Backup Flashcards

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Q
A
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2
Q

Simple harmonic motion

Displacement =

Frequency = =

Period =

A

x = A cos (ωt + δ)

displacement = max displacement cos( angular velocity x time + phase angle)

f = 1/T = ω/2π

T = 2π/ω

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3
Q

Atomic radius by element - graph

A

Added protons pull in all electrons a bit more.
New shell causes big jump in size.

LINK

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4
Q

Electron affinity - define and graph

A

Electron affinity is defined as the change in energy (in kJ/mole) of a neutral atom (in the gaseous phase) when an electron is added to the atom to form a negative ion. In other words, the neutral atom’s likelihood of gaining an electron.

X + e → X + energy

Half filled subshells (eg N P) are more difficult to add to as the new electron has to go close to an existing one.

LINK

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5
Q

Electronegativity - define and graph

A

Tendency to attract a bonding pair of electrons

Max top right with F 4.0

LINK

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6
Q

First 20 elements of periodic table

with electronegativity of relevant Organic chemistry elements

A
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7
Q

Ionisation energy - define and graph

A

Energy required to REMOVE the most loosely held electron of 1 mol of gaseous atoms

LINK

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8
Q

Thermodynamics

zeroth law

A

The zeroth law of thermodynamics states that

if two thermodynamic systems are each in thermal equilibrium with a third, then they are in thermal equilibrium with each other.

The physical meaning of the law was expressed by Maxwell in the words: “All heat is of the same kind”

Two systems are said to be in the relation of thermal equilibrium if they are linked by a wall permeable only to heat, and do not change over time

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9
Q

Periodic table families - show

A
  1. Alkali metals
  2. Alkali earth metals
  3. Halogens
  4. Noble gases

d-block Transition elements

4f Lanthanide

5f Actinide

LINK

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10
Q

Ionic naming

Cations

A

The preferred method is to use the metal name followed in parentheses by the ionic charge written as a Roman numeral: Iron(III).

But an older naming method, which is still in use, is to use -ous and -ic endings. The ion with the lower oxidation state (lower numerical charge, ignoring the + or -) is given an -ous ending, and the ion with the higher oxidation state (higher numerical charge) is given an -ic ending.

Element Cation Preferred Name Other Name
copper Cu+ copper(I) cuprous
Cu2+ copper(II) cupric
iron Fe2+ iron(II) ferrous
Fe3+ iron(III) ferric
lead Pb2+ lead(II) plumbous
Pb4+ lead(IV) plumbic
mercury Hg22+ mercury(I) mercurous
Hg2+ mercury(II) mercuric
tin Sn2+ tin(II) stannous
Sn4+ tin(IV) stannic

1+ …ous

2+ …ic

Non-metal …ium eg ammonium

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11
Q

Ionic naming

Anions

A

1- …ide

With OXYGEN

Cl O- ….hypo chlor ite

Cl O2- ….chlor ite

Cl O3- …chlor ate

Cl O4-per chlor ate

With HYDROGEN

H CO3-hydrogen carbonate

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12
Q

Acids

Naming convention

A

…ide –> hydroic H2S hydro sulf ic

with OXYGEN

H2 SO3 Sulfur ous acid SO32- Sulf ite ion

H2 SO4 Sulfur ic acid SO42- Sulf ate ion

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13
Q

Binary molecules

Naming convention

A

Lowest left in periodic table FIRST

eg N2 O4

di nitrogen tetr ox ide

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14
Q

10 O & OH

+ 4 C only

Functional groups

(no S N or Halogen)

Draw and name

A

Black folder

Organic 1 pdf

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15
Q

Four equations of kinematics

one dimension

uniform acceleration

A

s = v0t + 1/2 at2

s = 1/2(v + v0)t

v = v0 + at

v2 = v02 + 2as

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16
Q

acceleration in uniform circular motion

formula

name

direction

A

a = v2 / r

Centripital acceleration

to centre

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17
Q

Newton’s laws of motion

Number

title

formula

A

1st Law - The law of Inertia

If net force = 0 then acceleration = 0

2nd Law - Net force causes acceleration

F = ma

3rd Law - Action and reaction

F12 = F21

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18
Q

Friction forces

Types

Formulae

A

Static friction

Fsmaximum = usN (coefficient of static friction mus, Normal force)

Kinetic friction

Fk = ukN (coefficient of kinetic friction muk, Normal force)

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19
Q

Classical fundamental forces

How many

Names

Formulae

A

Gravitational force F = G m1 m2 / r2

Electrostatic force F = k q1 q2 / r2

Magnetic force F = q B v sin theta

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20
Q

Work

define in words

formula

A

Work = force x component of displacement in the direction of the force

W = (F cos theta) s

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21
Q

Kinetic energy

formula

A

K = 1/2 m v2

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22
Q

Potential energy

describe in words

Gravity - formula general

Gravity - formula Earths gravity

Two charges interacting by Electric force - formula

In a stretched spring - formula

A

The energy of position

Ug = -G m1 m2 /r

U = mgh

Ue = k q1 q2 /r

Uspr = 1/2 k x2

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23
Q

Conservation of energy

formula

A

Utotal = initial (K + U) = final (K + U)

