B6.3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is health

A

A complete state of physical emotional and social wellbeing, and not merley the abscence of disease or infermity

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2
Q

What is disease

A

The deviation from the normal structure and function of an organism

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3
Q

What is a communicable disease

A

A disease caused by pathogens that can be transmitted between organisms

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4
Q

What are pathogens

A

Microorganisms that can cause disease

They most commonly damage cells or release toxins

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5
Q

What are the 4 most common pathogens

A

Fungi
Bacteria
Viruses
Protozoa

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6
Q

What are antigens

A

Proteins on the surface of cells and microorganisms

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7
Q

What is a non communicable disease

A

A disease that cannot be spread between microorganisms such as obesity or cystic fibrosis

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8
Q

What is HIV

A

Human immunodeficiency virus which causes aids

It attacks T-lymphocytes (by binding to the cells and replicating)

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9
Q

What diseases do AIDS patients catch

A

People with acquired immune deficiency syndrome have a weakened immune system

This means they can catch diseases such as Tuberculosis from tuberculosis causing bacteria

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10
Q

What does M Tuberculosis do / how does it effect the body

A

Infection destroys alveolar tissue in the lungs

Causes less oxygen to diffuse into the lungs (due to lower surface area)
Less ATP could be made, so the organism would respire faster

As there is less oxygen in the blood the organism will have breathing problems

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11
Q

How is HIV treated

A

Using antiviral medicines, to stop the virus replicating

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12
Q

How is HIV spread

A

Through bodily fluids
Sharing needles

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13
Q

How can HIV spread be reduced

A

Wear protection such as condoms when having sex
Never sharing needles

Prep is a drug taken prior to exposure, to reduce risk of infection

Pep is taken within 72 hours after exposure to reduce infection

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14
Q

How is staph infection caused

A

Caused by staph bacteria (staphylococcus)

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15
Q

Symptoms of staph infection

A

Skin infection

Red lumps on skin (boils)
Red and swollen skin
Sores and blisters

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16
Q

How is staph infection transferred

A

It can be transferred by contact, but is only dangerous if it enters the body

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17
Q

How can staph be treated

A

Taking antibiotics such as oxacillin

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18
Q

How is the spread of spah infection reduced

A

Keeping personal items personal, and constantly cleaning surfaces

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19
Q

What diseases can staph infection cause

A

If it enters the blood stream it can cause sepsis

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20
Q

What is ringworm

A

A fungal infection seen on your skin

Causes a scaly / dr / swollen rash

Often appears in silver / red ring shape

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21
Q

How is ringworm treated

A

Using antifungal creams onto the site

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22
Q

How is the spread of ringworm prevented

A

Direct and indirect contact
(Sharing items /clothing)

Shower and change clothing once per day

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23
Q

Complications of ringworm

A

Hair loss
Scarring
Nail deformities

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24
Q

What is influenza

A

(commonly called the flu)
A common virus that can be spread between people through dropplets

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25
Q

Influenza symptoms

A

High temperature, headache, bad cold, aching body

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26
Q

How to treat influenza

A

Annual flu vaccine
Painkillers help to reduce the effects
(People often recover after a week)

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27
Q

Complications of influenza

A

Can lead to infections such as pneumonia or ear infections

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28
Q

How is the spread of influenza reduced

A

Covering your mouth and nose when you sneeze / cough

Regularly wash hands

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29
Q

What are the main ways disease is transmitted in animals

A

.Airborne → droplets and spores
.Direct contact → skin to skin / bodily fluids
.Indirect contact / vehicular contact → surfaces food bedding towels

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30
Q

How do female mosquitos pass on malaria

A

Only female mosquitos bite humans for blood
In doing this they pass on their saliva which contains anticoagulant properties (so it can take the blood)

In the saliva malaria can also be found

Malaria can be transferred through protists-plasmodium

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31
Q

What is the lytic cycle

A

A cycle where viruses replicate themselves, destroying a cell

Viruses have receptors so they can bind to specific cells
The virus recognises the pattern of receptors (proteins) on the cell it should infect (these are complimentary to its antigens)

