IEEE standards for delivering power and data over Ethernet cables

Question 285

Which of the following is NOT a method defined by the PoE standard for power transport? A) Power over two pairs carrying data B) Power over unused pairs C) Power over four pairs carrying data D) Power over wireless connections

Answer 285

Power over wireless connections

Question 286

Why is the maximum power that can be delivered to a Powered Device (PD) slightly lower than the standard indicates? A) Due to increased voltage B) Due to voltage drop along the cable C) Due to resistance in switches D) Due to interference from other signals

Answer 286

Due to voltage drop along the cable

Question 287

Which of the following is a key advantage of using PoE? A) Requires specialized cabling B) Simplifies cabling and reduces installation costs C) Guarantees 100% power delivery D) Provides high-speed data only

Answer 287

Simplifies cabling and reduces installation costs

Question 288

What is a significant disadvantage of using PoE in a network? A) Improved data transfer rates B) Insufficient power if the budget is not calculated correctly C) Enhanced safety protocols D) Reduced cabling complexity

Answer 288

Insufficient power if the budget is not calculated correctly

Question 289

What is AVB (Audio Video Bridging) primarily designed for? A) To provide wireless audio solutions B) To deliver real-time audio and video over Ethernet C) To compress video for storage D) To manage network security

Answer 289

To deliver real-time audio and video over Ethernet

Question 290

Which protocol is known for being a proprietary digital audio network layer protocol? A) AVB B) PoE C) Dante D) EtherSound

Answer 290

Dante

Question 291

What Ethernet speed is required for AVB to function effectively? A) 10 Mbps B) 100 Mbps or better C) 1 Gbps only D) 10 Gbps

Answer 291

100 Mbps or better

Question 292

How does Dante prioritize audio data during transmission? A) By creating separate networks for audio B) Using proprietary switches only C) Employing VoIP DiffServ categories for prioritization D) Requiring dedicated bandwidth

Answer 292

Employing VoIP DiffServ categories for prioritization

Question 293

Which of the following statements about Q-Sys is true? A) It requires a separate network for operation B) It primarily focuses on video transport C) It is compatible with both AVB and Dante D) It operates only at 10 Gbps

Answer 293

It is compatible with both AVB and Dante

Question 294

What type of topology is typically used in Q-Sys networks? A) Ring topology B) Star or extended star topology C) Mesh topology D) Hybrid topology

Answer 294

Star or extended star topology

Question 295

Which of the following protocols is non-routable? A) AVB B) Dante C) EtherSound D) Q-Sys

Answer 295

EtherSound is a proprietary digital audio protocol developed by Digigram, primarily used for transporting real-time audio and control data over local area networks (LANs).

Question 296

What is the primary function of the Network Layer in the OSI model? A) Data encryption B) Addressing and routing of data packets C) Physical transmission of data D) Application-level communication

Answer 296

Addressing and routing of data packets

Question 297

Which version of IP addresses is primarily focused on for contemporary AV purposes? A) IPv1 B) IPv4 C) IPv5 D) IPv6

Answer 297

IPv4 "Internet Protocol version 4." It is one of the core protocols of the Internet Protocol Suite and is primarily used for identifying devices on a network through an addressing system. IPv4 uses a 32-bit address scheme, allowing for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses.

Question 298

What does the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) do? A) Encrypts data packets B) Resolves logical IP addresses to physical MAC addresses C) Monitors network traffic D) Manages IP address assignments

Answer 298

Resolves logical IP addresses to physical MAC addresses

Question 299

What happens to a packet if it exceeds the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU)? A) It is dropped B) It is encrypted C) It gets fragmented D) It is forwarded without modification

Answer 299

It gets fragmented

Question 300

What is the main role of routing protocols in a network? A) To establish IP addresses B) To decide the best paths for data packets C) To encrypt data packets D) To monitor bandwidth usage

Answer 300

To decide the best paths for data packets

Question 301

Which of the following protocols sends error messages and diagnostics for network issues? A) ARP B) TCP C) ICMP D) UDP

Answer 301

ICMP "Internet Control Message Protocol." It is a network layer protocol used for diagnostic and error-reporting purposes in Internet Protocol (IP) networks. ICMP is defined in RFC 792 and is primarily used to send messages about network conditions, such as when a packet fails to reach its destination. For example, if a packet's time-to-live (TTL) expires, ICMP can send a "time-to-live exceeded" message back to the sender, indicating that the packet did not reach its intended destination. ICMP is crucial for network troubleshooting and managing connectivity issues.

