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AWS CCP 5 Flashcards

1
Q

A company wants to utilize a pay as you go cloud model for all of their applications without CAPEX costs and which is highly elastic. Which cloud delivery model will suit them best?

  1. Public
  2. Private
  3. Hybrid
  4. On-premise
A
  1. Public
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2
Q

Which AWS support plan provides email support by the Cloud Support Associates team?

  1. Basic
  2. Developer
  3. Business
  4. Enterprise
A
  1. Developer
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3
Q

Which type of data storage system is typically considered to hold “structured” data?

  1. Non-relational database
  2. File system
  3. Email system
  4. Relational database
A
  1. Relational database
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4
Q

Which statements are correct about the retention of Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) volumes when an EC2 instance is terminated? (choose 2)

  1. Root EBS volumes are deleted by default
  2. Root EBS volumes are retained by default
  3. Non-root EBS volumes are deleted by default
  4. Non-root EBS volumes are retained by default
  5. EBS volumes are always deleted
A
  1. Root EBS volumes are deleted by default

4. Non-root EBS volumes are retained by default

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5
Q

What modifications can be made to an IAM access key once created? (choose 2)

  1. Change user
  2. Make active
  3. Add user
  4. Change scope
  5. Make inactive
A
  1. Make active

5. Make inactive

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6
Q

Which options are available for transferring domains with Route 53? (choose 2)

  1. You can transfer domains to Route 53 if the Top Level Domain (TLD) is supported
  2. You can transfer a domain from Route 53 to another registrar through the console
  3. You can transfer any domains to Route 53
  4. You can transfer Route 53 hosted domains to another account
  5. You must register domains through Route 53, you cannot transfer them
A
  1. You can transfer domains to Route 53 if the Top Level Domain (TLD) is supported
  2. You can transfer Route 53 hosted domains to another account
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7
Q

When connecting to AWS over AWS Direct Connect, what the is scope of connectivity enabled? (choose 2)

  1. You can connect to all public and private services in all regions
  2. You can connect to an individual AZ
  3. You can connect to all AZs within the VPC of the local region
  4. You can connect to a specified IP subnet
  5. You can connect to public services in remote regions
A
  1. You can connect to all AZs within the VPC of the local region
  2. You can connect to public services in remote regions
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8
Q

What are the primary benefits of using AWS Elastic Load Balancing? (choose 2)

  1. High availability
  2. Elasticity
  3. Automation
  4. Caching
  5. Regional resilience
A
  1. High availability

2. Elasticity

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9
Q

Which AWS service lets connected devices easily and securely interact with cloud applications and other devices?

  1. Amazon Workspaces
  2. AWS Directory Service
  3. AWS IoT Core
  4. AWS SMS
A
  1. AWS IoT Core
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10
Q

Which AWS service can be used to prepare and load data for analytics using an extract, transform and load (ETL) process?

  1. AWS Lambda
  2. AWS Glue
  3. Amazon EMR
  4. Amazon Athena
A
  1. AWS Glue
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11
Q

Under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following is the customer NOT responsible for?

  1. Adding firewall rules to security groups and network ACLs
  2. Applying encryption to data stored on an EBS volume
  3. Applying bucket policies to share Amazon S3 data
  4. Installing firmware updates on host servers
A
  1. Installing firmware updates on host servers
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12
Q

What is the availability model of Amazon DynamoDB?

  1. Data is synchronously replicated across all regions
  2. Data is asynchronously replicated across all regions
  3. Data is synchronously replicated across 3 facilities in a region
  4. Data is asynchronously replicated across 3 facilities in a region
A
  1. Data is synchronously replicated across 3 facilities in a region
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13
Q

Which of the following constitute the five pillars for the AWS Well- Architected Framework? (choose 2)

  1. Operational excellence, security, and reliability
  2. Operational excellence, elasticity and scalability
  3. Cost prioritization, and cost optimization
  4. Data consistency, and cost optimization
  5. Performance efficiency, and cost optimization
A
  1. Operational excellence, security, and reliability

5. Performance efficiency, and cost optimization

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14
Q

Which type of storage stores objects comprised of key, value pairs?

