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AWS > Exam Bank > Flashcards

Exam Bank Flashcards

1
Q

Which AWS service or feature facilitates the purchase and deployment of third-party software by providing an online, managed software catalog?

  • A. AWS Support
  • B. AWS Marketplace
  • C. Amazon EC2 private Amazon Machine Images (AMIs)
  • D. AWS reseller programs
A

• B. AWS Marketplace

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2
Q 
A business wishes to improve its capacity for infrastructure recovery in the event of a natural catastrophe. This capability corresponds to which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework?
• A. Cost optimization
• B. Performance efficiency
• C. Reliability
• D. Securit
A

• C. Reliability

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3
Q 
A business may be required to operate its workload exclusively in its on-premises datacenter due to performance and regulatory limitations. Which Amazon Web Services (AWS) services or resources should the business utilize?
(Select two.)
• A. Amazon Pinpoint
• B. Amazon WorkLink
• C. AWS Outposts
• D. AWS Snowball Edge
• E. AWS AppSync
A
  • B. Amazon WorkLink

* C. AWS Outposts

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4
Q

How do Amazon’s massive economies of scale help customers?
• A. Periodic price reductions as the result of Amazon’s operational efficiencies
• B. New Amazon EC2 instance types providing the latest hardware
• C. The ability to scale up and down when needed
• D. Increased reliability in the underlying hardware of Amazon EC2 instances

A

• A. Periodic price reductions as the result of Amazon’s operational efficiencies

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5
Q

For security reasons, a business demands an isolated environment inside AWS. Which course of action is necessary to achieve this?
• A. Create a separate Availability Zone to host the resources.
• B. Create a separate VPC to host the resources.
• C. Create a placement group to host the resources.
• D. Create an AWS Direct Connect connection between the company and AWS.

A

• B. Create a separate VPC to host the resources.

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6
Q 
When utilizing the AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI), which of the following Identity and Access Management (IAM) entities is connected with an access key ID and secret access key?
• A. IAM group
• B. IAM user
• C. IAM role
• D. IAM policy
A

• B. IAM user

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7
Q 
Which component of the AWS architecture permits global computing and storage deployment?
• A. Availability Zones
• B. Regions
• C. Tags
• D. Resource groups
A

• B. Regions

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8
Q 
What is AWS's sole obligation under the AWS shared responsibility model?
• A. Application security
• B. Edge location management
• C. Patch management
• D. Client-side data
A

• B. Edge location management

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9
Q

Which of the following is a design concept associated with dependability in the AWS Well-Architected Framework?

  • A. Deployment to a single Availability Zone
  • B. Ability to recover from failure
  • C. Design for cost optimization
  • D. Perform operations as code
A

• B. Ability to recover from failure

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10
Q

Which activity is entirely the user’s responsibility while executing workloads on AWS?
• A. Patching the infrastructure components
• B. Implementing controls to route application traffic
• C. Maintaining physical and environmental controls
• D. Maintaining the underlying infrastructure components

A

• B. Implementing controls to route application traffic

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11
Q

Which statement best describes the AWS Cloud’s agility?
• A. Agility gives users the ability to host applications in multiple AWS Regions
around the world.
• B. Agility gives users the ability to pay upfront to reduce cost.
• C. Agility provides customizable physical hardware at the lowest possible cost.
• D. Agility provides the means for users to provision resources in minutes.

A

• D. Agility provides the means for users to provision resources in minutes.

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12
Q 
Which AWS product or service enables businesses to monitor and classify their expenditure at a precise level?
• A. Cost allocation tags
• B. Consolidated billing
• C. AWS Budgets
• D. AWS Marketplace
A

• A. Cost allocation tags

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13
Q 
Which AWS service is responsible for monitoring the health of your applications automatically?
• A. Amazon API Gateway
• B. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
• C. AWS Lambda
• D. AWS Config
A

• B. AWS Elastic Beanstalk

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14
Q

Which design concept is the user to adhere to?
• A. Anticipate failure
• B. Make large-scale changes
• C. Perform manual operations
• D. Create static operational procedures