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24
Q

Power

Definition

formula

Power in terms of force - formula

A

Rate of energy expenditure OR work done

P = W/t

P = F v

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25
Momentum - formula Conservation of momentum - formula Impulse = = Collisions - types & formulae
p = m v sum of initial momentum = sum of final momentum Impulse = F deltat = deltap Elastic collision (billiard ball) -\> momentum conserved; kinetic energy conserved Inelastic collision (putty) -\> m1 v1 + m1 v2 = (m1 + m2) vf
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Rotational kinematics (1 of 2) 1. rotating object change in angular displacement - formula & units 2. Torque - formula (words and symbols) 3. Moment of inertia - formula & when greater 4. relate torque and angular acceleration
1. theta = arclength / radius radians 2. Torque = F d force x movement arm 3. I = sum mi ri2 greater when mass further from axis of rotation 4. Torque = moment of inertia x angular acceleration
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Rotational kinematics (2 of 2) 1. Rotational kinetic energy - formula 2. Rotational Work - formula 3. Rotational Power - formula 4. Angular momentum of a body - formula 5. Angular momentum of a particle moving around a point - formula 6. Angular momentum conserved??
1. K = 1/2 I w2 moment of inertia angular velocity omega 2. W = T x deltatheta Work = Torque x angular displacement 3. P = Tw Power = Torque x angular velocity 4. L = I w 5. L = p r sintheta momentum of particle rho x radius x sin.. 6. Yes
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Define Quadrance
the quadrance of two points [A1=(x1,y1)] and [A2=(x2,y2)] in a plane is therefore defined as the sum of squares of differences in the [x] and [y] coordinates: Q(A1, A2) = (x2 - x1)^2 + (y2 - y1)^2
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Define Spread
[Wiki page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rational_trigonometry#Quadrance)
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Mass-spring ..?.. Law Restoring force = Angular frequency = ..?.. potential energy =
Hooke's law F = -k x spring constant displacement w = (k/m)1/2 _Elastic_ potential energy U = 1/2 k x2
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The Pendulum Angular frequency =
w = (g / L)1/2
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Elasticity elastic modulus = ..?.. deformation Young's modulus = shear modulus = bulk modulus =
elastic modulus = stress / strain _tensile_ deformation Young's modulus = (F/A) / (deltaL/L0) shear modulus = (F/A) / (deltax/h) bulk modulus = (F/A) / (deltaV/V)
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Fluid mechanics density = pressure = pressure at depth h =
p = m/V P = F/A P = atmospheric pressure + pgh
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Pascal's law formula leads to hyd..... ...ess
Fa/Aa = Fb/Ab hydraulic press
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Archimedes principle formula in words
Buoyant force = weight of fluid displaced
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Flow of an ideal fluid ..... flux formula Ber........ law formula
volume flux A1V1 = A2V2 Bernouilli's law P + 1/2pv2 + pgy = constant Pressure + Kinetic energy + Potential energy = constant
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Atomic orbitals Name the orbitals how many electrons they hold where they appear on the periodic table
s p d f s 2 p 6 d 10 f 14 s groups 1 and 2 p groups 3 - 8 d transition elements f lanthanide and actinide series
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Chemical bonding name the bond types describe them list strongest to weakest
**STRONG BONDS** 1. Metallic bonds 2. Ionic bonds 3. Covalent bonds **WEAK BONDS** 1. London dispersion forces - induced dipole-induced dipole attraction The London dispersion force is a temporary attractive force that results when the electrons in two adjacent atoms occupy positions that make the atoms form temporary dipoles. London forces are the attractive forces that cause nonpolar substances to condense to liquids and to freeze into solids when the temperature is lowered sufficiently. 2. Dipole-dipole attractions - electrostatic interactions between permanent dipoles in molecules 3. Hydrogen bonds (specially strong form of dipole-dipole) 4. Ion-dipole bonds Bond type Dissociation energy (kcal/mol)[9] Ionic Lattice Energy 250–4000 [10] Covalent Bond Energy 30–260 Hydrogen Bonds 1–12 (about 5 in water) Dipole–Dipole 0.5–2 London Dispersion Forces
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Antibonding Explain why it exists How does it explain why He2 is not a stable molecule
The number of molecular orbitals has to equal the number of atomic orbitals. Bringing together two atomic orbitals will always result in two new molecular orbitals, one bonding ("constructive overlap") one antibonding ("destructive overlap") Antibonding orbitals have higher energy than the separated atoms orbitals which in turn have higher energy level than the bonding orbitals. He has a full s shell of two electrons. So when two He atoms bond there are two electrons in the bonding orbital and two in the non bonding orbital. This is a higher energy state than the two separate atoms so they would prefer to be apart.
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Sigma and pi bonding explain what they are and when they occur their relative strengths
sigma bond - direct s or p orbital overlap (in line) pi bond - after a sigma bond; p orbital overlap; weaker than sigma
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Hybridisation What is it? How is the concept of hybrid orbitals useful in chemistry?(2)
Hybridisation **_is_** the concept of mixing atomic orbitals into new hybrid orbitals (with different energies, shapes, etc., than the component atomic orbitals) suitable for the pairing of electrons to form chemical bonds Hybrid orbitals are very **_useful_** in the explanation of molecular geometry and atomic bonding properties. The amount of p character or s character, which is decided mainly by orbital hybridisation, also can be **_used_** to reliably predict molecular properties such as acidity or basicity
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Hybridisation name first three their geometry and bond angle
sp - linear - 180o (the p**_1_** is implied) sp2 - trigonal planar - 120o sp3 - tetrahedral - 109.5o
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carbon-carbon sigma bonds list all possibilities strong to weak identify hybridisation identify shortest bond length
strongest has most s character and least p (similar to why sigma bonds are stronger than pi bonds) 137 Angstroms sp-sp 2p sp-sp2 3p sp-sp3 4p sp2-sp2 4p sp2-sp3 5p sp3-sp3 6p 154 Angstroms
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Thermal expansion Linear = Area = Volume =
deltal = a lo deltaT alpha is coefficient of linear expansion deltaA = 2a Ao deltaT deltaV = 3a Vo deltaT
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Bond order define
Bond order is the number of chemical bonds between a pair of atoms. For example, in diatomic nitrogen N≡N the bond order is 3, in acetylene H−C≡C−H the bond order between the two carbon atoms is also 3, and the C−H bond order is 1. Bond order gives an indication of the stability of a bond.
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Hybridisation how to determine
Sum surrounding atoms and lone pairs fill as follow s p (1,2 or 3) d....
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Wave propogation speed of wave on a stretched string = and for a harmonic wave = velocity of sound formula
v = (F / u)1/2 Tension / mu is mass per unit length v = lambda x f v = (B / p)1/2 Bulk modulus / rho is density
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Sound waves velocity of sound formula loudness in decibels = Sound Intensity with distance Planar waves = Cylindrical waves = Spherical waves =
v = (B / p)1/2 Bulk modulus / rho is density loudness in decibels = 10 log10 (I / Io) Intensity , Io is 10-12 W/m2 Planar waves I = constant Cylindrical waves I = 1/r Spherical waves I = 1/r2
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Doppler effect f' =
f'= fo (c +- vo) / (c +- vs) speed of wave / observer / source + towards/ - away
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Wave superposition standing waves fixed at both ends, wavelength = standing waves fixed at one end e.g tube, wavelength =
standing waves fixed at both ends wavelengthn = 2L / n (n = 1,2,3,4,5...) standing waves fixed at one end e.g tube, wavelength = wavelengthn = 4L / n (n = 1,,3,,5...) [webpage animations](http://www.acs.psu.edu/drussell/Demos/StandingWaves/StandingWaves.html)
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Wave superposition beat frequency =
fb = f1 - f2
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Gravitation Law of universal universal gravitation is Gravitational field g = Gravitational potential energy Ug =
Gravitational force F = G m1 m2 / r2 g = G m / r2 Ug = - G m1m2 / r
53
Kepler's laws of planetary motion Name and describe in words
Kepler's laws of planetary motion are three scientific laws describing the motion of planets around the Sun First law - the **Orbital** rule The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci. Second law - the **Area** rule A line segment joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time. Third law - the **Period** rule The **square** of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the **cube** of the **semi-major axis** of its orbit.
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Heat capacity Define specific heat Define Molar heat Heat capacity = ....Specific heat.... Heat capacity = ....Molar heat capacity...
Specific heat c Q = m c deltaT c joules per gram to raise 1o Kelvin Molar heat capacity C Q = n C deltaT C joules per mol to raise 1o Kelvin
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Transmission of heat Rate of heat flow (by conduction) = Rate of heat flow (by radiation) =
Rate of heat flow (by conduction) **Q/t = K A (deltaT/deltax)** K is thermal conductivity of the material deltax is conductor thickness Stefan's law Rate of heat flow (by radiation) **Q/t = A epsilon sigma T4** epsilon is emissivity sigma is Stefan-Boltzmann constant
56
Hybridisation Explain sp2 resonance enabled hybridisation
Hybridization’s crucial exception is this: when an atom that appears to be sp3 hybridized can participate in resonance, that atom is in fact sp2 hybridized. This is because resonance requires an open p-orbital to occur. Sp3 atoms have 4 sp3 -hybridized orbitals but no open p-orbitals, and therefore cannot participate in resonance. Sp2 -hybridized atoms can. Why is it important for resonance to occur? Again, the answer lies in stability. Structures with resonance are more stable than similar structures without resonance, so whenever an atom has an opportunity to free up a p-orbital to accommodate resonance, it will do so. How often will this exception come up? Pretty often. In fact, almost continuously. A note on good practice: When looking for other resonance structures, keep in mind that definite sp3 orbitals (such as a carbon with four bonds) prevent resonance from occurring through them due to their lack of a p-orbital. P-orbitals are like bridges that electrons use as a path for resonance (delocalization). If there is no bridge, the path cannot be traveled.
57
Periodic table characteristics (1 of 2) alkali family alkaline earth transition metals rare earth elements
alkali family - group 1, hydrogen is not a member. good conductors of heat and electricity, most reactive metals, never found in nature uncombined alkaline earth - group 2, also very reactive transition metals - group 3-12, largest group on periodic table, good conductors of heat and electricity, compounds with these elements are usually brightly colored, rare earth elements - Lanthanoids- soft malleable metals, high luster and conductivity Actinoids- radioactive
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Periodic table characteristics (2 of 2) ## Footnote halogen family noble gases
halogen family - most reactive nonmetals, never found uncombined in nature, halogens combined with metals form salts  noble gases - normally unreactive, also called inert gases,
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Effective nuclear charge What is it?