  1. Amazon DynamoDB
  2. Amazon EBS
  3. Amazon EFS
  4. Amazon S3
A
  1. Amazon S3
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15
Q

What is the relationship between subnets and availability zones?

  1. You can create one or more subnets within each availability zone
  2. Subnets span across multiple availability zones
  3. You can create one subnet per availability zone
  4. Subnets contain one or more availability zones
A
  1. You can create one or more subnets within each availability zone
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16
Q

What is an Edge location?

  1. A public endpoint for Amazon S3
  2. A content delivery network (CDN) endpoint for CloudFront
  3. A virtual private gateway for VPN
  4. A VPC peering connection endpoint
A
  1. A content delivery network (CDN) endpoint for CloudFront
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17
Q

Which service provides alerts and remediation guidance when AWS is experiencing events that may impact you?

  1. AWS Trusted Advisor
  2. AWS Inspector
  3. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
  4. AWS Shield
A
  1. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
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18
Q

Which AWS services form the app-facing services of the AWS serverless infrastructure? (choose 2)

  1. AWS Step Functions
  2. AWS Lambda
  3. Amazon API Gateway
  4. Amazon DynamoDB
  5. Amazon EFS
A
  1. AWS Lambda

3. Amazon API Gateway

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19
Q

Which type of EBS volumes can be encrypted?

  1. Non-root volumes only
  2. Both non-root and root if launched from an encrypted AMI
  3. Only non-root volumes created from snapshots
  4. Any volume can have encryption applied at launch time
A
  1. Both non-root and root if launched from an encrypted AMI
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20
Q

Which AWS service enables developers and data scientists to build, train, and deploy machine learning models?

  1. Amazon Rekognition
  2. Amazon Comprehend
  3. Amazon SageMaker
  4. Amazon MQ
A
  1. Amazon SageMaker
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21
Q

What is the name of the online, self-service portal that AWS provides to enable customers to view reports and, such as PCI reports, and accept agreements?

  1. AWS Compliance Portal
  2. AWS Documentation Portal
  3. AWS Artifact
  4. AWS DocuFact
A
  1. AWS Artifact
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22
Q

Which AWS services have a global (rather than regional) scope? (choose 2)

  1. Amazon S3
  2. AWS WAF
  3. AWS Lambda
  4. AWS CloudFront
  5. Amazon EFS
A
  1. AWS WAF

4. AWS CloudFront

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23
Q

What is the name of the AWS managed Docker registry service used by the Amazon Elastic Container Service (ECS)?

  1. EC2 Container Registry
  2. ECS Container Registry
  3. Docker Container Registry
  4. Docker Image Repository
A
  1. EC2 Container Registry
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24
Q

What are two benefits of using AWS Lambda? (choose 2)

  1. No servers to manage
  2. Integrated snapshots
  3. Continuous scaling (scale out)
  4. Flexible operating system choices
  5. Open source software
A
  1. No servers to manage

3. Continuous scaling (scale out)

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25
Q

What are two correct statements about AWS Organizations with consolidated billing? (choose 2)

  1. Multiple bills are provided per organization
  2. One bill provided for multiple accounts
  3. Linked accounts lose their management independence
  4. Volume pricing discounts applied across multiple accounts
  5. CloudTrail can be configured per organization
A
  1. One bill provided for multiple accounts

4. Volume pricing discounts applied across multiple accounts

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26
Q

Which of the following statements are true in relation to public facing Elastic Load Balancers? (choose 2)

  1. ELB nodes have public IP addresses
  2. ELB nodes route traffic to the public IP addresses of EC2 instances
  3. ELB nodes have private IP addresses
  4. ELB nodes route traffic to the private IP addresses of EC2 instances
  5. Does not require an Internet Gateway
A
  1. ELB nodes have public IP addresses

4. ELB nodes route traffic to the private IP addresses of EC2 instances

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27
Q

Which AWS service can be used to send automated notifications to HTTP endpoints?