Question 302

What is a datagram in the context of IP? A) A type of encryption method B) An intact packet before fragmentation C) A physical layer device D) A routing protocol

Answer 302

An intact packet before fragmentation

Question 303

Which type of routing protocol analyzes the entire WAN to determine the best path? A) Distance-vector Routing B) Link-State Routing C) Static Routing D) Dynamic Routing

Answer 303

Link-State Routing

Question 304

What is the purpose of caching in the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)? A) To store IP addresses permanently B) To speed up the resolution of MAC addresses C) To encrypt MAC addresses D) To monitor bandwidth usage

Answer 304

To speed up the resolution of MAC addresses

Question 305

What does the Time-to-Live (TTL) field in an IP packet do? A) Encrypts the packet B) Defines the packet size C) Limits the packet's lifespan in the network D) Specifies the destination address

Answer 305

Limits the packet's lifespan in the network

Question 306

What is the role of routers in a network? A) To physically transmit data B) To connect to the internet C) To decide which path packets should take D) To monitor network traffic

Answer 306

To decide which path packets should take

Question 307

Which two layers cooperate to transfer data across networks? A) Application Layer and Presentation Layer B) Transport Layer and Session Layer C) Layer 2 (Data Link) and Layer 3 (Network) D) Physical Layer and Application Layer

Answer 307

Layer 2 (Data Link) and Layer 3 (Network)

Question 308

What is the primary purpose of an IP address? A) To provide a physical address for devices B) To identify a host and its location on a network C) To control data packet routing D) To encrypt network communications

Answer 308

To identify a host and its location on a network

Question 309

Which version of IP addresses uses a 32-bit addressing scheme? A) IPv6 B) IPv5 C) IPv4 D) IPv3

Answer 309

IPv4

Question 310

What does the notation 192.168.1.1 represent? A) An IPv6 address B) A MAC address C) An IPv4 address in dot-decimal notation D) A network address

Answer 310

An IPv4 address in dot-decimal notation

Question 311

In binary, how many bits are there in an IPv4 address? A) 16 bits B) 64 bits C) 32 bits D) 128 bits

Answer 311

32 bits

Question 312

What is the main benefit of hexadecimal notation for IP addresses? A) It is easier for machines to read B) It allows for more compact representation of large numbers C) It simplifies network routing D) It enhances security

Answer 312

It allows for more compact representation of large numbers

Question 313

What is a netmask used for? A) To encrypt IP addresses B) To identify which parts of an IP address represent the network and host C) To translate IPv4 to IPv6 D) To convert binary numbers to decimal

Answer 313

To identify which parts of an IP address represent the network and host

Question 314

How does Network Address Translation (NAT) help with IP address usage? A) It increases the number of public IP addresses available B) It allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address C) It eliminates the need for IP addresses entirely D) It restricts network access

Answer 314

It allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address

Question 315

Which of the following is NOT a component of an IP address? A) Host identifier B) Network identifier C) Broadcast identifier D) Netmask

Answer 315

Broadcast identifier

Question 316

What does CIDR stand for, and what is its purpose? A) Classless Inter-Domain Routing; it allows for variable-length subnet masks B) Classful Inter-Domain Routing; it restricts address allocation C) Control Inter-Domain Routing; it regulates IP address assignments D) Classful Internal Data Representation; it standardizes address formats

Answer 316

Classless Inter-Domain Routing; it allows for variable-length subnet masks

Question 317

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address? A) 192.168.1.1 B) 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 C) 255.255.255.255 D) 10.0.0.1

Answer 317

B) 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334

Question 318

What is the maximum number of devices that can be addressed using a single IPv4 address? A) 4.3 billion B) 256 C) 65,536 D) 16.7 million

Answer 318

4.3 billion

Question 319

In what notation is the netmask typically expressed? A) Binary B) Hexadecimal C) Dot-decimal D) Octal