A

• A. Anticipate failure

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15
Q 
When comparing AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) to on-premises TCO, what charges are included?
• A. Project management
• B. Antivirus software licensing
• C. Data center security
• D. Software development
A

• C. Data center security

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16
Q 
Which design concept is fulfilled by adhering to the AWS Well-Architected Framework's dependability pillar?
• A. Vertical scaling
• B. Manual failure recovery
• C. Testing recovery procedures
• D. Changing infrastructure manually
A

• C. Testing recovery procedures

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17
Q 
Which AWS service or functionality can assist a business in determining if it has publicly accessible Amazon S3 buckets?
• A. AWS Service Health Dashboard
• B. Amazon CloudWatch Logs
• C. AWS Trusted Advisor
• D. AWS Service Catalog
A

• C. AWS Trusted Advisor

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18
Q

Seasonal sales surges occur many times a year for an online retailer, most notably during the holidays. At other times of year, demand is lower. The corporation has difficulty forecasting the seasonal increase in infrastructure demand. Which benefits of migrating to the AWS Cloud would be the most beneficial to the
business? (Select two.)

  • A. Global footprint
  • B. Elasticity
  • C. AWS service quotas
  • D. AWS shared responsibility model
  • E. Pay-as-you-go pricing
A
  • B. Elasticity

* E. Pay-as-you-go pricing

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19
Q

Which concepts of AWS Cloud architecture may assist boost reliability? (Select two.)
• A. Using monolithic architecture
• B. Measuring overall efficiency
• C. Testing recovery procedures
• D. Adopting a consumption model
• E. Automatically recovering from failure

A
  • C. Testing recovery procedures

* E. Automatically recovering from failure

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20
Q 
Which sort of storage does Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) and Amazon FSx provide?
• A. File storage
• B. Object storage
• C. Block storage
• D. Instance store
A

• A. File storage

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21
Q

Which AWS service enables customers to view AWS compliance control reports on- demand and self-service?

  • A. AWS Config
  • B. Amazon GuardDuty
  • C. AWS Trusted Advisor
  • D. AWS Artifact
A

• D. AWS Artifact

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22
Q 
Which AWS service enables expense control across numerous AWS accounts effectively?
• A. AWS Organizations
• B. AWS Trusted Advisor
• C. AWS Direct Connect
• D. Amazon Connect
A

• A. AWS Organizations

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23
Q 
What may aid in the evaluation of a cloud-based application? (Select two.)
• A. AWS Trusted Advisor
• B. AWS Professional Services
• C. AWS Systems Manager
• D. AWS Partner Network (APN)
• E. AWS Secrets Manager
A
  • B. AWS Professional Services

* D. AWS Partner Network (APN)

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24
Q

A company’s on-premises servers and the AWS Cloud need a dedicated network connection.
Which Amazon Web Services (AWS) service should be used?
• A. AWS VPN
• B. AWS Direct Connect
• C. Amazon API Gateway
• D. Amazon Connect

A

• B. AWS Direct Connect

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25
Q

On-premises resources have been underused by a user.
Which AWS Cloud idea is optimal for resolving this issue?
• A. High availability
• B. Elasticity
• C. Security
• D. Loose coupling

A

• B. Elasticity

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26
Q

Which of the following advantages does Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) provide over conventional database management?
• A. AWS manages the data stored in Amazon RDS tables.
• B. AWS manages the maintenance of the operating system.
• C. AWS automatically scales up instance types on demand.
• D. AWS manages the database type.

A

• B. AWS manages the maintenance of the operating system.

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27
Q

A cloud practitioner has a seldom run data analysis job that can be stopped without causing damage.