  1. Amazon SQS
  2. Amazon SWF
  3. Amazon SNS
  4. Amazon SES
A
  1. Amazon SNS
28
Q

Why would a company choose a NAT Gateway over a NAT instance? (choose 2)

  1. They can be additionally used as bastion hosts
  2. You can use security groups to assign firewall rules to them
  3. They are managed by AWS, not by you
  4. Can be used for port forwarding
  5. They are elastically scalable
A
  1. They are managed by AWS, not by you

5. They are elastically scalable

29
Q

What feature of Amazon S3 enables you to set rules to automatically transfer objects between different storage classes at defined time intervals?

  1. Elastic Data Management
  2. Object Lifecycle Management
  3. Auto Lifecycle Scaling
  4. S3 Archiving
A
  1. Object Lifecycle Management
30
Q

How can an organization scale out write performance for their Amazon Aurora database across multiple availability zones?

  1. Using Read Replicas
  2. By implementing a Multi-AZ configuration
  3. Using Cross-Region Read replicas
  4. By implementing a Multi-Master configuration
A
  1. By implementing a Multi-Master configuration
31
Q

Which cloud model should a company use for an application that has a requirement for a bespoke, specialized hardware configuration?

  1. Private
  2. Public
  3. Hybrid
  4. SaaS
A
  1. Private
32
Q

Which support plan is the lowest cost option that allows unlimited cases to be open?

  1. Basic
  2. Developer
  3. Business
  4. Enterprise
A
  1. Developer
33
Q

What are the AWS best practices for storing large items and attributes in Amazon DynamoDB? (choose 2)

  1. Compress large attribute values
  2. Store large attributes in AWS Lambda
  3. Store large attributes as objects in Amazon S3
  4. Use ElastiCache to cache large attributes
  5. Never store large attributes in DynamoDB
A
  1. Compress large attribute values

3. Store large attributes as objects in Amazon S3

34
Q

How can you configure Amazon Route 53 to monitor the health and performance of your application?

  1. Using DNS lookups
  2. Using Route 53 health checks
  3. Using the Route 53 API
  4. Using CloudWatch
A
  1. Using Route 53 health checks
35
Q

At which layer of the OSI model does a Classic Load Balancer operate at?

  1. Layer 3
  2. Layer 4
  3. Layer 7
  4. Layer 4 & 7
A
  1. Layer 4 & 7
36
Q

Which AWS IAM best practice recommends applying the minimum permissions necessary to perform a task when creating IAM policies?

  1. Create individual IAM users
  2. Use roles to delegate permissions
  3. Grant least privilege
  4. Enable MFA for privileged users
A
  1. Grant least privilege
37
Q

In Amazon EC2, which types of Placement Groups are available? (choose 2)

  1. Cluster
  2. Affinity
  3. Proximity
  4. Spread
  5. Zone
A
  1. Cluster

4. Spread

38
Q

What are the benefits of using IAM roles for applications that run on EC2 instances? (choose 2)

  1. Easier to configure than using storing access keys within the EC2 instance
  2. More secure than storing access keys within applications
  3. Can apply multiple roles to a single instance
  4. It is easier to manage IAM roles
  5. Role credentials are permanent
A
  1. More secure than storing access keys within applications

4. It is easier to manage IAM roles

39
Q

With which service can a developer upload code from a Git repository and have the service handle the end-to-end deployment of the resources?

  1. AWS CodeDeploy
  2. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
  3. Amazon ECS
  4. AWS CodeCommit
A
  1. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
40
Q

Which service can you use to monitor, store and access log files generated by EC2 instances and on-premises servers?

  1. Amazon CloudTrail
  2. AWS OpsWorks
  3. Amazon CloudWatch Logs
  4. Amazon Kinesis
A
  1. Amazon CloudWatch Logs
41
Q

Which type of Amazon RDS automated backup allows you to restore the database with a granularity of as little as 5 minutes?