Answer 319

Dot-decimal

Question 320

What is the primary responsibility of the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)? A) Allocating domain names B) Managing social media accounts C) Oversight of IP address distribution and reservation D) Monitoring internet traffic

Answer 320

Oversight of IP address distribution and reservation

Question 321

Which of the following is NOT a type of IP address managed by IANA? A) Global addresses B) Reserved addresses C) Temporary addresses D) Private addresses

Answer 321

emporary addresses

Question 322

What is a key benefit of using private IP addresses? A) They are always routable on the internet. B) They allow multiple organizations to use the same address range without conflict. C) They enhance network speed by bypassing NAT. D) They must be unique across the entire internet.

Answer 322

They allow multiple organizations to use the same address range without conflict.

Question 323

What does NAT stand for? A) Network Address Translation B) Network Address Termination C) Network Address Transfer D) Network Address Technology

Answer 323

Network Address Translation

Question 324

Which of the following best describes the purpose of Port Address Translation (PAT)? A) It allows devices to connect to multiple networks simultaneously. B) It translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses for internet access. C) It restricts external access to network devices. D) It manages the broadcasting of messages within a subnet.

Answer 324

It translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses for internet access.

Question 325

What is the function of a broadcast address in a network? A) It identifies a specific device on the network. B) It sends data to all devices within the same broadcast domain. C) It serves as a unique identifier for local testing. D) It connects devices to the internet.

Answer 325

It sends data to all devices within the same broadcast domain.

Question 326

What is the typical loopback address used for network testing? A) 192.168.1.1 B) 10.0.0.1 C) 127.0.0.1 D) 255.255.255.255

Answer 326

127.0.0.1

Question 327

Why might an organization choose to subnet its network? A) To eliminate the need for NAT B) To increase broadcast traffic C) To enhance network security and efficiency D) To create more global IP addresses

Answer 327

To enhance network security and efficiency

Question 328

What does supernetting involve? A) Splitting a network into smaller subnets B) Combining multiple networks into a larger one C) Creating unique private addresses for each device D) Allocating temporary IP addresses

Answer 328

Combining multiple networks into a larger one

Question 329

In the context of subnetting, what does extending the subnet mask accomplish? A) Increases the number of available public IP addresses B) Reduces the size of the network C) Creates additional subnets by borrowing host bits D) Allows private addresses to access the internet

Answer 329

Creates additional subnets by borrowing host bits

Question 330

What is a primary reason ISPs subnet classful IPv4 addresses? A) To reduce internet speed B) To conserve IP addresses C) To simplify user access D) To limit network access

Answer 330

To conserve IP addresses

Question 331

Which of the following statements is true about NAT? A) NAT can only be implemented on private networks. B) NAT exposes all devices within a private network to the internet. C) NAT helps manage public and private IP address interactions. D) NAT eliminates the need for a firewall.

Answer 331

NAT helps manage public and private IP address interactions.

Question 332

What is a static IP address? A) An IP address assigned automatically by a server B) A manually assigned permanent IP address C) An IP address that changes periodically D) An IP address reserved for future use

Answer 332

A manually assigned permanent IP address

Question 333

Which of the following is a benefit of dynamic IP addressing? A) More labor-intensive setup B) Reduced possibility of human error C) Permanent IP address assignments D) Requires manual configuration

Answer 333

Reduced possibility of human error

Question 334

What information is typically required to assign a static IP address? A) Only the device's name B) Device's MAC address and desired IP address C) Only the subnet mask D) Default gateway address only

Answer 334

Device's MAC address and desired IP address

Question 335

What does DHCP stand for? A) Dynamic Host Control Protocol B) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol C) Direct Host Configuration Protocol D) Direct Host Control Protocol

Answer 335

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network management protocol used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. This allows devices to communicate on an IP network without the need for manual configuration.