Which Amazon EC2 purchase option should be utilized to maximize cost savings?
• A. On-Demand Instances
• B. Reserved Instances
• C. Spot Instances
• D. Dedicated Hosts
A

• C. Spot Instances

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28
Q

What are the advantages of AWS Cloud service billing consolidation? (Select two.)
• A. Volume discounts
• B. A minimal additional fee for use
• C. One bill for multiple accounts
• D. Installment payment options
• E. Custom cost and usage budget creation

A
  • A. Volume discounts

* C. One bill for multiple accounts

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29
Q 
Which Amazon EC2 instance type is necessary when a user wishes to use their current per- socket, per-core, or per-virtual machine software licenses on a Microsoft Windows server operating on AWS?
• A. Spot Instances
• B. Dedicated Instances
• C. Dedicated Hosts
• D. Reserved Instances
A

• C. Dedicated Hosts

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30
Q

When users connect to a website with a worldwide consumer base, they report experiencing delay.
Which Amazon Web Services (AWS) offering will enhance the user experience by lowering latency?
• A. Amazon CloudFront
• B. AWS Direct Connect
• C. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
• D. AWS Transit Gateway

A

• A. Amazon CloudFront

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31
Q

Which capabilities or services are available for monitoring an AWS account’s charges and expenses? (Select two.)

  • A. AWS Cost and Usage report
  • B. AWS product pages
  • C. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator
  • D. Billing alerts and Amazon CloudWatch alarms
  • E. AWS Price List API
A
  • A. AWS Cost and Usage report

* D. Billing alerts and Amazon CloudWatch alarms

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32
Q 
Which service enables users to store data in the Amazon Web Services cloud?
• A. Amazon EFS
• B. Amazon Redshift
• C. Amazon RDS
• D. Amazon VPC
A

• B. Amazon Redshift

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33
Q 
Which AWS service or product enables an organization to automate the delivery of application changes?
• A. Amazon AppFlow
• B. AWS CodeDeploy
• C. AWS PrivateLink
• D. Amazon EKS Distro
A

• B. AWS CodeDeploy

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34
Q

A corporation wishes to minimize the physical footprint of the computing resources used by developers to execute programs.
Which service would enable serverless architectures to address this need?
• A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)
• B. AWS Lambda
• C. Amazon DynamoDB
• D. AWS CodeCommit

A

• B. AWS Lambda

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35
Q 
A Load Balancer Elastic enables online traffic to be distributed across multiple:
• A. AWS Regions.
• B. Availability Zones.
• C. Dedicated Hosts.
• D. Amazon S3 buckets.
A

• B. Availability Zones.

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36
Q

The term “fault tolerance” relates to the following:
• A. the ability of an application to accommodate growth without changing design
• B. how well and how quickly an application’s environment can have lost data restored
• C. how secure your application is
• D. the built-in redundancy of an application’s components

A

• B. how well and how quickly an application’s environment can have lost data restored

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37
Q 
How can a client anticipate future expenses associated with the operation of a new web application?
• A. Amazon Aurora Backtrack
• B. Amazon CloudWatch Billing Alarms
• C. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator
• D. AWS Cost and Usage report
A

• C. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator

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38
Q 
Which AWS service enables conventional SQL queries against stored datasets straight from Amazon S3?
• A. AWS Glue
• B. AWS Data Pipeline
• C. Amazon CloudSearch
• D. Amazon Athena
A

• D. Amazon Athena

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39
Q

What is AWS Storage Gateway’s purpose?
• A. It ensures on-premises data storage is 99.999999999% durable.
• B. It transports petabytes of data to and from AWS.
• C. It connects to multiple Amazon EC2 instances.
• D. It connects on-premises data storage to the AWS Cloud.

A

• D. It connects on-premises data storage to the AWS Cloud.

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40
Q

A startup is developing a new application that must be launched immediately. In the near future, the application criteria may need to be changed.
Which of the following is an AWS Cloud feature that would fulfill this particular requirement?

  • A. Elasticity
  • B. Reliability
  • C. Performance
  • D. Agility
A

• D. Agility

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41
Q

Which AWS service must be enabled in order for the AWS Management Console to monitor all user account changes?
• A. AWS CloudTrail
• B. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
• C. VPC Flow Logs
• D. AWS CloudHSM

A

• A. AWS CloudTrail

42
Q

Recently, an ecommerce firm began using the AWS Cloud.
Which security-related responsibilities fall within the purview of the business? (Select two.)
• A. Restrict who is allowed physical access to the hosts that run the company’s
Amazon EC2 instances.
• B. Install security patches on Amazon EC2 Linux instances.
• C. Choose to encrypt data at rest that is stored on Amazon S3.
• D. Wipe Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes clean before they are
decommissioned.
• E. Conduct database patching for Amazon RDS instances.