In an atom with one electron, that electron experiences the full charge of the positive nucleus. In this case, the effective nuclear charge can be calculated from Coulomb's law. However, in an atom with many electrons the outer electrons are simultaneously attracted to the positive nucleus and repelled by the negatively charged electrons. The effective nuclear charge on such an electron is given by the following equation: Zeff = Z - S where Z is the number of protons in the nucleus (atomic number), and S is the average number of electrons between the nucleus and the electron in question (the number of nonvalence electrons).
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Bond energy Draw graph
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Chemical yield Formula
% Yield = Actual yield / Theoretical yield
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Reaction types Name and explain in symbols (4)
Combination A + B -\> C Decomposition C -\> A + B Single displacement A + BC -\> B + AC Double displacement AB + CD -\> AD + CB
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Quantum numbers Draw table
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Structural formulae List and describe possible structural formulae (7)
1. Lewis dot structure 2. Dash formula - shows the bonds between atoms but not their 3D structure H-C-C.. 3. Condensed formula - CH3CH2... 4. Bond line formula - intersections, corners and endings are assumed to be C unless other drawn in. H not drawn 5. Fischer projection - vertical lines into page, horizontal out of page 6. Newman projection - view straight down axis of one of the sigma bonds. Circle and intersecting lines are C 7. Dash-line-wedge model - wedge out of page, dashed into
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Structures Draw n-propyl isopropyl n-butyl isobutyl sec-butyl tert-butyl
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IUPAC nomenclature Organic Chemistry Rules (4)
1. The longest carbon chain with the most substituents determines the base name​ 2. The end carbon closest to a carbon with a substituent is always 1 (tie look for next) 3. Any substituent is given the same number as its carbon 4. If the same substituent is used more than once use prefix di-, tri, tetra- ... Order the substituents alphabetically (CH3)2CHCH2CH2Br would be named 1-bromo-3-methylbutane. See organic 1.pdf page 3 (alkanes)
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The terminology of carbon-containing functional groups: what does primary cabon mean? secondary? tertiary? quaternary?
Primary carbons, are carbons attached to one other carbon. (Hydrogens – although usually 3 in number in this case – are ignored in this terminology, as we shall see). Secondary carbons are attached to two other carbons. Tertiary carbons are attached to three other carbons. Finally, quaternary carbons are attached to four other carbons.
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IUPAC nomenclature Organic Chemistry Draw - Human name analogy to nomenclature
Organic Compounds Follow a Similar Naming Pattern Prefix = substituent **3-methyl**hex-2-ene **3-ethyl-2-methyl**hexane First Name = carbon chain number 3-methyl**hex**-2**-**ene 3-ethyl-2-methyl**hex**ane Last Name = type of chain 3-methylhex**-2-ene** 3-ethyl-2-methylhex**ane** Suffix = highest priority functional group 3-methylhex-2-ene 3-ethyl-2-methylhexane If it Sticks Out – It’s a Substituent. These atoms or groups of atoms are considered your substituents, and represent the prefix ‘Miss‘ for Miss Jane Doe. The most common simple substituents include halogens and short carbon chains.
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Constitutional isomers Define How to determine
Constitutional isomers are compounds that have the same molecular formula and different connectivity. To determine whether two molecules are constitutional isomers, just count the number of each atom in both molecules and see how the atoms are arranged. If both molecules have the same count for all of the different atoms, and the atoms are arranged in different ways (their connectivity is different), the molecules will be constitutional isomers. (Recall that connectivity means how the atoms are attached to one another. For example, an ether has a connectivity of C-O-C, and analcohol has a connectivity of C-O-H.)
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Organic chemistry Name the number prefixes 1 - 10
``` meth = 1 eth = 2 prop = 3 but = 4. ``` Pent Hex Sept Oct Non dec = 10
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**Straight** carbon chain naming The general formula for a alkane is ... The general formula for an alkene is ... The general formula for an alkyne is ...
The general formula for an alkane is Cn H2**n+2** The general formula for an alkene is Cn H2**n** The general formula for an alkene is Cn H2**n-2**
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In organic chemistry, a saturated compound has ....
In organic chemistry, a saturated compound has **no double or triple bonds**
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Describe a Newman projection What area of organic chemistry is it used in What is the purpose of a Newman projection
A Newman projection, useful in alkane stereochemistry, visualizes chemical conformations of a carbon-carbon chemical bond from front to back, with the front carbon represented by a dot and the back carbon as a circle (see below). The front carbon atom is called proximal, while the back atom is called distal. This type of representation is useful for assessing the torsional angle between bonds. useful in **alkane stereochemistry** The purpose of a Newman projection is to show Conformational Isomers (= conformers = rotational isomers) [This is the same molecule, facing different directions] Typical on a C-C bond of a molecule as the sigma bond is free to rotate
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Saturated compounds Describe saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds
Full complement of hydrogens = saturated. In organic chemistry, a **saturated** compound is a chemical compound that has a chain of carbon atoms linked together by **single** bonds. Alkanes are an example of saturated compounds. An **unsaturated** compound is a chemical compound that contains carbon-carbon **double** bonds or **triple** bonds, such as those found in alkenes or alkynes, respectively. Saturated and unsaturated compounds need not consist only of a carbon atom chain. They can form straight chain, branched chain, or ring arrangements. They can have functional groups, as well. *In other unsaturated hydrocarbons, the double bond between two carbons prevents rotation of the atoms about the bond, locking them into specific structural formations. When attached atoms occupy similar positions on each carbon, they are referred to as "cis", and when they are on opposite sides, they are called "trans". Most natural hydrocarbons exist in the cis state, but artificially manufactured hydrocarbons are trans. The body lacks the enzymes to properly break down the trans configuration. This is why trans fats are viewed as dangerous and unhealthy, as they tend to build up. Unsaturated compounds of the two formations are classified as geometric isomers of one another.*
75
Gas laws Boyles law - formula Charles law - formula The ideal gas law - formula
P1V1 = P2V2 constant temperature V1/T1 = V2/T2 constant pressure PV = nRT n is mol; R is universal gas constant
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Kinetic theory formula for **kinetic** energy relating to temperature formula for **internal** energy relating to temperature what is gas molecule speed proportional to? What does this relationship directly predict?
Kinetic energy = (3/2) kT k is Boltzmann's constant [webpage LINK](http://ef.engr.utk.edu/hyperphysics/hbase/thermo/temper.html) Internal energy U = (3/2) nRT n is mol; R is universal gas constant gas molecule speed proportional to (mass)-1/2 Important - speed-mass relationship at constant temperature directly predicts **comparative efusion and diffusion rates**
77
First law of thermodynamics The first law of thermodynamics is a version of the law of **..??..** , adapted for **..??..** systems. The first law of thermodynamics states two things - describe in words Give the formula and describe what the terms mean
The first law of thermodynamics is a version of the law of **conservation of energy**, adapted for **thermodynamic** systems. The law of conservation of energy states that the **1. total energy of an isolated system is constant**; 2. energy can be transformed from one form to another, but cannot be created or destroyed. The first law is often formulated by stating that the change in the internal energy of a closed system is equal to the amount of heat supplied to the system, minus the amount of work done **by the system** on its surroundings. deltaU = Q - W
78
Model thermodynamic transformations There are 4 processes:- name them formula (From the first law of thermodynamics) describe terms in the formula
The first law of thermodynamics ΔU=Q+W*work done on the system* 1. Isothermal - Constant temperature and thus constant internal energy, Heat flow is compensated by work ΔU = 0 Q = -W 2. Adiabatic - no heat flow, internal energy change = work performed Q = 0 ΔU = -W 3. Isovolumetric - no work occurs, internal energy change = heat flow W = 0 ΔU = Q 4. Isobaric - Constant pressure W = P ΔV ΔU = Q - P ΔV The first law of thermodynamics It is typical for chemistry texts to write the first law as ΔU=Q+W. It is the same law, of course - the thermodynamic expression of the conservation of energy principle. It is just that W is defined as the work done on the system instead of work done by the system. n the context of physics, ΔU=Q-W the common scenario is one of adding heat to a volume of gas and using the expansion of that gas to do work, as in the pushing down of a piston in an internal combustion engine. In the context of chemical reactions and process, it may be more common to deal with situations where work is done on the system rather than by it.
79
A 3 or 4 carbon substituent is common enough for shorthand names to be used when IUPAC naming the molecule Draw them What are the names? Why are they chosen ( *where do they come from, what are they shorthand for*)
R-C-C-C is propyl (as normal) **iso**propyl is an **iso**mer of propyl R-C-C-C-C is butyl (as normal) **iso**butyl is an **iso**mer of butyl **sec**butyl - the attached carbon R-C is a **sec**ondary carbon ie has two carbons attached to it (in the substituent) **tert**butyl - the attached carbon R-C is a **tert**iary carbon ie has three carbons attached to it (in the substituent)
80
Naming cyclic alkanes explain the method for naming cyclic alkanes also with substituents also double rings
**cyclo**pentane **cyclo**hexane 7-methyl-8-(1-methylethyl)**bicyclo[4.3.0]**nonane Start counting carbons at the join (bridgehead). Go all the way round one ring, then the next and finish on any shared carbons (bridge). [this gives the pentane or hexane part] clockwise/anti-clockwise follows the usual rules for closest substituent the [**4**. means 4 carbons in the ring 1,2,... the [ .**3**. means 3 carbons in the other ring the .**0**] means no carbons shared by both rings *http://leah4sci.com/organicchemistry/ presents:* *Naming Cycloalkane and Bicyclo alkanes This video is Part 5 in the Naming Organic Compounds series*
81
Mendelian inheritance is inheritance of biological features that follows the laws proposed by Gregor Johann Mendel in 1865 State the three laws (and explain them) Draw a 2x2 Punnett square
Law of **Segregation** - B & b are independently contributed by parents. we have pairs *as shown in diagram* Law of **Independent Assortment** - selection of a particular gene in the gene pair for one trait to be passed to the offspring has nothing to do with the selection of the gene for any other trait. Law of **Dominance** - Some alleles are dominant while others are recessive; an organism with at least one dominant allele will display the effect of the dominant allele. *A gamete is a cell that fuses with another cell during fertilization (conception) in organisms that sexually reproduce* B is dominant gene, b is recessive Mendelian ratio is 3:1
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Dihybrid cross Show the dominant and recessive genes for a dihybrid cross Show the Mendelian ratio of traits in the second generation