Question 336

What is a benefit of using a DNS caching system? A) It ensures all IP addresses are static B) It prevents network congestion by reducing DNS requests C) It allows devices to have unlimited IP addresses D) It automatically assigns IP addresses to devices

Answer 336

It prevents network congestion by reducing DNS requests

Question 337

In which scenario would you need to collaborate with the IT department for static IP addressing? A) When using dynamic addressing for all devices B) When troubleshooting connectivity issues C) When assigning permanent addresses for critical devices D) When renumbering the entire network

Answer 337

When assigning permanent addresses for critical devices

Question 338

Which method of DHCP address allocation is best for devices needing a consistent IP address? A) Automatic allocation B) Dynamic allocation C) Manual allocation (Reserve DHCP) D) Lease time allocation

Answer 338

Manual allocation (Reserve DHCP)

Question 339

What is the primary function of the Transport Layer in networking? A) Encrypt data for security B) Segment data for transmission C) Monitor network performance D) Manage physical connections

Answer 339

Segment data for transmission

Question 340

What does packet segmentation in networking achieve? A) Increases packet size B) Reduces data loss and improves performance C) Encrypts the data D) Creates network paths

Answer 340

Reduces data loss and improves performance

Question 341

What is the primary function of the Transport Layer in networking? A) Encrypt data for security B) Segment data for transmission C) Monitor network performance D) Manage physical connections

Answer 341

Segment data for transmission

Question 342

What does packet segmentation in networking achieve? A) Increases packet size B) Reduces data loss and improves performance C) Encrypts the data D) Creates network paths

Answer 342

Reduces data loss and improves performance

Question 343

Which Transport Layer protocol is connection-oriented and provides guaranteed delivery? A) UDP B) TCP C) ICMP D) HTTP

Answer 343

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol). It is a core protocol of the Internet Protocol Suite that provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data between applications running on hosts communicating over an IP network.

Question 344

What is a characteristic of connectionless transport protocols? A) They require acknowledgment of data receipt B) They operate on a two-way communication basis C) They do not guarantee delivery D) They are always slower than connection-oriented protocols

Answer 344

They do not guarantee delivery

Question 345

In TCP, what is the purpose of the "handshake" process? A) To encrypt data B) To confirm connection and negotiate terms C) To transmit data D) To segment packets

Answer 345

To confirm connection and negotiate terms

Question 346

What is the role of UDP in network communication? A) To provide guaranteed delivery of data B) To send data without confirming the recipient's connection C) To monitor the health of the network D) To segment large packets into smaller ones

Answer 346

To send data without confirming the recipient's connection

Question 347

What is a socket in a TCP/IP network? A) A physical port on a switch B) The combination of IP address and port number C) A layer in the OSI model D) A type of data packet

Answer 347

The combination of IP address and port number

Question 348

Which of the following best describes the role of the Session Layer (Layer 5) in the OSI model? A) Encrypts data for secure transmission B) Manages communication sessions between applications C) Converts data formats for application compatibility D) Segments data for transport

Answer 348

Manages communication sessions between applications

Question 349

What is the function of the Presentation Layer (Layer 6) in the OSI model? A) Segments data for transport B) Ensures data is formatted for the Application Layer C) Establishes connections between hosts D) Manages data flow control

Answer 349

Ensures data is formatted for the Application Layer

Question 350

Which standard is designed to ensure different audio-over-IP protocols can work together? A) SMPTE 2110 B) AES67 C) NDI D) RTP

Answer 350

AES67 is a standard developed by the Audio Engineering Society (AES) that ensures interoperability between various audio-over-IP (AoIP) systems. It defines guidelines for high-performance audio streaming, focusing on key areas such as synchronization, encoding formats, quality of service (QoS), and connection management. AES67 allows different vendors' systems to work together seamlessly, making it easier to transmit high-quality audio over IP networks.