A
  • B. Install security patches on Amazon EC2 Linux instances.

* C. Choose to encrypt data at rest that is stored on Amazon S3.

43
Q

A business needs to guarantee that users of the AWS Management Console adhere to password complexity guidelines.
How can a business customize the difficulty of its passwords?
• A. Using an AWS IAM user policy
• B. Using an AWS Organizations service control policy (SCP)
• C. Using an AWS IAM account password policy
• D. Using an AWS Security Hub managed insight

A

• C. Using an AWS IAM account password policy

44
Q 
Which AWS service would determine if a security group has granted unlimited access to a resource?
• A. AWS Trusted Advisor
• B. Amazon CloudWatch
• C. VPC Flow Logs
• D. AWS CloudTrail
A

• A. AWS Trusted Advisor

45
Q

Which features are available to users while use AWS KMS?
• A. Create and manage AWS access keys for the AWS account root user
• B. Create and manage AWS access keys for an AWS account IAM user
• C. Create and manage keys for encryption and decryption of data
• D. Create and manage keys for multi-factor authentication

A

• C. Create and manage keys for encryption and decryption of data

46
Q

On Amazon EC2 instances, a business has installed various relational databases. Each month, the database software manufacturer publishes new security updates for databases
that must be deployed.
Which method is the MOST EFFECTIVE for applying security patches?
• A. Connect to each database instance on a monthly basis, and download and apply the necessary security patches from the vendor.
• B. Enable automatic patching for the instances using the Amazon RDS console.
• C. In AWS Config, configure a rule for the instances and the required patch level.
• D. Use AWS Systems Manager to automate database patching according to a schedule.

A

• D. Use AWS Systems Manager to automate database patching according to a schedule.

47
Q

A business is releasing a new application on AWS. The application will be hosted on an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instance. Additional EC2 instances will be required as the demand grows.
Which AWS service or technology can the business utilize to deploy the required number of EC2 instances?
• A. Elastic Load Balancing
• B. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
• C. AWS App2Container (A2C)
• D. AWS Systems Manager

A

• B. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

48
Q

When building an Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) instance in Multiple Availability Zone mode, which architectural concept is followed?

  • A. Implement loose coupling.
  • B. Design for failure.
  • C. Automate everything that can be automated.
  • D. Use services, not servers.
A

• B. Design for failure.

49
Q

What does it mean to provide AWS IAM users the fewest possible privileges?
• A. It is granting permissions to a single user only.
• B. It is granting permissions using AWS IAM policies only.
• C. It is granting AdministratorAccess policy permissions to trustworthy users.
• D. It is granting only the permissions required to perform a given task.

A

• D. It is granting only the permissions required to perform a given task.

50
Q

What is a user’s responsibility while using the AWS Cloud to execute an application?

  • A. Managing physical hardware
  • B. Updating the underlying hypervisor
  • C. Providing a list of users approved for data center access
  • D. Managing application software updates
A

• D. Managing application software updates

51
Q

Which of the following statements concerning AWS’s worldwide infrastructure is true?

  • A. Availability Zones can span multiple AWS Regions.
  • B. A VPC can have different subnets in different AWS Regions.
  • C. AWS Regions consist of multiple Availability Zones.
  • D. A single subnet can span multiple Availability Zones.
A

• C. AWS Regions consist of multiple Availability Zones.

52
Q

A business wishes to link AWS to its corporate network through a private network connection.
Which Amazon Web Services (AWS) service or functionality will satisfy this requirement?
• A. Amazon Connect
• B. Amazon Route 53
• C. AWS Direct Connect
• D. VPC peering

A

• C. AWS Direct Connect

53
Q

Which of the following may be used to restrict certain users’ access to Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) buckets?
• A. A public and private key-pair
• B. Amazon Inspector
• C. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies
• D. Security Groups

A

• C. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies

54
Q

Which of the following is an AWS Well-Architected Framework design principle?
• A. Reduce downtime by making infrastructure changes infrequently and in large
increments.
• B. Invest the time to configure infrastructure manually.
• C. Learn to improve from operational failures.
• D. Use monolithic application design for centralization.