Figure 2 Dihybrid cross. The phenotypes of two independent traits show a **9:3:3:1 (DD, Dr, rD, rr)** ratio in the F2 generation. In this example, coat color is indicated by B (brown, dominant) or b (white), while tail length is indicated by S (short, dominant) or s (long). When parents are homozygous for each trait (SSbb and ssBB), their children in the F1 generation are heterozygous at both loci and only show the dominant phenotypes (SsbB). If the children mate with each other, in the F2 generation all combinations of coat color and tail length occur: 9 are brown/short (purple boxes), 3 are white/short (pink boxes), 3 are brown/long (blue boxes) and 1 is white/long (green box).
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genotype = phenotype = dominant trait - expressed in ... A/a recessive trait - expressed in ...A/a homozygous = A/a heterozygous = A/a allele =
genotype = genetic makeup phenotype = expression of a trait dominant trait - expressed in AA Aa aA recessive trait - expressed in aa homozygous = individual having AA or aa heterozygous = individual having aA or Aa allele = A or a *An allele is a variant form of a gene. Some genes have a variety of different forms, which are located at the same position, or genetic locus, on a chromosome. Humans are called diploid organisms because they have two alleles at each genetic locus, with one allele inherited from each parent.*
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Sex linked traits Draw a Punnett square for sex linked traits - hemophilia Who is the carrier? Who is affected?
Mother is the carrier Son is affected
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Living things taxonomy Draw from common ancestor of all organisms - through humans
Diagram then **Kingdoms** - **animals**, plants **Phylum** - **Chordata** (animals with backbone), etc **Class** - **mammalia**, reptilia etc **Order** - **primates**, bats etc **Family** - **hominidae** (humans & great apes), baboons etc **Genus** - **homo**, orangutan, etc **Species** - **homo sapiens**, etc
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MCAT verbal reasoning What are a good source of information about the passage?
question stems
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MCAT verbal reasoning multiple choice wrong answers can be categorised by the way they distract you from the correct answer Identify 5 distractors
**Round-about** - like a politician's answer **Beyond** - relies on information not in the passage ie beyond it **Contrary** - (most answers support the main idea) **Simpleton** - an easily verified bit from the passage that doesn't relate to the question **Unintelligible** - you don't understand the option
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MCAT verbal reasoning identifying the correct answer choice What do typical correct answers contain?
**Softeners** - most likely, seemed to, had a tendency to etc
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Electricity Coulomb's law force between two point charges F = Define electric field E = and in words Electric field around a point charge E = Gauss's law
Coulomb's law force between two point charges F = kq1q2/r2 E = F/q Electric field predicts the force that would exert on a test charge Electric field around a point charge E = kq/r2 Gauss's law - Flux through a closed surface = net enclosed electric charge / permittivity of free space
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Electrostatic potential energy between two point charges U =
Electrostatic potential energy between two point charges U = kq1q2/r
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Electric potential - voltage Define voltage V = two points in space near a test charge V = between parallel charged plates V =
Voltage is the work a field can do on a test charge V = ΔU / q W/A J/C two points in space near a test charge V = kq [1/ra - 1/rb] between parallel charged plates V = Ed
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Capacitance C =
C = Q / V
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Isomers Draw the isomer flowchart without yes / no or the questions, this card is to get the structure
[LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart What question separates isomer / not isomer?
Do the compounds have the **same molecular formula** Yes = isomer No = not isomer [LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart What question separates configurational and conformational isomers? What type of isomer are they both?
can the compounds be **interconverted** by **rotation** about a **single** bond Yes = conformational (rotational) isomer (conformer) No = configurational isomer They are both stereoisomers [LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart What question separates constitutional and stereoisomers?
Do the compounds have the **same connectivity** Yes = stereoisomer No = Constitutional (structural) isomer [LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart What question separates geometric and optical isomers? What type of isomers are they both?
Is the isomerism at a double bond Yes = geometric isomer No = Optical isomer They are both configurational isomers, which is a type of stereoisomer [LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart What question separates enantiomers and diastereomers ? What type of isomers are they both?
Are the compounds non-superimposable mirror images Yes = enantiomers (an ant in the mirror) No = diastereomers They are both optical isomers, which are a type of configurational isomer, which is a type of stereoisomer [LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart questions Do the compounds have the same connectivity Yes = No =
same connectivity = steroeisomers No = constitutional isomer [LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart questions Do the compounds have the same molecular formula Yes = No =
same molecular formula = isomer No = not isomer [LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart questions Can the compounds be interconverted by rotation about single bonds Yes = No =
interconverted by rotation about single bonds = conformational isomer No = Configurational isomer [LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart questions Is the isomerism at a double bond? Yes = No =
[LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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Isomer flow chart questions Are the compounds non-superimposable mirror images? Yes = No =
[LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/351/Carey5th/Ch07/ch7-1.html)
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standard molar volume =
1 mol gas at STP = 22.4L
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Dalton's law of partial pressures formula =
Ptotal = P1 + P2 ....
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Effusion - define effusion rates for mix of gas A and B - formula Diffusion - define Diffusion rates for mix of gas A and B - formula
**Effusion** is the process in which a gas escapes through a small hole **Diffusion** - is the process by which molecules intermingle as a result of their kinetic energy of random motion. **Rates** are the same for effusion and diffusion - see graphic and beware of **inverse** A A
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Collision model of reactions - explain including activation energy
The Effect of Molecular Orientation on the Reaction of NO and O3. Most collisions of NO and O3 molecules occur with an incorrect orientation for a reaction to occur. Only those collisions in which the N atom of NO collides with one of the terminal O atoms of O3 are likely to produce NO2 and O2, even if the molecules collide with E \> Ea activation energy
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Reaction rate define reaction rate formula & explain all terms in the reaction A + B -\> C
reaction rate = **-** Δ [reactants] / Δtime []=concentration reaction rate = + Δ [products] / Δtime k is the rate constant for the forward reaction m is the order of reactant A n is the order of reactant B m + n is the overall order of the reaction *see other cards for graphs of the different orders - amount vs time*
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Reaction rate for the reaction 4A + 3B -\> 2C + 6D the reaction rate for C is 1 mol/Ls what is the reaction rate for A B and D
the reaction rate for A is 2 mol/Ls the reaction rate for B is 1.5 mol/Ls the reaction rate for D is 3 mol/Ls [video LINK](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oWeDhEidiEo&index=4&list=PLX2gX-ftPVXW5YIBZiWkjf-O-FM7F0a4f)
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chemical reaction rate constant define the rate constant k = how does k vary with [reactant] ? draw graph for large k, medium k and small k
k = - (slope of reactant concentration with time graph) / [reactant] k does **not** vary within a reaction large k - very steep (big slope) small k - shallow (small slope) [Video webpage LINK](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lN5inPpLp7w&list=PLX2gX-ftPVXW5YIBZiWkjf-O-FM7F0a4f&index=5)
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Chemical reaction order What is the overall reaction **order** for this reaction
**order** of overall reaction = m + n
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chemical reaction **order** Define
First order - rate proportional to [reactant] Second order - rate proportional to [reactant]**2** Third order - rate proportional to [reactant]3 *doesn't have to be integer - eg order **1.5** is valid 1.5*
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chemical reaction order how is the order determined
Experimentally vary the quantity of one reactant (at a time) and see how the reaction rate varies if the rate doubles - order = 1 if the rate x4 - order = 2 if the rate x9 - order = 3 etc
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Activation energy define draw graph for **exo**thermic reaction draw graph for **endo**thermic reaction draw graph for reaction with catalyst
**Activation energy** - the minimum energy which must be available to a chemical system with potential reactants to result in a chemical reaction. Catalyst lowers the activation energy (lower peak)
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Chemical kinetics Define the rate determining step
In chemical kinetics, the overall rate of a reaction is often approximately determined by the **slowest step**, known as the **rate determining step**
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chemical equilibrium define reaction quotient Q define reaction direction - equilibrium constant K vs Q
In a chemical reaction, **chemical equilibrium** is the state in which both reactants and products are present in concentrations which have **no further tendency to change with time**. Usually, this state results when the forward reaction proceeds at the **same rate** as the reverse reaction. *The equilibrium constant is a ratio of the concentration of the products to the concentration of the reactants. If the K value is less than one the reaction will move to the left and if the K value is greater than one the reaction will move to the right*
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Chatelier's principle define
**Any change in status quo prompts an opposing reaction in the responding system** When a system at equilibrium is subjected to change in concentration, temperature, volume, or pressure, then the system readjusts itself to (partially) counteract the effect of the applied change and a new equilibrium is established. or whenever a system in equilibrium is disturbed the system will adjust itself in such a way that the effect of the change will be nullified. (in short) This principle has a variety of names, depending upon the discipline using it (see **homeostasis**, a term commonly used in biology). It is common to take Le Châtelier's principle to be a more general observation,[1] roughly stated: In chemistry, the principle is used to manipulate the outcomes of reversible reactions, often to increase the yield of reactions.
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Systems and surroundings Define types of systems and what **can** and **cannot** be transferred to the surroundings
what and **can** be **transferred** to the surroundings **Open** - matter and energy **Closed** - energy **Isolated** - nothing
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SI derived units Name, units, what it is for : eg kg = kilogram, kg, mass N Pa J W C F V
[webpage LINK](http://physics.nist.gov/cuu/pdf/SIDiagramColor.pdf) The **coulomb** is the charge transported by a constant current of **one ampere** in **one second** One **volt** is defined as the difference in electric potential between two points of a conducting wire when an electric current of **one ampere** dissipates **one watt** of power between those points