  1. Snapshot backup
  2. Full backup
  3. Incremental backup
  4. Point-in-time recovery
A
  1. Point-in-time recovery
42
Q

Which combination of AWS services could be used to deploy a stateless web application that can automatically and elastically scale?

  1. EC2, Auto Scaling and Elastic Load Balancing
  2. EC2, CloudFront and RDS
  3. EC2, DynamoDB and ElastiCache
  4. EC2, EBS and Auto Scaling
A
  1. EC2, Auto Scaling and Elastic Load Balancing
43
Q

Which DynamoDB feature provides in-memory acceleration to tables that result in significant performance improvements?

  1. Amazon ElastiCache
  2. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)
  3. Amazon EFS
  4. Amazon CloudFront
A
  1. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)
44
Q

A developer needs a way to automatically provision a collection of AWS resources. Which AWS service is primarily used for deploying infrastructure as code?

  1. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
  2. Amazon CloudFormation
  3. AWS CodeDeploy
  4. Jenkins
A
  1. Amazon CloudFormation
45
Q

Select the statements that are correct in relation to Amazon Route 53? (choose 2)

  1. Amazon Route 53 is an internal elastic load balancer
  2. You can register domain names via Amazon Route 53
  3. Amazon Route 53 does not support SPF records
  4. Amazon Route 53 supports Alias and CNAME records
  5. Amazon Route 53 can be used to connect on-premises data centers to the AWS cloud
A
  1. You can register domain names via Amazon Route 53

4. Amazon Route 53 supports Alias and CNAME records

46
Q

Assuming you have configured them correctly, which AWS services can scale automatically without intervention? (choose 2)

  1. Amazon RDS
  2. Amazon EC2
  3. Amazon S3
  4. Amazon DynamoDB
  5. Amazon EBS
A
  1. Amazon S3

4. Amazon DynamoDB

47
Q

To reward customers for using their services, what are two ways AWS reduce prices? (choose 2)

  1. Volume based discounts when you use more services
  2. Reduction in inbound data transfer charges
  3. Reduced cost for reserved capacity
  4. Discounts for using a wider variety of services
  5. Removal of termination fees for customers who spend more
A
  1. Volume based discounts when you use more services

3. Reduced cost for reserved capacity

48
Q

How can a company connect from their on-premises network to VPCs in multiple regions using private connections?

  1. AWS Managed VPN
  2. AWS Direct Connect Gateway
  3. Amazon CloudFront
  4. Inter-Region VPC Peering
A
  1. AWS Direct Connect Gateway
49
Q

Which AWS components aid in the construction of fault-tolerant applications? (choose 2)

  1. Elastic IP addresses
  2. ARNs
  3. AMIs
  4. Tags
  5. Block device mappings
A
  1. Elastic IP addresses

3. AMIs

50
Q

What offerings are included in the Amazon Lightsail product set? (choose 2)

  1. Virtual Private Server
  2. NoSQL database
  3. Managed MySQL database
  4. Object storage
  5. Serverless functions
A
  1. Virtual Private Server

3. Managed MySQL database

51
Q

Which of the following are advantages of using the AWS cloud computing over legacy IT? (choose 2)

  1. You are able to pass responsibility for the availability of your application to AWS
  2. You don’t need to worry about over provisioning as you can elastically scale
  3. You don’t need to patch your operating systems
  4. You can bring new applications to market faster
  5. You can bring services closer to your end users
A
  1. You don’t need to worry about over provisioning as you can elastically scale
  2. You can bring new applications to market faster
52
Q

Which type of Amazon EBS volume do AWS suggest customers use for the boot volume of most workloads?