A

• C. Learn to improve from operational failures.

55
Q 
Which AWS service enables a business to identify and reroute customers to other servers in the event of a website server outage?
• A. Amazon CloudFront
• B. Amazon GuardDuty
• C. Amazon Route 53
• D. AWS Trusted Advisor
A

• C. Amazon Route 53

56
Q

An organization with an AWS Support plan for developers established an Amazon RDS database but is unable to connect to it.
To get this degree of help, who should the developer contact?
• A. AWS Support using a support case
• B. AWS Professional Services
• C. AWS technical account manager
• D. AWS consulting partners

A

• A. AWS Support using a support case

57
Q

Which AWS service enables you to monitor and debug distributed applications end-to-end?

  • A. AWS Cloud
  • B. AWS CodeStar
  • C. AWS Cloud Map
  • D. AWS X-Ray
A

• D. AWS X-Ray

58
Q

Which AWS shared responsibility model duties are the customer’s responsibility? (Select
two.)
• A. Infrastructure facilities access management
• B. Cloud infrastructure hardware lifecycle management
• C. Configuration management of user’s applications
• D. Networking infrastructure protection
• E. Security groups configuration

A
  • C. Configuration management of user’s applications

* E. Security groups configuration

59
Q

Which variables impact AWS Cloud costs? (Select two.)
• A. The number of unused AWS Lambda functions
• B. The number of configured Amazon S3 buckets
• C. Inbound data transfers without acceleration
• D. Outbound data transfers without acceleration
• E. Compute resources that are currently in use

A
  • D. Outbound data transfers without acceleration

* E. Compute resources that are currently in use

60
Q 
Which AWS Cloud service gives tips on how to optimize an AWS account's performance?
• A. Amazon Inspector
• B. AWS Trusted Advisor
• C. Amazon CloudWatch
• D. AWS CloudTrail
A

• C. Amazon CloudWatch

61
Q

A corporation is required by law to track and assess configuration changes to AWS resources, as well as to conduct corrective steps.
Which Amazon Web Services (AWS) service should the business use?
• A. AWS Config
• B. AWS Secrets Manager
• C. AWS CloudTrail
• D. AWS Trusted Advisor

A

• A. AWS Config

62
Q 
Which AWS service should be utilized to store data backups for an extended period of time at a reasonable cost?
• A. Amazon RDS
• B. Amazon Glacier
• C. AWS Snowball
• D. AWS EBS
A

• B. Amazon Glacier

62
Q

What does the AWS Cloud bring clients in terms of increased execution speed and agility?
(Select two.)
• A. Readily available resources with low provisioning times
• B. Scalable compute capacity
• C. Free Tier services usage
• D. Access to AWS data centers
• E. Lower resource provisioning cost

A
  • A. Readily available resources with low provisioning times

* B. Scalable compute capacity

63
Q

A retailer wishes to supply just the resources required to meet current demand.
Which cloud advantage is the organization attempting to accomplish with this objective?
• A. Reliability
• B. Global reach
• C. Scalability
• D. High availability

A

• C. Scalability

64
Q

What storage capabilities does Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering provide?
• A. Payment flexibility by reserving storage capacity
• B. Long-term retention of data by copying the data to an encrypted Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume
• C. Automatic cost savings by moving objects between tiers based on access pattern changes
• D. Secure, durable, and lowest cost storage for data archival

A

• C. Automatic cost savings by moving objects between tiers based on access pattern changes

65
Q

A business wishes to transfer its apps to an AWS VPC. These apps will need access to resources located on-premises.
Which combination of activities will allow the business to achieve this objective? (Select two.)
• A. Use the AWS Service Catalog to identify a list of on-premises resources that can be migrated.
• B. Build a VPN connection between an on-premises device and a virtual private gateway in the new VPC.
• C. Use Amazon Athena to query data from the on-premises database servers.
• D. Connect the company’s on-premises data center to AWS using AWS Direct Connect.
• E. Leverage Amazon CloudFront to restrict access to static web content provided through the company’s on-premises web servers.