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Specific heat 1. define **specific** heat (and units) c 2. define **molar specific** heat (and units) C 3. Define heat capacity Q =
1. Specific heat is in units of **J/K/kg** , and is the amount of heat needed (in Joules) to raise the temperature of 1 mole of something, by 1 Kelvin (assuming no phase changes). **2. Molar** specific heat is in units of **J/K/mol** , and is the amount of heat needed (in Joules) to raise the temperature of 1 mole of something, by 1 Kelvin (assuming no phase changes).
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Black body what is the emissivity of a perfect black body radiator? ε =
ε = 1
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PV work explain draw diagram draw PV graph formula
[webpage LINK](http://wright.nasa.gov/airplane/work2.html)
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Heat engine Diagramatically represent a heat engine Formula maximum efficiency = state the second law of thermodynamics what are the implications of the 2nd law for efficiency of machines
[webpage LINK](http://labman.phys.utk.edu/phys136/modules/m3/heatpump.htm) [webpage LINK](https://encrypted.google.com/search?q=heat+engine&sa=X&qscrl=1&biw=1920&bih=993&tbm=isch&tbo=u&source=univ&ved=0CFAQsARqFQoTCI6Y17ru-sYCFUErpgodfDQA7g) The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that the state of **entropy** of the entire universe, as an isolated system, will always increase over time. The second law has been expressed in many ways No 100% efficiency (a heat engine exhaust gas would have to be 0 Kelvin which is impossible)
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Entropy Define (2) S = What happens to entropy with dispersal? give examples
Entropy - a measure of the amount of **energy that is unavailable for work** Entropy - a measure of **disorder** Entropy increases with **dispersal** eg 1. phase change (melting ice), 2. stoichiometric products (if I have more moles after the reaction A + 2B -\> 3C + 2D), 3. increasing gas volume, 4. increasing gas temperature(spreads out)
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Thermodynamics Draw the four thermodynamic processes on a PV diagram - cyclic process identify work
[webpage LINK](http://kias.dyndns.org/gp/notes/notes.37.html) note the adiabatic (no heat energy in or out) or isothermal (no change in temperature) can go in either direction
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Enthalpy Define + formula How is it used in chemistry?
**Enthalpy** is defined as a thermodynamic potential, designated by the letter "H", that consists of the internal energy of the system (U) plus the product of pressure (p) and volume (V) of the system: H = U + pV Since U, p and V are all functions of the state of the thermodynamic system, enthalpy is a state function. The unit of measurement for enthalpy in the International System of Units (SI) is the joule In reactions **ΔH** = Hproducts - Hreactants **Exo**thermic = heat given off Hproducts reactants **Endo**thermic = heat absorbed Hproducts \> Hreactants
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Enthalpy Hess's law - state
The total enthalpy change during the complete course of a reaction is the same whether the reaction is made one one step or several steps
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Enthalpy of **Solution** Explain and give direction of change
Enthalpy of Solution The **heat generated or absorbed when a certain amount of solute is dissolved in a certain amount of solvent.** **Dissolution by most gases is exothermic**. That is, when a gas dissolves in a liquid solvent, energy is released as heat, warming both the system (i.e. the solution) and the surroundings. Often the dissolved state is a lower energy state so the excess energy is given off as heat.
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Gibb's free energy - thermodynamics Formula describe
The Gibbs free energy is defined as: G(p,T) = U + pV - TS which is the same as: G(p,T) = H - TS where: U is the internal energy (SI unit: joule) p is pressure (SI unit: pascal) V is volume (SI unit: m3) T is the temperature (SI unit: kelvin) S is the entropy (SI unit: joule per kelvin) H is the enthalpy (SI unit: joule) Gibbs energy is a thermodynamic potential that measures the "**usefulness**" or process-initiating **work** obtainable from a thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and pressure (isothermal, isobaric). Just as in mechanics, where potential energy is defined as capacity to do work, similarly different potentials have different meanings. The Gibbs free energy (SI units kJ/mol) is the maximum amount of non-expansion work that can be extracted from a thermodynamically closed system (one that can exchange heat and work with its surroundings, but not matter); this maximum can be attained only in a completely reversible process. When a system changes from a well-defined initial state to a well-defined final state, the Gibbs free energy change ΔP equals the work exchanged by the system with its surroundings, minus the work of the pressure forces, during a reversible transformation of the system from the initial state to the final state. Gibbs energy is also the chemical potential that is **minimized** when a system reaches **equilibrium** at constant pressure and temperature. Its derivative with respect to the reaction coordinate of the system vanishes at the equilibrium point. As such, it is a convenient criterion for the spontaneity of processes with constant pressure and temperature.
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Gibbs free energy implications for reactions G G = 0 G \> 0
G G = 0 equilibrium G \> 0 Not spontaneous (needs a bit of energy put in to work The Gibbs free energy is defined as: G(p,T) = U + pV - TS which is the same as: G(p,T) = H - TS where: U is the internal energy (SI unit: joule) p is pressure (SI unit: pascal) V is volume (SI unit: m3) T is the temperature (SI unit: kelvin) S is the entropy (SI unit: joule per kelvin) H is the enthalpy (SI unit: joule) Gibbs energy is a thermodynamic potential that measures the "usefulness" or process-initiating work obtainable from a thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and pressure (isothermal, isobaric).
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Gibbs free energy ΔG = ΔH - TΔS Draw a 2x2 grid showing combinations of ΔH and ΔS \>0 and explain the implications for spontaneous reactions (use ice/water as example)
ΔH (exothermic) ΔH \> 0 (endothermic) ΔS \> 0 Spontaneous ΔG at **high** temperature ΔS at **low** temperature **NOT** Spontaneous ΔG\>0 temperature o \> for water freezing / ice melting ΔG = ΔH - TΔS [Video at 2min 50 for explanation if required:](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=huKBuShAa1w&index=59&list=PLllVwaZQkS2op2kDuFifhStNsS49LAxkZ)
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Magnetic force 1. Force on a particle with velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field F = 2. A particle moving perpendicular to a magnetic field experiences centripital magnetic force leading to uniform circular motion F = 3. Magnetic force on a segment of current carrying conductor F = 4. Torque on a current loop within a uniform magnetic field *T* =
1. Force on a particle with velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field F = q v B sin θ [= q(v X B) vector cross] 2. A particle moving perpendicular to a magnetic field experiences centripital magnetic force leading to uniform circular motion F = qvB = mv2/r [sin = 1, solve for r] 3. Magnetic force on a segment of current carrying conductor F = L I B sin θ [L=segment length, I=current, θ= angle between current and magnetic field] 4. Torque on a current loop within a uniform magnetic field * T* = I A B cos Φ [A=area of loop, Φ = angle between loop plane and magnetic field]
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Sources of the magnetic field 1. Magnetic field on a **straight current carrying wire** B = 2. Magnetic field at the **centre of a current loop** B = 3. Magnetic field **within a solenoid** B =
1. Magnetic field on a **straight current carrying wire** B = μ0 I /( 2 π d) [μ0 = permeability of free space; I=current, d=distance from wire] 2. Magnetic field at the **centre of a current loop**[radius r] B = μ0 I / (2r) 3. Magnetic field **within a solenoid**[n turns per unit length] B = n μ0 I [diagram of fields](http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/magnetic/magfie.html#c1)
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Geometric optics - mirrors focal length of concave and convex mirrors - formula magnitude of lateral magnification M =
1/f = 1/di + 1/do M = - di/do = hi/ho
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Geometric optics What is Michel van Biezel method for finding where the image is for mirrors and lenses?
1. Draw a horizontal line from the top of the object to the surface and then through the focal point 2. Draw a line from the top of the object through the focal point Continue the lines, where they cross is the top of the object - shows position and inversion
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Solutions - units of concentration 1. Mola**_r_**ity M = 2. Mola**_l_**ity m = 3. Mole fraction χ = 4. Mass percentage mass % = 5. ppm =
1. Molarity M = moles of solute / volume of solution 2. Molality m = moles of solute / kg of solvent 3. Mole fraction χ = moles of solute / (total moles of all solutes & solvent) 4. Mass percentage mass % = 100 x mass of solute / total mass of solution 5. ppm = 106 x mass of solute / total mass of solution
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Solutions - units of concentration 1. moles of solute / volume of solution = 2. moles of solute / kg of solvent = 3. moles of solute / (total moles of all solutes & solvent) = 4. 100 x mass of solute / total mass of solution = 5. 106 x mass of solute / total mass of solution =
1. Molarity M = moles of solute / volume of solution 2. Molality m = moles of solute / kg of solvent 3. Mole fraction χ = moles of solute / (total moles of all solutes & solvent) 4. Mass percentage mass % = 100 x mass of solute / total mass of solution 5. ppm = 106 x mass of solute / total mass of solution
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Solubility 1. Solubility - define 2. Solubility product Ksp - define
Solubility is a solute's tendency to dissolve in a solvent the maximum moles of the solute that can dissolve in the solution Solubility product Ksp is the equilibrium constant for solvation
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Solubility Explain the relationship between pressure and solubility using a soda can 1. when popping the tab 2. if heated
1. Solubility of a gas is proportional to the vapour partial pressure so when the can is popped the pressure goes down, so does the solubility of CO2 gas and the thing fizzes 2. As temperature increase the solubility of gases decreases - so the CO2 is released from solution and the can explodes
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Chirality 1. What makes a molecule chiral? 2. What is a chirality centre? 3. What is the most common way to locate a chirality centre? 4. What values can a chirality centre have? 5. What does it mean if there is one OR more than one chiral centre in a molecule
1. An object or a system is chiral if it is distinguishable from its mirror image; that is, it cannot be superposed onto it. Conversely, a mirror image of an achiral object, such as a sphere, cannot be distinguished from the object. A chiral object and its mirror image are called enantiomorphs (Greek opposite forms) or, when referring to molecules, enantiomers. A non-chiral object is called achiral (sometimes also amphichiral) and can be superposed on its mirror image. 2. 3. Chiral centers are tetrahedral atoms (usually carbons) that have four different substituents. 4. Each chiral center in a molecule will be either R or S. 5. As noted above, molecules with a single chiral center are chiral. Molecules with more than one chiral center are usually chiral.
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Stereochemistry - absolute configuration 1. Define 2. What values can it take? 3. For what type of isomers is absolute configuration needed?