Attaching to the cell allows the virus to insert intergrase into the cell (allowing it to inject its DNA or RNA)
The virus forces the cell to replicate its dna
(The virus DNA is transcribed to RNA so that the cell will transcribe it

A virus is then assembled

The new virus then takes a part of the cell membrane for protection (when leaving the cell)
This causes the cell to be damaged or destroyed

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32
Q

What is a retro virus

A

A virus with RNA as its genetic material
It uses enzymes to convert RNA to DNA
It the inserts its DNA into the hosts genome to be transcribed

It uses reverse transcriptase

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33
Q

What is reverse transcription

A

Process of changing RNA to DNA

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34
Q

What is an Incubation period (infection)

A

Time between being infected and the symptoms being displayed

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35
Q

What is Epidemology

A

The study of incidence and distributiin if disease

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36
Q

How is disease monitored

A

Testing for new cases
Death rates
R (reproduction) number

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37
Q

What is an R number

A

How many cases would each new case cause

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38
Q

How do you test for disease

A

Looking for symptoms → visual identification

Testing for antigens

PCR test (polymerase chain reaction) → detects genetic material of an organism

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39
Q

How does the skin protect from disease

A

Its a physical barrier preventing microorganisms from entering the blood

Microbiomes of healthy bacteria compete with pathogens (reduces the number of pathogens)

Glands below your skin secrete sebum which has a low pH (denatures enzymes on the pathogens)

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40
Q

What cells release mucus

A

Goblet cells

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41
Q

How does mucus and cilia combat against disease

A

Mucus traps dust and microorganisms preventing them entering your lungs

Cilia (small hairs) move the mucus containing pathogens away from the lungs

The mucus is either swallowed or coughed out

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42
Q

Why is swallowing mucus better than coughing it out

A

Digestive acid in your stomach has a low pH
This would cause enzymes in pathogens to denature
This would prevent growth
This would also cause certain enzymes controlled reactions like cellular respiration and DNA replication to not function

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43
Q

What are lysozymes

A

Enzymes that break down peptidoglycan in bacteria cell walls

It can be found in tears and mucus

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44
Q

Why does breaking down peptidoglycan in cell walls kill the cell

A

It causes the cell to become weaker and more prone to lysis

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45
Q

How do nasal hairs and eyelashes defend against pathogens

A

Prevents entry of pathogens into the body

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46
Q

What do blood clots do

A

They provide a barrier preventing pathogens from entering the blood.

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47
Q

How do blood clots / scabs form

A

When the skin is cut blood begins to leak out

This causes the platelets to become activated (sticky)

Soluble fibrinogen is converted into insoluble fibrin (a protein) by thrombin (an enzyme)

This traps red blood cells forming a clot

The clot eventually hardens forming a scab

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48
Q

What is an anticoagulent

A

Something that prevents the blood from coming

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49
Q

How do anticoagulant drugs prevent the blood

A

They bind to the active side of the enzyme (thrombin) that converts fibrinogen to fibrin, as there are no active sides for fibrinogen to bind to

As there is no fibrin a blood clot cannot form

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50
Q

What is a phagocyte

A

A tyoe of white blood cell that carry out phagocytosis

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51
Q

What happens during phagocytosis

A

Phagocytes engulf microorganisms and enzymes break down microorganisms

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52
Q

What enzymes can be found in phagocytes

A

Protease → break down proteins
Carbohydrase → break down carbohydrates
Lypase → break down lipids
Lysozymes → breaks down peptidoglycan
Nuclease → breaks down DNA and RNA

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53
Q

How do bacteria damage cells

A

Kill cells
Release toxins

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54
Q

What are T-Lymphocytes

A

White blood cells that:

Recruit phagocytes
Release digestive enzymes to break down microorganisms

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55
Q

What are B-Lymphocytes

A

White blood cells

Produce antibodies which can bind to specific shaped antigens

56
Q

What are antibidies

A

Proteins which can bind to 2 specifically shaped antigens at one time

57
Q

How does your immune system react to a primary (first) infection

A

Slow immune response (first encountering the pathogen)
Takes time for antigens to be produced