A
  • B. Build a VPN connection between an on-premises device and a virtual private gateway in the new VPC.
  • D. Connect the company’s on-premises data center to AWS using AWS Direct Connect.
66
Q 
What is the most effective approach to link an on-premises network to numerous VPCs located in separate AWS Regions?
• A. Use AWS Direct Connect
• B. Use AWS VPN
• C. Use AWS Client VPN
• D. Use an AWS Transit Gateway
A

• D. Use an AWS Transit Gateway

67
Q 
Multiple Regions of the AWS Cloud are an example of:
• A. agility.
• B. global infrastructure.
• C. elasticity.
• D. pay-as-you-go pricing.
A

• B. global infrastructure.

68
Q 
Which AWS service does Chef and Puppet utilize to automate configuration management?
• A. AWS Config
• B. AWS OpsWorks
• C. AWS CloudFormation
• D. AWS Systems Manager
A

• B. AWS OpsWorks

69
Q

A corporation want to remove the necessity for pre-deployment estimation of infrastructure capacity. Additionally, the corporation want to spend its money on cloud resources only when the resources are used.

Which AWS Cloud feature best meets your business's needs?
• A. Reliability
• B. Global reach
• C. Economies of scale
• D. Pay-as-you-go pricing
A

• D. Pay-as-you-go pricing

70
Q

SQL injection attacks are being launched against an application from a variety of external locations.
Which AWS service or functionality can assist in automating response to these attacks?
• A. AWS WAF
• B. Security groups
• C. Elastic Load Balancer
• D. Network ACL

A

• A. AWS WAF

71
Q 
Which feature enables Amazon EC2 instances to be more elastic in response to changing workload demand?
• A. Resource groups
• B. Lifecycle policies
• C. Application Load Balancer
• D. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
A

• D. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

72
Q

What time-saving benefits can Amazon Rekognition provide?
• A. Amazon Rekognition provides automatic watermarking of images.
• B. Amazon Rekognition provides automatic detection of objects appearing in pictures.
• C. Amazon Rekognition provides the ability to resize millions of images automatically.
• D. Amazon Rekognition uses Amazon Mechanical Turk to allow humans to bid on object detection jobs.

A

• B. Amazon Rekognition provides automatic detection of objects appearing in pictures.

73
Q

A corporation want to migrate petabytes of data from on-premises sites to the AWS Cloud as rapidly as feasible.
Which Amazon Web Services (AWS) service should the business use?
• A. AWS Snowball
• B. AWS Global Accelerator
• C. Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration
• D. Amazon Connect

A

• A. AWS Snowball

74
Q 
Where should a business go to locate, test, purchase, and deploy software that works on AWS?
• A. AWS Marketplace
• B. Amazon Lumberyard
• C. AWS Artifact
• D. Amazon CloudSearch
A

• A. AWS Marketplace

75
Q

A business’s user base is worldwide in scope. The organization needs a highly available application with reduced latency for end users.
Which AWS architecture approach will meet these criteria the MOST EFFECTIVELY?
• A. Single-Region, Multi-AZ architecture
• B. Multi-Region, active-active architecture
• C. Multi-Region, active-passive architecture
• D. Single-Region, Single-AZ architecture

A

• B. Multi-Region, active-active architecture

76
Q

Which duty is the customer’s responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model?
• A. Maintaining the infrastructure needed to run AWS Lambda
• B. Updating the operating system of Amazon DynamoDB instances
• C. Maintaining Amazon S3 infrastructure
• D. Updating the guest operating system on Amazon EC2 instances

A

• D. Updating the guest operating system on Amazon EC2 instances

77
Q

How can a user safeguard against AWS service outages in the event of a widespread natural disaster?
• A. Deploy applications across multiple Availability Zones within an AWS Region.
• B. Use a hybrid cloud computing deployment model within the geographic area.
• C. Deploy applications across multiple AWS Regions.
• D. Store application artifacts using AWS Artifact and replicate them across multiple AWS Regions.