1. An absolute configuration in stereochemistry refers to the **spatial arrangement** of the **atoms** of a **chiral** molecular entity (or group) and its stereochemical description 2. e.g. R or S, referring to **Rectus** (clockwise), or **Sinister** (anti-clockwise), respectively. 3. In order to be able to exist as a pair of **enantiomers**, a molecule requires the presence of a chirality center
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Stereochemistry - absolute configuration What are the rules for deciding if a chirality centre is R or S?
1. Assign priority (by atomic number, highest =1) to the four attached atoms (only those directly attached to the sterecentre) 2. if there is a tie write out the 3 atoms that the tying atoms are attached to (highest of each three first). Then use rule 1 to break the tie (use the first point of difference, not all three). 3. If 4 is pointing **into** the page (ie on top or bottom) 123 clockwise=**Rectus**, 123 **anti**clockwise=**Sinister** 4. If 4 is not pointing into the page then apply the single swap rule so that it is. Then apply step 3. The correct configuration is **opposite** to that shown in step 3 (the single swap rule reverses Rectus and Sinister) Here’s how it the single swap rule works. Take a molecule with a stereocenter, like (S)-2-butanol (drawn below). If you swap ANY TWO substituents, you will invert the configuration of the stereocenter. That is, switching any two substituents will give you (R)-2-butanol [webpage LINK](http://www.masterorganicchemistry.com/2011/01/24/the-single-swap-rule/)[Video LINK](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8v97XHqYZyc&index=7&list=PL6B957213153CF907)
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Stereochemistry - absolute configuration What is the single swap rule ?
Here’s how it works. Take a molecule with a stereocenter, like (**S**)-2-butanol (drawn below). If you **swap _ANY_ TWO** substituents, you will **invert the configuration** of the stereocenter. That is, switching any two substituents will give you (**R**)-2-butanol [webpage LINK](http://www.masterorganicchemistry.com/2011/01/24/the-single-swap-rule/) [Video LINK](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8v97XHqYZyc&index=7&list=PL6B957213153CF907)
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Observed rotation - stereochemistry 1. What is it? 2. What is it used for? 3. What is a racemic mixture?
1. **Pure enantiomers** will always **rotate plane-polarized light** to an equal but opposite degree. 2. To establish the **mix of R and S** 3. a racemic mixture is one that has **equal** amounts of left- and right-handed enantiomers of a chiral molecule If a stereochemically pure sample of (S)-carvone, for example, rotates plane-polarized light by +10°(clockwise), then a sample of (R)-carvone (in the exact same concentration and under the same experimental conditions) will rotate light by (–)10° (counterclockwise). Chiral molecules have a property known as optical activity: what this means is that a beam of plane-polarized light, when passed through a sample of a chiral substance, will interact with the substance in such a way that the angle of the plane of oscillation will rotate.
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Stereochemistry cis trans 1. What **type** of molecules can be cis or trans? 2. What do cis and trans **mean**? 3. What **electrical** difference is there between cis and trans? 4. What is the difference in **boiling** point between cis and trans? and why? 5. What is the difference in **melting** point between cis and trans? and why? 6. What is steric hindrance? and what effect does it have?
1. **Geometric** isomers (diastereometer with double bond) can be cis or trans 2. **cis = same** side substituents **trans = opposite** side substituents 3. **cis** has a **dipole** moment 4. **cis = higher boiling** point (dipole moment gives stronger intermolecular forces) 5. **cis = lower melting** point (poorer symmetry -> poorer crystal forming) 6. **cis** subtituents **crowd** each other(higher energy levels -> higher heat of combustion)
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Optically active isomers 1. If an isomer has n chiral centres - how many optically active isomers can it have?
2n
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Stereochemistry - meso 1. What are meso compounds? 2. Are they optically active?
1. a meso compound is a molecule that has chiral centers but also has an **internal plane of symmetry**. 2. This renders the molecule achiral: it does not have an enantiomer, and it **does not rotate** plane polarized light
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Electron pushing arrows 1. What are they and where are used? 2. What are the parts of the arrow and what do they mean? 3. Between two atoms what are the three possible combinations for an electron? 4. How can you move between these combinations?
1. They show electron movement from one atom to another. 2. Electron moves **from tail** to head(\>) 3. **Own** eg a lone pair completely owned by an atom **Share** eg a covalent bond **Lack** eg a lone pair on a completely different atom 4. **One step at a time** Own Share Lack
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Newman projections - stereo chemistry 1. Draw the Newman projections for the conformers of Butane and name them
[Image LINK](http://www2.trincoll.edu/~tmitzel/chem211fold/classnotes/1029_mon/1029_mon_files/image028.png) [Image LINK](http://www.nptel.ac.in/courses/104103071/module8/lec22/images/v10.jpg)
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the 1. Ether
1. **Ether** - **alkoxy - ane** 2. Aldehyde -formyl -al (-carbaldehyde) 3. Ketone -oxo -one 4. Ester (R)-oxycarbonyl -oate 5. Anhydride -oic \*\* -anhydride 6. Epoxide -epoxy -oxide \*\* eg propanoic anhydride (for symmetrical) or propanoic ehtanoic anhydride
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional group 1. Benzene ring
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. **Benzene ring -phenyl -benzene** 2. Enol -?? (E) ... -ol 3. Enoloate
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Amine
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. **Amine -amino -amine** 2. Nitro -nitro -(always substituent) 3. Nitrile -cyano -nitrile 4. Imine -?? -imine 5. Amide -carbonyl -carboxamide(amide) 6. Enamine -?? -??
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 4. Acyl halide
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 3. Alkyl halide -haloalkyl -ane 4. **Acyl halide -n/a -oyl halide** (2-methylpropan**oyl chloride**)
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Faraday's law The emf induced.........
The emf induced by a changing magnetic flux through a circuit is **directly proportional** to the **time rate of change of the magnetic flux** trhough the circuit
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Electrical generators and motors How do they work?
Generator Mechanical work -\> changes magnetic flux -\> induces emf Motor Electical energy -\> changes magnetic flux -\> mechanical work
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Lenz's law The polarity of the induced emf ....................
The polarity of the induced emf is such that the induced current creates a magnetic field that tends to **oppose the change** that produced it
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Maths foundations 1. Definition: What is a natural number? 2. Definition: Successor operation is? 3. Definition: Equality is? 4. Definition: what does less than mean?
1. A string of ones start with nothing make a stroke call it one. Add one to itself by adding another stroke and so on 2. S(I) = II S(II) = III etc s(n) = n + 1 3. n = m means that all the I in n line up with I in m 4. n
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Inductance How do inductors work?
On switch on it takes time for current to reach maximum. The back emf initially opposes the applied voltage
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Maths foundations 2 1. Definition: The **sum** of numbers n and m..... 2. Laws for addition - commutative 3. Laws for addition - Associative
1. The sum of numbers n and m is the combinations of the strings of I n + m IIII + III = IIIIIII 2. n + m = m + n 3. (k + n) + m = k + (n + m)
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Maths foundations 2 - Multiplcation 1. Definition: The **product** of n and m is ... 2. Laws of multiplication - commutative 3. Laws of multiplication - associative 4. Laws of multiplication - identity 5. Laws of multiplication - distributive
1. The product of n and m is the Is formed by a copy of m for every I in n (repeated addition) written n x m 2. commutative n x m = m x n 3. associative (k x n) x m = k x (n x m) 4. identity n x I = n 5. distributive k x (n + m) = k x n + k x m
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Maths foundations 4 1. Subtraction is the ..?.. of addition 2. Define subtraction using k n m 3. State the 5 laws of subtraction using k n m (3 ~ associative, 2 distributive) [Video LINK](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mVd202X-2uM&index=150&list=PL5A714C94D40392AB)
1. Inverse 2. k + m = n k = n - m (if n \> m) 3. n - (m+k) = (n-m) - k n+ (m-k) = (n+m) -k n - (m-k) = (n-m) + k n x (m-k) = n x m - n x k (n-m) x k = n x k - m x k
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Electron pushing arrows 1. What is the most important thing in organic chemistry? 2. What are the valid charges in organic chemistry (at least in org 1 and 2)? 3. How do electron pushing arrows tell us to break a bond?
1. The charges 2. -1 0 +1 3. The tail is on the bond
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional group 6. Epoxide
1. Ether - alkoxy - ane 2. Aldehyde -formyl -al (-carbaldehyde) 3. Ketone -oxo -one 4. Ester (R)-oxycarbonyl -oate 5. Anhydride -oic \*\* -anhydride **6. Epoxide -epoxy -oxide** \*\* eg propanoic anhydride (for symmetrical) or propanoic ehtanoic anhydride
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional group 5. Anhydride
1. Ether - alkoxy - ane 2. Aldehyde -formyl -al (-carbaldehyde) 3. Ketone -oxo -one 4. Ester (R)-oxycarbonyl -oate **5. Anhydride -oic \*\* -anhydride** 6. Epoxide -epoxy -oxide **\*\* eg propanoic anhydride (for symmetrical) or propanoic ehtanoic anhydride**
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the functional group 4. Ester
1. Ether - alkoxy - ane 2. Aldehyde -formyl -al (-carbaldehyde) 3. Ketone -oxo -one 4. **Ester (R)-oxycarbonyl -oate** 5. Anhydride -oic \*\* -anhydride 6. Epoxide -epoxy -oxide \*\* eg propanoic anhydride (for symmetrical) or propanoic ehtanoic anhydride
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of functional groups 3. Ketone
1. Ether - alkoxy - ane 2. Aldehyde -formyl -al (-carbaldehyde) 3. **Ketone -oxo -one** 4. Ester (R)-oxycarbonyl -oate 5. Anhydride -oic \*\* -anhydride 6. Epoxide -epoxy -oxide \*\* eg propanoic anhydride (for symmetrical) or propanoic ehtanoic anhydride
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of 2. Aldehyde
1. Ether - alkoxy - ane 2. **Aldehyde -formyl -al (-carbaldehyde)** 3. Ketone -oxo -one 4. Ester (R)-oxycarbonyl -oate 5. Anhydride -oic \*\* -anhydride 6. Epoxide -epoxy -oxide \*\* eg propanoic anhydride (for symmetrical) or propanoic ehtanoic anhydride
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional group 1. Alcohol
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. **Alcohol -hydroxy -ol** 2. Carboxylic acid -carboxy -carboxylic acid(-oic acid) 3. Alkane -alkyl -ane 4. Alkene -alkenyl -ene 5. Alkyne -alkynyl -yne
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional group 2. Carboxylic acid
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Alcohol -hydroxy -ol **2. Carboxylic acid -carboxy -carboxylic acid(-oic acid)** 3. Alkane -alkyl -ane 4. Alkene -alkenyl -ene 5. Alkyne -alkynyl -yne
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional group 3. Alkane 4. Alkene 5. Alkyne
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Alcohol -hydroxy -ol 2. Carboxylic acid -carboxy -carboxylic acid(-oic acid) **3. Alkane -alkyl -ane** **4. Alkene -alkenyl -ene** **5. Alkyne -alkynyl -yne**
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 6. Enamine (not yet)
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Amine -amino -amine 2. Nitro -nitro -(always substituent) 3. Nitrile -cyano -nitrile 4. Imine -?? -imine 5. Amide -carbonyl -carboxamide(amide) 6. **Enamine -?? -??**
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 5. Amide
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Amine -amino -amine 2. Nitro -nitro -(always substituent) 3. Nitrile -cyano -nitrile 4. Imine -?? -imine 5. **Amide -carbonyl -carboxamide(amide)** 6. Enamine -?? -??