Released memory B-Lymphocytes which will recognise the antigen

58
Q

How does your immune system react to a secondary infection

A

Second time coming in contact with the pathogen

Faster immune response as memory B-Lymphocytes can release antigens faster

59
Q

How do primary and secondary infection responses differ

A

In a secondary response more antigens can be released at a greater speed (in less time)

60
Q

What is Agglutination

A

Antibodies clump pathogens together

Phagocytes then engulf and digest the pathogens

(Also mark the pathogen so phagocytes know to digest them)

61
Q

What do vaccines do

A

Vaccines create artificial immunity by introducing dead or weakened pathogens into the body

This means memory B-Lymphocytes can be made, making the first natural response to be as fast as a natural secondary response

62
Q

Main side effect of a vaccine

A

May make you feel fatigued as your immune system has to fight against the pathogen

63
Q

How do MRNA vaccines work

A

mRNA that codes for specific antigens (of a virus / bacteria) is injected

Cells take up the mRNA and translate it

T-Lymphocytes recognise the antigen and break it down

Memory B-Lymphocytes will be produced leading to a quicker, second immune response

64
Q

What is herd immunity

A

If 75% to 85% of a group is vaccinated (immune) the pathogen is unlikely to spread

65
Q

What are antivirals

A

Drugs that destroy viruses by preventing them from replicating.

They are specifically designed to act on one type of virus.

E.g
They could:
Block virus from entering a host cell
Prevent virus from releasing genetic material
Prevent the virus from inserting its data into the host cells DNA

66
Q

What are antispetics

A

Something that kills / neutralises all pathogens while not damaging human tissue

67
Q

What are antibiotics

A

A drug that kills bacteria
They have no effects on viruses or fungi

68
Q

What is Aseptic Technique

A

A technique used to ensure that no foreign microorganisms are introduced into a sample being tested

69
Q

What does aseptic mean

A

Without microorganisms

70
Q

What is a sterile environment

A

An environment free of microorganisms

71
Q

How is aseptic technique performed

A

First a sterile environment must be formed

Bunsen burner is used to create an updraft preventing any microorganisms from being in the area.
70% ethanol is used to clean surfaces / autoclave glassware
Wash hands
Heat inoculation loop in the flame

Microorganisms can then be applied via streak or spread plating

The bacteria is then sealed with a + pattern of tape ensuring oxygen can enter but no bacteria can escape

72
Q

Why when testing bacteria does the petri dish need oxygen inside of it

A

In order to prevent harmful anaerobic bacteria from forming

73
Q

How is streak plating performed

A

After sterilising the loop dip it into a sample of bacteria

Make four or five streaks against one edge of an agar plate

Flame and cool the loop

Make a new set of streaks by crossing over the original set, spreading them out

Repeat these two steps twice

Fix the lid shut with a + of tape and label the plate

Lie the plate upside down as it incubates

74
Q

Why are plates with bacterial growth laid upside down during incubation

A

To prevent any contamination from entering the dish

75
Q

What are bactericidal antibiotics

A

Antibiotics which kill bacteria

76
Q

What are bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

Antibiotics which inhibit growth

77
Q

Give an example of antispetics

A

Iodine and alcohols

78
Q

Why dont antibiotics work on viruses

A

As the viruses have different enzymes

79
Q

Why dont antibiotics affect humans

A

As they target the cell wall, and animals dont have cell walls

80
Q

What happens in pre clinical trials

A

A drug is tested on animals or tissue / cell culture

81
Q

What is observed during pre clinical trials

A

Success of a drug (efficacy)
Dosage sizes
Toxicitu
Side effects

82
Q

When do clinical trials begin

A

If pre clinical trials show a successful drug it may move to clinical trials

83
Q

What are the 3 phases in clinical trials

A

1) Tested on a small group of around 100
Mainly looking at side effects and dosage size

2) Testing on more patients with the disease (200 - 300 patients)
Looking at dosage, side effects and if the drug is effective

3) A double blind randomised controlled trial
Testing on patients (300 - 1000)
Looks at if the drug is effective, and any side effects

84
Q

What is a double blind randomised controlled trial

A

A trial with two groups.