A

• C. Deploy applications across multiple AWS Regions.

78
Q

What is an example of a cloud-based application that is decoupled, scalable, and scalable?
• A. A mail and log application that runs on a single Amazon EC2 instance
• B. A webpage that is hosted on Amazon S3 and uses AWS Lambda to update an Amazon DynamoDB database
• C. An Application Load Balancer, web server, and database server that support a monolithic application
• D. A legacy database server that is running on the maximum instance size supported by its license

A

• C. An Application Load Balancer, web server, and database server that support a monolithic application

79
Q

A client has many AWS accounts, each with its own billing.
How can the client benefit from bulk savings while minimizing the effect on AWS resources?
• A. Create one global AWS account and move all AWS resources to that account.
• B. Sign up for three years of Reserved Instance pricing up front.
• C. Use the consolidated billing feature from AWS Organizations.
• D. Sign up for the AWS Enterprise support plan to get volume discounts.

A

• C. Use the consolidated billing feature from AWS Organizations.

80
Q

A business must keep its data near to its core consumers.
Which AWS Cloud advantage satisfies this requirement?
• A. Security
• B. High availability
• C. Elasticity
• D. Global footprint

A

• D. Global footprint

81
Q

Who is responsible for the virtualization layer down to the physical security of the facilities in which AWS services operate under the AWS shared responsibility model?
• A. It is the sole responsibility of the customer.
• B. It is the sole responsibility of AWS.
• C. It is a shared responsibility between AWS and the customer.
• D. The customer’s AWS Support plan tier determines who manages the configuration.

A

• B. It is the sole responsibility of AWS.

82
Q

A company’s managed IAM policy does not allow users the rights essential to do needed activities. How is this situation to be resolved?

  • A. Enable AWS Shield Advanced
  • B. Create a custom IAM policy
  • C. Use a third-party web application firewall (WAF) managed rule from the AWS Marketplace
  • D. Use AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) to create a customer-managed key
A

• B. Create a custom IAM policy

83
Q

A business wishes to strengthen its security and audit posture by restricting incoming access to Amazon EC2.
What should the organization use instead of opening incoming SSH ports and handling SSH keys to remotely access instances?

  • A. EC2 key pairs
  • B. AWS Systems Manager Session Manager
  • C. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
  • D. Network ACLs
A

• B. AWS Systems Manager Session Manager

84
Q

Which scenarios warrant the utilization of Amazon EC2 Spot Instances?
• A. A company wants to move its main website to AWS from an on-premises web server.
• B. A company has a number of application services whose Service Level Agreement (SLA) requires 99.999% uptime.
• C. A company’s heavily used legacy database is currently running on-premises.
• D. A company has a number of infrequent, interruptible jobs that are currently using On-Demand Instances.

A

• D. A company has a number of infrequent, interruptible jobs that are currently using On-Demand Instances.

85
Q

A business must transmit time-sensitive communications to a large number of subscribers using a push technique.
Which Amazon Web Services (AWS) service should the business use?
• A. Amazon Kinesis
• B. Amazon MQ
• C. Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
• D. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

A

• D. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

86
Q

Which tasks need access to the root user of the AWS account? (Select two.)
• A. Changing an AWS Support plan
• B. Modifying an Amazon EC2 instance type
• C. Grouping resources in AWS Systems Manager
• D. Running applications in Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)
• E. Closing an AWS account

A
  • A. Changing an AWS Support plan

* E. Closing an AWS account

87
Q

Which AWS Cloud best practice makes advantage of cloud computing’s flexibility and
agility?
• A. Provision capacity based on past usage and theoretical peaks
• B. Dynamically and predictively scale to meet usage demands
• C. Build the application and infrastructure in a data center that grants physical access
• D. Break apart the application into loosely coupled components