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 2. Nitro
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Amine -amino -amine 2. **Nitro -nitro -(always substituent)** 3. Nitrile -cyano -nitrile 4. Imine -?? -imine 5. Amide -carbonyl -carboxamide(amide) 6. Enamine -?? -??
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 3. Nitrile
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Amine -amino -amine 2. Nitro -nitro -(always substituent) 3. **Nitrile -cyano -nitrile** 4. Imine -?? -imine 5. Amide -carbonyl -carboxamide(amide) 6. Enamine -?? -??
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional group 2. Enol (just suffix) 3. Enoloate (not yet)
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Benzene ring -phenyl -benzene 2. **Enol -?? (E) ... -ol** 3. Enoloate
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 4. Imine (suffix only)
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Amine -amino -amine 2. Nitro -nitro -(always substituent) 3. Nitrile -cyano -nitrile 4. **Imine -?? -imine** 5. Amide -carbonyl -carboxamide(amide) 6. Enamine -?? -??
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. Sulfide
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 1. **Sulfide -n/a -sulfide (eg 2-butyl methyl sulfide )**
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 2. Thiol
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 2. **Thiol -mercapto -thiol**
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Organic chemistry What is a carbonyl group?
A carbonyl group is a chemically organic functional group composed of a carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom --\> [**C=O**] The **simplest carbonyl groups are aldehydes and ketones** usually attached to another carbon compound. These structures can be found in many aromatic compounds contributing to smell and taste.
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Calorimeters 1. Describe the two main types of calorimeter 2. and what parameter they each keep constant
1. Coffee cup and bomb 2. Coffee cup - constant pressure Bomb - constant volume
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Draw a Phase diagram for water
[image LINK](https://craigssenseofwonder.files.wordpress.com/2011/12/phase-diagram.jpg)
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Colligative properties 1. Define 2. What are the colligative properties of solutions?
1. Colligative properties are the physical changes that result from adding solute to a solvent. Colligative Properties depend on how many solute particles are present as well as the solvent amount, but they do NOT depend on the type of solute particles. 2a. Vapour pressure Vapor pressure or equilibrium vapor pressure is the pressure of a vapor in thermodynamic equilibrium with its condensed phases in a closed container. All liquids and solids have a tendency to evaporate into a gaseous form, and all gases have a tendency to condense back to their liquid or solid form. 2b. Boiling point 2c. Freezing point 2d. Osmotic pressure Osmosis is the diffusion of a fluid through a semipermeable membrane. When a semipermeable membrane (animal bladders, skins of fruits and vegetables) separates a solution from a solvent, then only solvent molecules are able to pass through the membrane. The osmotic pressure of a solution is the pressure difference needed to stop the flow of solvent across a semipermeable membrane. The osmotic pressure of a solution is proportional to the molar concentration of the solute particles in solution.
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Muscle tissue 1. Name the types of muscle tissue
1. Skeletal, Cardiac, smooth
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Sketch skeletal muscle structure
[image LINK](https://forcefulaction.files.wordpress.com/2013/03/skeletal-muscle-structure.jpg)
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Draw skeletal muscle functional view
[Image LINK](http://www.nature.com/nrm/journal/v12/n6/images/nrm3118-f1.jpg)
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Draw the physiology of skeletal muscle contraction at the molecular level
[image LINK](http://classes.midlandstech.edu/carterp/Courses/bio210/chap09/Slide25.JPG)
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Draw cardiac muscle tissue structure
[image LINK](http://www.apsubiology.org/anatomy/2010/2010_Exam_Reviews/Exam_3_Review/18-11_AnatCardMusc.JPG)
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Draw smooth muscle tissue structure with contraction
[image LINK](http://classes.midlandstech.edu/carterp/Courses/bio210/chap09/210_figure_09_27_labeled.jpg)
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Cell types in bone 1. What are the four cell types in bone? 2. What is their function?
**Osteocyte** - maintains bone tissue **Osteoblasts** - forms bone matrix **Osteogenic** cells - stem cell **Osteoclasts** - resorbs bone (remove (cells, or a tissue or structure) by gradual breakdown into its component materials and dispersal in the circulation) [image LINK](https://figures.boundless.com/21211/full/604-bone-cells.jpe) Osteogenic cells are the only bone cells that divide.
Osteogenic cells differentiate and develop into osteoblasts which, in turn, are responsible for forming new bone.
Osteoblasts synthesize and secrete a collagen matrix and calcium salts.
When the area surrounding an osteoblast calcifies, the osteoblast becomes trapped and transforms into an osteocyte, the most common and mature type of bone cell.
Osteoclasts, the cells that break down and reabsorb bone, stem from monocytes and macrophages rather than osteogenic cells..
There is a continual balance between osteoblasts generating new bone and osteoclasts breaking down bone.
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Long bone structure 1. Draw
[image LINK](http://classes.midlandstech.edu/carterp/Courses/bio210/chap06/Slide3.JPG)
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Mineral homeostasis in the bones 1. Draw a diagram showing the bones place in mineral homoeostasis
[image LINK](http://intranet.tdmu.edu.ua/data/kafedra/internal/normal_phiz/classes_stud/en/nurse/Bacchaour%20of%20sciences%20in%20nurses/BSN/14%20Physiology%20of%20kidneys.files/image018.jpg)
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Bone joints 1. Describe the types of joints (how they connect, not articulation)
**Fibrous** This type of joint is **held together by only a ligament**. Examples are where the **teeth** are held to their bony sockets and at both the radioulnar and tibiofibular joints. **Cartilaginous** These joints occur where the connection between the articulating bones is made up of cartilage for example **between vertebrae in the spine** **Synovial** joints are by far the most common classification of joint within the human body. They are highly moveable and all have a **synovial capsule** (collagenous structure) surrounding the entire joint, a **synovial membrane** (the inner layer of the capsule) which secretes synovial fluid (a lubricating liquid) and **cartilage** known as hyaline cartilage which pads the ends of the articulating bones. There are 6 types of synovial joints which are classified by the shape of the joint and the movement available
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Draw a structure of human skin diagram
[image LINK](http://static5.depositphotos.com/1006480/507/v/950/depositphotos_5078000-Diagram-of-the-Human-Skin.jpg)
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Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 3. Alkyl halide
Functional groups - nomenclature Give the prefix and suffix of the following functional groups 3. **Alkyl halide -haloalkyl -ane** 4. Acyl halide -n/a -oyl halide (2-methylpropanoyl chloride)
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Tissue 1. Define tissues 2. Name the main tissue types in the human body
1. Groups of cells with related function 2. Muscle, nervous, connective & epithelium
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Fluid compartments 1. How does a physiologist view the body? 2. Name parts and proportions
1. As two fluid compartments separated by a plasma membrane 2. Intercellular fluid compartment (2/3) Extracellular fluid compartment (1/3) {ECF further broken into Intervascular fluid and interstitial}
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Homeostasis 1. What is homeostasis in the human body? 2. Why is it important? 3. What is the main area of the body that organs act on to maintain homeostasis?
1. The body gets lots of input perturbing the current state. Organs act to get back to the desired conditions. 2. The cells require their surroundings to be within quite narrow bands in order to function 3. ECF (Extra cellular fluid) - maintaining their constiruents relatively constant
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Hydrophobic and hydrophillic molecules Explain and characterise
A **hydrophilic** molecule or portion of a molecule is one that is typically **charge-polarized** and capable of **hydrogen bonding**, enabling it to dissolve more readily in water than in oil or other hydrophobic solvents. Hydrophobicity is the physical property of a molecule (known as a hydrophobe) that is seemingly repelled from a mass of water.[1] (Strictly speaking, there is no repulsive force involved; it is an absence of attraction.) **Hydrophobic** molecules tend to be **non-polar** and, thus, prefer other neutral molecules and non-polar solvents. Hydrophobic molecules in water often cluster together, forming micelles. Water on hydrophobic surfaces will exhibit a high contact angle. Examples of hydrophobic molecules include the alkanes, oils, fats, and greasy substances in general. Hydrophobic materials are used for oil removal from water, the management of oil spills, and chemical separation processes to remove non-polar substances from polar compounds
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Cell membrane transport How do hydrophillic and hydrophobic molecules move across the cell membrane?
Non-polar molecules (**hydrophobic**) move across the cell membrane by **simple diffusion** Polar molecules (**hydrophillic**, charged) cannot move across the cell membrane by simple diffusion. **Facilitated diffusion** - They use a transporter protein embedded in the cell membrane that is open to either the ECF or the ICF. Solute enters the opening, the transporter protein changes configuration and allows the solute to the other side.
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Cell transporters What types of cell transporters are there? (in terms of how many solutes they can transport and in what directions)
1. Single transporter - one type of solute 2. Symporter (a co-transporter) - several solutes together. Both must be present and both move in the same direction 3. Antiporter ( a co-transporter) - several solutes together. Both must be present and move in opposite directions.
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Cell transporters 1. What solutes can a transporter move across the cell membrane?
The transporters are specific to a solute (or several). ie they are NOT general purpose transporters
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Cell membrane channels 1. Explain and characterise 2 Explain gating and the three types of gating mechanism
1. When a channel is open there is a clear hole when closed its gone 2. Ligand - specific chemical to open Voltage - specific gradient across the cell membrane to open Mechanical - specific tension to open
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Cell membrane pumps 1. How do they move solutes? (in terms of concentration) 2. What energy do pumps use - if any?
1. From [low] to [high] 2. Pumps always use energy - ATP
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Cell membrane secondary active transport 1. Give a general definition of secondary active transport mechanism 2. Describe how glucose and Na+ are transported across a cell from the intestines into the blood
1. secondary active transport couples the activity of a co-transporter with a pump 2. They enter the cell together via a symporter the glucose leaves the cell via diffusion the Na+ leaves via an active pump (using ATP) and K+ enters [image LINK](https://classconnection.s3.amazonaws.com/27/flashcards/2060027/jpg/glucose_transport_epithelial_cells1349801502218.jpg)
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Cell membranes - water transport 1. How does water move in and out of cells?