Question 351

What is the purpose of Adaptive Bit Rate Streaming (ABR)? A) To create multiple streams of different bit rates B) To analyze bandwidth and adjust the stream bit rate accordingly C) To ensure all packets are received D) To provide a fixed bit rate for all transmissions

Answer 351

To analyze bandwidth and adjust the stream bit rate accordingly

Question 352

What does RTP stand for, and what is its primary use? A) Reliable Transport Protocol; used for file transfers B) Real-Time Transport Protocol; used for streaming audio and video C) Routing Transport Protocol; used for network routing D) Rapid Transport Protocol; used for quick data delivery

Answer 352

Real-Time Transport Protocol; used for streaming audio and video

Question 353

What is the primary focus of confidentiality in network security? A) Ensuring the accuracy of information B) Restricting access to sensitive information C) Guaranteeing system uptime D) Detecting intrusions

Answer 353

Restricting access to sensitive information

Question 354

Which of the following best describes integrity in the context of IT security? A) Ensuring data is accessible at all times B) Maintaining the accuracy and reliability of information C) Protecting information from unauthorized access D) Preventing all system outages

Answer 354

Maintaining the accuracy and reliability of information

Question 355

What does availability refer to in network security? A) The ability to modify data B) The degree of access to information C) The acceptable level of information unavailability D) The protection against data breaches

Answer 355

The acceptable level of information unavailability

Question 356

What type of vulnerability does Zero Configuration (Zeroconf) pose in an enterprise setting? A) Overly complex network configurations B) Automatic device connections without manual setup C) Insufficient user training on network access D) Lack of encryption for data transmission

Answer 356

Automatic device connections without manual setup

Question 357

Which of the following is a significant vulnerability related to weak authentication practices? A) Outdated software versions B) Strong, unique passwords C) Insecure password management D) Firewalls not configured properly

Answer 357

Insecure password management

Question 358

Which network vulnerability involves allowing all users unrestricted access to a network share? A) Unprotected Network Shares B) Open Logical Ports C) Weak Authentication Practices D) Open Physical Ports

Answer 358

Unprotected Network Shares

Question 359

What is the main purpose of threat vectors in network security? A) To define types of software vulnerabilities B) To identify how attackers gain access to networks C) To measure the impact of data breaches D) To classify network protocols

Answer 359

To identify how attackers gain access to networks

Question 360

In a phishing attack, what does the attacker typically do? A) Directly attack the network infrastructure B) Manipulate individuals into revealing sensitive information C) Exploit physical vulnerabilities in the network D) Install malware on devices without permission

Answer 360

Manipulate individuals into revealing sensitive information

Question 361

What type of attack involves overwhelming a server with excessive requests? A) Malware B) Social Engineering C) DoS Attack D) Spoofing

Answer 361

DoS Attack Denial of Service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a targeted server, service, or network by overwhelming it with a flood of traffic. The goal is to render the target unavailable to legitimate users, causing downtime and potential loss of revenue or reputation.

Question 362

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a DDoS attack? A) Involves multiple computers attacking a single target B) Overwhelms a system with excessive data packets C) Requires physical access to the target system D) Can involve the use of a botnet

Answer 362

Requires physical access to the target system

Question 363

What is a common characteristic of malware? A) It is always physically installed on the device B) It is a form of malicious software that can harm devices C) It does not require any user interaction to execute D) It only affects network infrastructure

Answer 363

It is a form of malicious software that can harm devices

Question 364

What is the relationship between threats and vulnerabilities in network security? A) Vulnerabilities can exist without threats B) Threats exploit vulnerabilities C) Threats and vulnerabilities are the same D) Vulnerabilities eliminate the possibility of threats

Answer 364

Threats exploit vulnerabilities

Question 365

What are security controls primarily designed to do? A) Increase network speed B) Protect the network from threats C) Enhance user experience D) Automate network management

Answer 365

Protect the network from threats

Question 366

Which of the following is an example of an administrative control? A) Firewall B) Antivirus software C) Security awareness programs D) Intrusion Prevention System

Answer 366

Security awareness programs

Question 367

What does the Zero Trust Framework emphasize? A) Trusting all internal users B) Authentication before granting access to any resource C) Limiting internet access to employees D) Automatic approval of device connections

Answer 367

Authentication before granting access to any resource

Question 368

What is the primary purpose of a firewall in network security? A) To monitor employee productivity B) To prevent unauthorized access and regulate traffic C) To provide internet access to all devices D) To store sensitive data

Answer 368

To prevent unauthorized access and regulate traffic

Question 369

Which firewall approach is considered more secure but harder to configure? A) Default allow B) Default deny C) Open access D) Restricted access

Answer 369

Default deny

Question 370

What does Port Address Translation (PAT) allow devices with private IP addresses to do? A) Access the local network only B) Communicate with external networks using a registered IP address C) Block all incoming traffic D) Encrypt all outgoing data

Answer 370

Communicate with external networks using a registered IP address

Question 371

Which technique involves using rules to determine whether a data packet can pass through a firewall? A) Packet Filtering B) Port Forwarding C) NAT D) Layering

Answer 371

Packet Filtering is a firewall technique used to control network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It involves examining the header of data packets that are transmitted across a network to determine whether they should be allowed to pass through or be blocked.