A

• B. Dynamically and predictively scale to meet usage demands

88
Q

Users of Amazon Route 53 are able to:
• A. encrypt data in transit
• B. register DNS domain names
• C. generate and manage SSL certificates
• D. establish a dedicated network connection to AWS

A

• B. register DNS domain names

89
Q

Which characteristic of the Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) allows
customers to link two VPCs?
• A. Amazon VPC endpoints
• B. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) ClassicLink
• C. Amazon VPC peering
• D. AWS Direct Connect

A

• C. Amazon VPC peering

89
Q

Multiple Amazon EC2 instances are used to host an application. The program sends messages using Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS).
Which AWS service or feature grants authorization for the application to access needed AWS services?
• A. AWS Certificate Manager (ACM)
• B. IAM roles
• C. AWS Security Hub
• D. Amazon GuardDuty

A

• B. IAM roles

90
Q

A business is contemplating migrating to the AWS Cloud. The firm wishes to be able to scale its computing capacity in response to changing demand conditions.
Which AWS Cloud advantage does this case illustrate?
• A. Global deployments in minutes
• B. Cost savings
• C. Agility
• D. Elasticity

A

• D. Elasticity

91
Q 
Which of the following is a NoSQL database service that is both quick and dependable?
• A. Amazon Redshift
• B. Amazon RDS
• C. Amazon DynamoDB
• D. Amazon S3
A

• C. Amazon DynamoDB

92
Q

A client wants to develop and construct a new workload on AWS Cloud but lacks the
necessary technical skills in AWS-related technologies.
Which of the following AWS programs may a client use to accomplish that goal?
• A. AWS Partner Network Technology Partners
• B. AWS Marketplace
• C. AWS Partner Network Consulting Partners
• D. AWS Service Catalog

A

• C. AWS Partner Network Consulting Partners

93
Q 
Which AWS solution enables rapid setup and management of a new multi-account AWS
environment?
• A. AWS Trusted Advisor
• B. AWS Security Hub
• C. AWS Control Tower
• D. AWS Resource Access Manager
A

• C. AWS Control Tower

94
Q 
Which operation needs the usage of the root account user credentials for the AWS account?
• A. Closing an AWS account
• B. Creating a log file
• C. Modifying IAM user permissions
• D. Deleting IAM users
A

• A. Closing an AWS account

95
Q

On Amazon EC2 instances, a business is operating and controlling its own Docker environment. Alternate is desired to assist in managing cluster size, scheduling, and environment management.
Which AWS service satisfies these criteria?
• A. AWS Lambda
• B. Amazon RDS
• C. AWS Fargate
• D. Amazon Athena

A

• C. AWS Fargate

96
Q

Which AWS situations exemplify the idea of elasticity? (Select two.)
• A. Scaling the number of Amazon EC2 instances based on traffic.
• B. Resizing Amazon RDS instances as business needs change.
• C. Automatically directing traffic to less-utilized Amazon EC2 instances.
• D. Using AWS compliance documents to accelerate the compliance process.
• E. Having the ability to create and govern environments using code.

A
  • A. Scaling the number of Amazon EC2 instances based on traffic.
  • B. Resizing Amazon RDS instances as business needs change.
97
Q

Which of the following are benefits of Amazon Web Services’ cloud computing platform?
(Select two.)
• A. AWS manages the maintenance of the cloud infrastructure
• B. AWS manages the security of applications built on AWS
• C. AWS manages capacity planning for physical servers
• D. AWS manages the development of applications on AWS
• E. AWS manages cost planning for virtual servers

A
  • A. AWS manages the maintenance of the cloud infrastructure

* C. AWS manages capacity planning for physical servers

98
Q

Which of the following are advantages of using the AWS Cloud to host infrastructure?
(Select two.)
• A. There are no upfront commitments.
• B. AWS manages all security in the cloud.
• C. Users have the ability to provision resources on demand.
• D. Users have access to free and unlimited storage.
• E. Users have control over the physical infrastructure.

A
  • A. There are no upfront commitments.

* C. Users have the ability to provision resources on demand.

AWS (7 decks)

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