Each person is assigned to a group randomly
One group receives a placebo (control group)
One group receives the drug

Even the doctors do not know who is given what (double blind)

This is done to remove bias

85
Q

What is the purpose of using a placebo

A

To highlight any psychological effects of taking a drug

86
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies

A

An antibody produced by a single clone of cells

87
Q

What is a hybridoma cell

A

Fused cells

88
Q

What is HPV

A

Human Papilloma Virus

Cause cervical cancer+ genital warts

Spread by skin to skin contact

89
Q

How are MABs used to combat cancer

A

They are tagged with a fluorescent tag that can be detected using ultra violet

These bind to antigens on cancer cells showing where the cells are

They also mark the cancer cells for T-cells (T-killer cells)

They can also be tagged with a drug to treat cancer

90
Q

What is cirrhosis

A

Liver scarring caused by alcohol abuse (excessive consumption) over time

Prevents your liver from functioning

Alcohol is toxic so when broken down it releases chemicals which damage the liver

91
Q

What is bronchitis

A

A nom communicable disease

Inflammation of the lungs
Excess mucus production blocks airways making it harder to breathe

This is because less oxygen reaches the alveoli, so less oxygen can be transported around the body (less aerobic respiration around the body)

92
Q

How is bronchitis caused

A

Chemicals in cigarette smoke damage your lungs

This leads to inflammation.

Excess mucus is produced to trap microorganisms and dust so that your cillia can move it away from the airways

93
Q

Substance sin Smoking and damage they cause:

A

Tar - collects in the lungs → is carcinogenic

Nicotine - addictive drug that affects the nervous system. Makes the heart beat faster and narrows blood vessels

Carbon monoxide - binds to haemoglobin over oxygen (less oxygen for the body)

Particulates - small pieces of solid are engulfed by white blood cells. An enzyme is released that weakens the alvioli

94
Q

What does alcohol do (as its a depressant)

A

It slows down the bodies reactions (e.g slower nervous system)

95
Q

What is Type 2 Diabetes

A

A non communicable disease caused by lifestyle → too much sugar

Cause by an insulin resistance → sugar is not taken up when insulin binds to receptor cells

Blood glucose levels are always high

Also caused when not enough insulin is produced

96
Q

What is CVD

A

Cardiovascular disease is a general term for a disease that effects the heart or blood vessels

97
Q

What is atherosclerosis

A

The build up of fats and substances in the artery wall

98
Q

Where does atherosclerosis occur

A

In the arteries

99
Q

What causes atherosclerosis

A

High blood pressure, causes the endothelium to be damaged.

Cholesterol then builds up in the damaged area, narrowing the lumen of the arteries

(Build up of cholesterol is an atheroma)

100
Q

What is cholesterol

A

A molecule which transport lipids

101
Q

Why do atheromas harden

A

Due to the calcium in cholesterol

102
Q

How do atheromas further increases blood pressure

A

Hardened atheromas reduce the elasticity of the elastic fibers and narrows the lumen

This prevents the artery from stretching and recoiling.

A rigid artery cannot stretch so blood pressure remains high

103
Q

What is thrombosis

A

Blood clots forming in arteries and veins

104
Q

What is a positive feedback loop

A

When the product of a reaction leads to an increase in that reaction

105
Q

How does having a high salt diet increase blood pressure

A

It causes an increased solvent concentration in blood cells.

Water from around the blood cells diffuses into them via osmosis increasing the size of the cells (cells stretch)

(Pressure = force / area)

106
Q

What is coronary heart disease

A

A non communicable disease caused by atheromas in coronary veins and arteries

107
Q

What are coronary arteries

A

Arteries which supply oxygen to cardiac MUSCLE

108
Q

What happens when atheromas form in coronary arteries

A

Blood flow is reduced
Less oxygen is brought to cardiac muscle
Less oxygen for aerobic respiration
Less ATP is produced
Cardiac muscle cannot contract (to push blood around the body)
Cardiac cells can die

109
Q

What happens if cardiac muscle is fully deprived of oxygen

A

Cardiac muscle cells ide
This can cause a heart attack

110
Q

Why does having a heart attack increase the risk of having a heart attack (positive feedback loop)

A

Having a heart attack means the heart is weaker (as cardiac muscle is damaged)

This means blood is pumped around the body with a lesser force

To maintain high pressure in the blood the heart contracts faster.