  1. General Purpose SSD
  2. Provisioned IOPS SSD
  3. Throughput Optimized HDD
  4. Cold HDD
A
  1. General Purpose SSD
53
Q

What charges are applicable to Amazon S3 Standard storage class? (choose 2)

  1. Per GB/month storage fee
  2. Retrieval fee
  3. Minimum capacity charge per object
  4. Data ingress
  5. Data egress
A
  1. Per GB/month storage fee

5. Data egress

54
Q

An engineer launched a new EC2 instance and it was immediately terminated. What is the most likely reason?

  1. The user does not have the permissions to launch EC2 instances
  2. The AZ does not have any capacity left
  3. The account has reached its On-Demand instance limit for the region
  4. The AMI was deleted
A
  1. The account has reached its On-Demand instance limit for the region
55
Q

How can a company connect their EC2 instances in one region with EC2 instances in another region using private IP addresses?

  1. Inter-Region VPC Peering
  2. AWS Direct Connect
  3. AWS Managed VPN
  4. VPC Peering
A
  1. Inter-Region VPC Peering
56
Q

Which of the following descriptions is incorrect in relation to the design of Availability Zones?

  1. AZ’s have direct, low-latency, high throughput and redundant network connections between each other
  2. Each AZ is designed as an independent failure zone
  3. AZs are physically separated within a typical metropolitan region and are located in lower risk flood plains
  4. Each subnet in a VPC is mapped to all AZs in the region
A
  1. Each subnet in a VPC is mapped to all AZs in the region
57
Q

How can a systems administrator connect to a Linux instance in a private subnet using the Internet?

  1. Deploy a bastion host in a public subnet
  2. Add a public elastic IP address to the instance
  3. Use a NAT Gateway
  4. Update the security group to allow the traffic
A
  1. Deploy a bastion host in a public subnet
58
Q

When designing a VPC, what is the purpose of an Internet Gateway?

  1. Provides Internet access for EC2 instances in private subnets
  2. Enables Internet communications for instances in public subnets
  3. It’s a bastion host for inbound management connections
  4. It’s used for making VPN connections to a VPC
A
  1. Enables Internet communications for instances in public subnets
59
Q

In Amazon CloudWatch, which of the following Amazon EC2 data points requires a custom metric to monitor?

  1. Memory utilization
  2. CPU utilization
  3. Disk write operations
  4. Network packets in
A
  1. Memory utilization
60
Q

Which of the following configuration items are important to enabling an EC2 web server to serve web pages on the Internet? (choose 2)

  1. Security group rules configured to allow HTTP/HTTPS
  2. A private IP address assigned to the instance
  3. Security groups rules configured to allow SSH
  4. A public IP address assigned to the instance
  5. An established VPN connection
A
  1. Security group rules configured to allow HTTP/HTTPS

4. A public IP address assigned to the instance

61
Q

How can a company protect their Amazon S3 data from a regional disaster?

  1. Archive to Amazon Glacier
  2. Use Cross-Region Replication (CRR) to copy to another region
  3. Use lifecycle actions to move to another S3 storage class
  4. Enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) delete
A
  1. Use Cross-Region Replication (CRR) to copy to another region
62
Q

Which of the following is NOT an AWS service used for transferring large amounts of data into Amazon S3?

  1. AWS Snowball
  2. AWS Snowmobile
  3. S3 Transfer Acceleration
  4. AWS DMS
A
  1. AWS DMS
63
Q

How do AWS charge for Amazon CloudFront? (choose 2)

  1. Data transfer out
  2. Data transfer in
  3. Number of requests
  4. Number of users
  5. Uptime
A
  1. Data transfer out

3. Number of requests

64
Q

Which AWS service is part of the suite of “serverless” services and runs code as functions?

  1. Amazon ECS
  2. Amazon EKS
  3. AWS Lambda
  4. AWS CodeCommit
A
  1. AWS Lambda
65
Q

How do AWS charge for the use of NAT Gateways? (choose 2)

  1. Price per gateway hour
  2. Price per port
  3. Price per GB processed
  4. Price per instance session
  5. Price per protocol
A
  1. Price per gateway hour

3. Price per GB processed

AWS (7 decks)

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