Question 372

What role do Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) play in network security? A) Prevent unauthorized access B) Encrypt data transmissions C) Alert and report on suspicious activity D) Manage user authentication

Answer 372

Alert and report on suspicious activity

Question 373

What does an Application Layer Gateway (ALG) do? A) Provides physical security for data centers B) Inspects and forwards packets, converting IP addresses as needed C) Blocks all traffic from unrecognized devices D) Monitors employee network usage

Answer 373

Inspects and forwards packets, converting IP addresses as needed

Question 374

What is a key function of a Session Border Controller (SBC)? A) To tunnel videoconference calls through limited ports B) To replace firewalls in network security C) To analyze traffic patterns D) To provide antivirus protection

Answer 374

To tunnel videoconference calls through limited ports

Question 375

Which type of tool is used to collect and process audit logs from various sources? A) Vulnerability Analysis Tool B) Protocol Analyzer C) Audit Tool D) Anti-malware Software

Answer 375

Audit Tool

Question 376

Why might IT departments restrict the use of certain security tools on their networks? A) To improve network speed B) To prevent potential security vulnerabilities C) To enhance user convenience D) To minimize costs

Answer 376

To prevent potential security vulnerabilities

Question 377

What principle guides user access in an enterprise network? A) Maximum Privilege B) Least Privilege C) Shared Privilege D) Administrative Privilege

Answer 377

Least Privilege

Question 378

What is Network Access Control (NAC)? A) A type of firewall B) A method for user authentication C) A set of technologies and policies regulating access and permissions D) A security protocol for wireless networks

Answer 378

A set of technologies and policies regulating access and permissions

Question 379

Which authentication protocol encrypts user credentials during transmission? A) Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) B) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) C) Kerberos D) Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Answer 379

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Question 380

What is the main vulnerability of the Kerberos authentication system? A) Weak encryption B) Single point of failure at the Key Distribution Center (KDC) C) Lack of password support D) Complexity of implementation

Answer 380

Single point of failure at the Key Distribution Center (KDC)

Question 381

What does an Access Control List (ACL) define? A) Network speed limits B) User rights within a network after access is granted C) Firewall configurations D) Bandwidth allocation

Answer 381

User rights within a network after access is granted

Question 382

Which of the following is a characteristic of SSL/TLS? A) It does not require a certificate authority B) It is only used for local area networks C) It encrypts communication over the Internet D) It provides no security features

Answer 382

It encrypts communication over the Internet

Question 383

What is the purpose of hashing in password security? A) To encrypt passwords for storage B) To convert passwords into a unique, irreversible string C) To make passwords easily readable D) To compress passwords for faster transmission

Answer 383

To convert passwords into a unique, irreversible string

Question 384

What type of encryption involves both a public key and a private key? A) Hashing B) Digital signatures C) Private key encryption D) Public key encryption

Answer 384

Public key encryption

Question 385

Which protocol is recommended for securing wireless networks? A) Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) B) Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) C) Secure Socket Layer (SSL) D) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Answer 385

Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)

Question 386

What do Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) primarily use to secure data transmission? A) Physical cables B) Encryption and tunneling C) Firewalls only D) Public networks without encryption

Answer 386

Encryption and tunneling

Question 387

What does the acronym EAP stand for in the context of authentication? A) Extended Access Protocol B) Easy Access Protocol C) Extensible Authentication Protocol D) Encrypted Access Protocol

Answer 387

Extensible Authentication Protocol

Question 388

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS) VPNs? A) Permanent connection requirement B) User-controlled WAN topology C) Ability to transport various data link frames D) Use of QoS class tags

Answer 388

User-controlled WAN topology