As the heart is contracting faster the risk of a heart attack is greater

111
Q

How do stokes occur

A

Blood clots in the brain

Prevents neurons from having oxygen → cant function

112
Q

What happens when blood pressure increases too much

A

The blood vessel will rupture

113
Q

How does carbon monoxide impact your body (from smoking)

A

Carbon monoxide has a better affinity than oxygen and will bind to haemoglobin first

This reduces oxygen concentration in your blood, as less oxygen binds to haemoglobin

Your heart beats faster to try and receive more oxygen so your blood pressure increases

This causes atherosclerosis

114
Q

How can you prevent CVD (lifestyle)

A

Exercise more
Eat healthier
Dont drink or smoke

115
Q

What is hypertension

A

High blood pressure

116
Q

What are statins + side effects

A

A drug that prevents the formation of blood cholesterol

Makes the liver remove more cholesterol from the blood

Upset stomach

117
Q

What are antiplatelets + side effects

A

A drug that reduces heart attack risk by reducing the stickiness of blood platelets, causes less clotting

Internal bleeding

118
Q

What are beta blockers + side effects

A

A drug that reduces high blood pressure by reducing the effects of adrenaline.
This slows your heartbeat and improves blood flow.

Dizziness / tiredness

119
Q

What are nitrates (drug) + side effect

A

A drug that widens blood vessels by relaxing blood vessel walls.
Allows more pressure to flow through at a low pressure

Headaches and diziness

120
Q

What are anticoagulants + risks

A

Drugs that reduce blood pressure by preventing the blood from clotting.
Prevents volume of arteries from decreaing (as blood clots will decrease the size of arteries)

Can lead to internal bleeding, you would lose more blood if you cut your skin

121
Q

How are stents used to help prevent cvd

A

A wire mesh attached to a balloon is inserted into the area of a blood clot / atheroma

The wire is passed through your arteries from your groin or wrist

When at the correct area the balloon is inflated, expanding the wire mesh

This stretches the artery expanding its size, and the volume of blood it can hold.

The balloon can then be removed leaving the mesh

122
Q

Why do you need to be on blood thinners after having a stent put in

A

To prevent blood clots from forming in the stent, preventing it from functioning

(Take thinners for a few months or year)

123
Q

What is angioplatsy

A

Name of a procedure where the blood vessels are widened using stents

124
Q

What is coronary heart bipass

A

A procedure where blood flow is redirected from an area of damage

A vein is taken from the leg (or other areas) and grafted onto an artery (often multiple coronary arteries).

The blood will flow through the new vein instead, reducing blood pressure

125
Q

What are organ transplants

A

A medical procedure where an organi is removed from one body and placed into another.

126
Q

Why do organs need to be a match

A

To reduce the risk of rejection, and therefore have a successful transplant

127
Q

What is needed for organs to match

A

The same blood type

128
Q

What are the main 4 types of blood

A

Group A - A antigens on the red blood cell, anti-B antibodies in the blood plasma

Group B - B antigen on the red blood cell, anti-A antibodies in the blood plasma

Group Ab - Type A and B antigens on the blood cell, no antibodies in the plasma

Group O - No antigens, anti- A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma

129
Q

Why is type O blood the best to use

A

As they have no antigens on the cell and can therefore there is no risk of rejection due to antibodies

130
Q

What are autologous stem cell transplants

A

Transplants of your own stem cells.

131
Q

What are allogenic stem cell transplants

A

Donor stem cells are used

132
Q

When are autologous stem cell transplants used

A

Radiation in chemotherapy can kill stem cells.

Before the procedure some of your stem cells are taken and frozen

After the procedure they are injected back into the patient

THERE IS NO RISK OF REJECTION

133
Q

What are the main risks with both types of stem cell transplants

A

BOTH HAVE A RISK OF INFECTION

134
Q

What are the issues with allogenic transplants

A

There is a risk of rejection as the antigens are foreign

135
Q

What are induced pluripotent stem cells

A

Cells are taken from the patient and genes are altered to make that cell an embryonic pluripotent cell.

This removes risk of rejection (as the antigens are the same as the patients) and is better than using ASCs as they can divide and differentiate into any specialised cell type