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IBI Test 2 > B3-003 Laboratory Diagnosis of Infectious Disease > Flashcards

B3-003 Laboratory Diagnosis of Infectious Disease Flashcards

(110 cards)

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1
Q

nucleic acid hybridization
NAAT
Sequencing
Mass spectrometry

are examples of

A

molecular testing

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2
Q

advantages: molecular testing

A

fast

sometimes increased sensitivity

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3
Q

limitations: molecular testing

A

expensive
targeted
no susceptibility testing

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4
Q

source of false positives for molecular testing

A

contamination at collection or lab

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5
Q

sources of false negatives for molecular testing

A

below limit of detection
biological inhibitors

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6
Q

steps of PCR

A

extract
denature
anneal
elongate
repeats

detection and quantification

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7
Q

examples of NAAT amplification and detection tests

A

single panel
multipanel: respiratory panel

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8
Q

most FDA-cleared NAAT test are

A

amplification + detection

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9
Q

all laboratory developed NAAT tests are

A

amplification and sequencing

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10
Q

examples of NAAT amplification and sequencing tests

A

broad range PCR
metagenomics

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11
Q

MALDI is used to

A

identify cultured bacteria

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12
Q

MALDI technique

A

isolate is spotted onto a metal plate
laser vaporized
separated by mass-to-charge ratio
profile created
comparison

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13
Q

MALDI may be used in the future for

A

susceptibility testing
strain typing
direct from sample detection

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14
Q

Method: antigen detection

A

use lab generated antibodies to detect patient antigen in specimen

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15
Q

specimens: antigen detection

A

urine, serum, sputum, CSF, stool

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16
Q

Galactomannan serum is used to detect

A

invasive aspergillus

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17
Q

cryptococcal urine or CSF is used to detect

A

cryptococcus

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18
Q

method: Antibody detection

A

use lab generated antigens to detect IgG, IgM, etc.

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19
Q

Specimen: antibody detection

A

serum

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20
Q

what technique would you use to diagnose Lyme disease?

A

Serology: antibody detection

Borrelia burgdorferi

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21
Q

what technique would you use to diagnose Syphilis?

A

Serology: antibody detection

Treponema pallidum

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22
Q

what technique would you use to diagnose Q fever?

A

Serology: antibody detection

Coxiella burnetti

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23
Q

Agglutination

A

serology method
antibody or antigen is fixed to latex beans, specimen added and observed for clumping

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24
Q

lateral flow immunoassay

A

serology method
antibodies attach to pad, wicked along, accumulate as visible line

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25
what kind of diagnostic test is a pregnancy test?
lateral flow assay
26
advantages of lateral flow assay
rapid, cheap, POC
27
limitations of lateral flow assay
decreased sensitivity, difficult to read
28
ELISA has a _______ predictive value
high negative (high sensitivity, low specificity)
29
all positive ELISA assays must be
confirmed with a screening confirmation test assay **if the first is positive, and the second is negative, the result is NEGATIVE
30
method: ELISA
antibody or antigen immobilized in well add patient sample add reported antibodies/antigens add substrate and read colormetric change
31
Screen confirmation tests are
labor intensive low sensitivity but very high specificity
32
screening confirmation tests
Immunoblot, Immunodiffusion
33
What diagnostic test should you choose if you are trying to determine vaccination status?
serology
34
What diagnostic test should you concerned with an organism that won't grow in culture or is eliminated quickly?
serology
35
what organisms don't grow in culture
Lyme, Syphilis, Mono
36
What organisms are cleared quickly?
west nile, zika, dengue
37
What diagnostic test should be chosen for HIV, HCV, HBV screening?
serology
38
what would cause a false positive on a serology test?
heterophil antibodies/ RF cross reaction to closely related antigens maternal transfer
39
what would cause a false negative on a serology test?
immunocompromised too early/late
40
gram stain technique
heat fix sample crystal violet: stains all cells purple iodine: mordant destain with ethanol-acetone safranin counterstain
41
gram positive organisms will be
purple
42
gram negative organisms will be
pink
43
acid-fast stain
mycobacteria
44
wright-giemsa stain
spirochetes, rickettsiae
45
gram + cocci in clusters
staphylococcus
46
gram + cocci in chains
streptococcus
47
sputum should be collected when _______ is suspected
LRTI
48
urine is collected when ______ is suspected
UTI
49
feces is collected when ______ is suspected
diarrhea
50
when getting a tissue culture, you should get the
center and border of tissues
51
aspirate _______, avoid swabs
pus
52
how much blood should be collected for a blood culture?
10 mL per bottle, 2 bottles x2
53
swabs are used when _______ is suspected
URTI, STD
54
a direct gram stain is done on what specimens
sputum, positive blood culture, abcess fluid, CSF, vaginal discharge
55
presence of PMNs in sputum indicates
active, purulent infection
56
>10 epithelial cells per field suggests
contamination with oral flora
57
enriched media
contain nutrients to support growth of a wide variety of organisms
58
selective media
inhibit growth of certain groups of organisms
59
differential
distinguish organisms based on growth characteristics
60
MacConkey Agar is
selective: inhibits growth of gram+ AND differential: distinguishes between ability to ferment lactose
61
obligate aerobe
requires oxygen for growth
62
facultative anaerobe
will grow in aerobic and anaerobic conditions
63
microaerophillic
grows best with low concentrations of oxygen
64
obligate anaerobe
oxygen is toxic
65
when should you draw blood cultures?
before antibiotics
66
2 bottle sets of blood cultures
1 aerobic 1 anaerobic
67
how many sets of blood cultures should you do?
two sets (4 bottles, 40 mL total)
68
mycobacterial culture is done on
broth and solid media
69
fungal cultures are done on
specialized media incubated at a lower temp
70
green, incomplete lysis around colony
alpha hemolysis
71
clear zone around colony
beta hemolysis
72
no hemolysis
gamma hemolysis
73
what color colonies are S. aureus?
yellow
74
what color are Serratia colonies?
red/pink
75
what color are P. aeruginosa colonies?
blue green
76
what bacteria grows mucoid colonies?
klebsiella
77
what organism grows projection-like colonies?
candida albicans
78
what organism demonstrates swarming on colony growth?
Proteus vulgaris
79
gas formation (bubbles) indicates
catalase positive
80
precipitate formation indicates
coagulase positive
81
blue color indicates
oxidase positive
82
clostridium actinomyces propionibacterium
gram positive anaerobic bacilli
83
listeria cornyebacterium bacillus nocardia
gram positive aerobic bacilli
84
catalase +, coagulase + cocci grown in clusters
staphylococcus
85
catalase -, cocci grown in chains
streptococcus
86
anaerobic streptococcus
peptostreptococcus
87
S. pneumoniae S. mutans Viridians
alpha hemolytic streptococcus (GAS)
88
S. pyogenes S. agalactiae
beta hemolytic streptococcus (GBS)
89
enterococcus
gamma hemolytic streptococcus
90
gram negative cocci
neisseria moraxella
91
escherichia klebsiella enterobacter
gram negative + growth on MacConkey +lactose fermentors
92
salmonella shigellaa proteus serratia yersinia
gram negative +growth on MacConkey -lactose fermentors +glucose fermentors
93
pseudomonas burkholderia acinetobacter
gram negative +growth on MacConkey -lactose fermentor -glucose fermentor
94
haemophilus bordetella legionella brucella franciella pasteurella campylobacter helicobacter vibrio
gram negative - growth on MacConkey +oxygen tolerance
95
bacteriodes fusobacterium prevotella porphyromonas
gram negative - growth on MacConkey -oxygen tolerance
96
PCR based detection of the genes associated with resistance to a drug
genotypic antimicrobial susceptibility testing
97
tests ability of organism to grow in presence of drug
phenotypic antimicrobial susceptibility testing
98
susceptible
isolate is inhibited
99
intermediate
response rate for isolate is lower than that for susceptible isolates
100
resistant
isolates are not inhibited
101
limitations of antimicrobial susceptibility testing
imprecise does not account for host response, toxin production, or biofilm formation
102
mecA gene
MRSA
103
vanA/B gene
Vanc resistant E. faecium
104
bla kpc gene
carbapenem resistance beta lactamase resistant KPC
105
advantages of genotypic susceptibility testing
fast very sensitive very specific
106
limitations of genotypic susceptibility testing
expensive single target: does not detect resistance by multiple genes
107
MIC
minimal inhibitory concentration minimum concentration of a drug that will inhibit growth of an organism
108
phenotypic susceptibility testing: microbroth dilution
the concentration without bacterial growth is the MIC
109
phenotypic susceptibility testing: strip testing
read MIC at area of growth of inhibition
110
phenotypic susceptibility testing: Kirby Bauer (disk)
does not give MIC measure zones of growth inhibition

IBI Test 2 (14 decks)

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