**Osmosis is the movement of water across membranes** **Aquaporins** selectively conduct water molecules in and out of the cell, while **preventing the passage of ions and other solutes**. Also known as **water channels**, aquaporins are integral membrane pore proteins. Water molecules traverse through the pore of the channel in single file. The presence of water channels increases membrane permeability to water. Some of them, known as aquaglyceroporins, also transport other small uncharged solutes, such as glycerol, CO2, ammonia and urea across the membrane, depending on the size of the pore. For example, the aquaporin 3 channel has a pore width of 8-10 Ångströms and allows the passage of hydrophilic molecules ranging between 150-200 Da. However, the water pores are completely impermeable to charged species, such as protons, a property critical for the conservation of the membrane's electrochemical potential difference.[8]
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Cell membranes - water transport 1. Which is higher concentration? [pure water] [water with Na+ ions]
1. Pure water has the highest concentration of water
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Cell membranes - water transport 1. Osmosis - what happens to compartment size when the membrane is impermeable to the solute? eg compartment A has 1L water and 2 Na+ ions, B has 1L water and 4 Na+ ions
Osmosis causes change in compartment size when the membrane is impermeable to the solute eg end up with A say 500mL water and still 2 Na+ ions, B 1.5L water and still 4 Na+ ions
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Osmosis - Osmolarity 1. Define osmolarity and compare with molarity 2. eg 1M NaCl
1. Osmolarity = **particles**/L considers ALL molecules Molarity = mol/L 2. 1M NaCl = 2 OsM NaCl because it is Na+ Cl- ions in solution
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Osmosis - Osmolarity 1. In the body what is the osmolarity? 2. What is an equal osmolarity called? 3. What is a lower osmolarity called? 4. What is a higher osmolarity called?
1. 300 mOsM (milli Osmolars) 2. **iso**smotic 3. **hypo**osmotic 4. **hyper**osmotic
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Tonicity and cell volume 1. Define tonicity 2. Compare tonicity with osmolarity 3. Put a red blood cell in 300 mOsM solution (the body normal state) what is the solution called? what happens to the cell? 4. Now a 200 mOsM solution 5. Now a 400 mOsM solution
1. #**non**-penetrating molecules/L 2. Osmolarity considers ALL particles, whether they can cross the cell membrane or not 3. Isotonic, nothing 4. hypotonic, water diffuses into the cell causing it to expand 5. hypertonic, water diffuses out of the cell causing it to shrink
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ICF & ECF Compare the ICF and ECF for the following items 1. redox which has higher concentrations 2. K+ 3. Na+ 4. Ca++ 5. proteins 6. phosphates
1. ICF reducing, ECF oxidising 2. ICF 3. ECF 4. ECF 5. ICF 6. ICF
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Facilitated diffusion in cells 1. Define facilitated diffusion 2. Draw the flux vs solute concentration graph for simple and facilitated diffusion 3. Why might the graphs be different
1. Facilitated diffusion – membrane impermeable molecules can either enter or leave cells using transport proteins. Transport proteins are classified as either transporters or channels. 2. See graph 3. There are only so many transport proteins on the cell surface. So at some concentration they are all being used. So increasing concentration does not increase the flow rate across the cell membrane
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Endocrinology 1. Name and describe the TWO Homeostatic control mechanisms include reflex loops in which the response decision is made at a distance from the target cell. 2. Name and describe the other TWO homeostatic control mechanisms ie the local response in which the signal and action occurs close to or at the target cell
1. **Endocrine**: hormone reaches its site of action via the blood circulation. **Neuroendocrine**: hormone is secreted from neurons into the blood to act at a distance 2.**Paracrine**: cytokine is secreted into the interstitial fluid to act locally on target cells. **Autocrine**: cytokine is secreted into interstitial fluid to act on the cell that produced it
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Endocrine system coordinates and integrates cellular activity within the whole body by chemicals (hormones) delivered by blood. 1. Specific missions are to (6 really 9)
Regulate **sodium** and **water** balance Regulate **calcium** balance Regulate **energy** balance Coordinate processes that cope with **stressful** environments Coordinate **growth** and **development**. Coordinate processes associated with **reproduction** and **lactation**.
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Hormones 1. What are typical concentrations of hormones in the blood stream?
Hormones are secreted into the blood stream and circulate throughout the body at very low concentrations (**pMolar to nMolar**). Therefore, their rate of production, delivery, and turnover are important control sites
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1. Name the three general types of hormones 2. Where they come from 3. Their solubility in blood
There are three general types of hormone molecules: peptides, steroids, and amines. They differ in their relative solubility in plasma. **Peptide** hormones consist of three or more amino acids and are soluble in blood. **Steroid** hormones are derived from cholesterol and are insoluble in blood. **Amine** hormones are derivatives of amino acids and some are soluble in blood
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Hormones 1. How are **peptide** hormones delivered and why? 2. How are **steroid** hormones delivered and why? 3. How are **amine** hormones delivered and why?
1. **Peptide** hormones are soluble in blood. They are degraded by the liver and then cleared by the kidney with half-lives of a few minutes. 2. **Steroid** hormones and 3. **thyroid** hormone are not soluble in blood. They circulate bound to protein carriers. Binding to the transport carrier protein extends the half-life of the hormone in the blood (60-90 minutes for steroids, several days for thyroid hormone)
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Hormone receptors specificity and biological response 1. Why are cell responses specific to a hormone?
1. The receptor contains a recognition site that binds its hormone with high affinity and selectivity. A cell may express thousands to tens of thousands of receptors for a single hormone
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Hormone receptors specificity and biological response 1. What determines the hormone receptors **location**? 2. Where are **peptide** hormone receptors located? 3. Where are **steroid** hormone receptors located? 4. Where are **amine** hormone receptors located?
1. The **lipid solubility** of the hormone dictates the cellular location of its receptor. Plasma insoluble hormones bind to intracellular receptors; plasma soluble hormones bind to cell surface receptors 2. **Peptide** hormones bind to cell surface receptors which activate a second messenger (Figure 14). This results in a rapid (seconds) change in function/metabolism. Second messengers are important because they provide: Amplification: One hormone molecule can generate thousands of copies of second messenger (e.g., cAMP) and thereby affect many copies of responsive target molecules (effectors) in the cell. Memory: Once activated the second messenger stays on for several seconds to minutes. Complex regulation: Multiple pathways can be initiated by binding one hormone to a single receptor type 3. 4. **Thyroid** and **steroid** hormones bind to intracellular receptors to activate transcription. This results in synthesis of new proteins and therefore is a slow response
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The hormone and its regulated substance do not change independently. By monitoring both the hormone and its regulated substance, one can readily deduce the nature of the dysfunction. 1. What are the three types of pathology - name and describe
The hormone and its regulated substance do not change independently. By monitoring both the hormone and its regulated substance, one can readily deduce the nature of the dysfunction. When the **target** endocrine gland itself is misbehaving, then it is referred to as a **primary** pathology. If the problem occurs in the **proximal** regulating gland (pituitary), then it is a **secondary** pathology, and those due to the more **distal** regulator (hypothalamus) are **tertiary** pathologies.
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The hormone and its regulated substance do not change independently. By monitoring both the hormone and its regulated substance, one can readily deduce the nature of the dysfunction. Cortisol pathway is Hypothalamus CRH Anterior pituitary ACTH Adrenal cortes cortisol 1. Draw a table showing primary, secondary, tertiary pathology vs dysfunction site for high cortisol, and high/low CRH and ACTH ie we have high cortisol and test CRH and ACTH to determine the dysfunction site
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Math foundation 1. Define Natural numbers 2. Define Integers 3. Define fractions 4. Define rational numbers 5. Define rational number field
1. Natural number NUM: A string of ones. Start with nothing make a stroke call it one. Add one to itself by adding another stroke and so on 2. An INT is an ordered pair of natural numbers written m\n(m less n) Integers include 0 and negatives of the natural numbers 3. Fraction FRA: A fraction is an ordered pair (m,n) of natural numbers m/n 4. Rational number RAT: A Rational number is an ordered pair of Integers a/b (bnot=0) 5. (Rat, +, x) is a field [rational numbers, addition, multiplication] (most important field in mathematics)
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Reaction order 1. Draw straight line graph for zeroth order reaction 2. Draw straight line graph for firstorder reaction 3. Draw straight line graph for second order reaction
[image LINK](https://lh5.googleusercontent.com/R-lDNvNJV7xUvPpUN43rNR-vLiiFVJ1hty2tzZFzIonPNH0qh4LrpVLDeD4qVkL9x-iDMsJ6NbFzTMjN6yQj_STSiqcYO2lLl5V0YkOwS6FrxkKtQD6OHtL7-A)
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Reaction order 1. zeroth order reaction rate = 2. First order reaction rate = 3. Second order reaction rate =
[image LINK](http://image.tutorvista.com/content/chemical-kinetics/zero-first-second-order-reaction-relationship.gif)
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Collision theory 1. Why does raising the **concentration** increase reaction rate? 2. Why does raising the **temperature** increase reaction rate?
1. There are **more ways** that molecules can collide so they are more likely to do so 2. Increasing the temperature **changes the distribution of velocites.** More will move to a higher velocity and cross the activation energy required for the reaction. Reactants need a certain kinetic energy when they collide to break bonds and make the reaction possible. Below this KE they bounce.
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Reactions 1. Arrhenius equation k = from his direct observations of the plots of rate constants vs. temperatures
[image LINK](http://chemwiki.ucdavis.edu/@api/deki/files/8513/Arrhenius_Equation.jpg)
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1. The thermodynamic equilibrium constant is defined as: Keq=
[Video webpage image LINK](https://www.boundless.com/chemistry/textbooks/boundless-chemistry-textbook/chemical-equilibrium-14/equilibrium-103/the-equilibrium-constant-434-1858/)
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Nervous system 1. Name the main cell types in the nervous system
1. Neurons Glial cells (support neurons)
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Nervous system 1. Draw and name the parts of a neuron
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Neurons 1. How is the electrical gradient established across the plasma membrane?
1. The gradient is primarily established by affecting the concentration of three ions in the cell, Na+, Cl- and K+
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Neurons 1. What effect does the concentration gradient of ions across the plasma membrane of cells have?
Equilibrium potentials Due to the concentration gradient of ions across the plasma membrane of cells, the **intracellular fluid has a small excess of negative charge compared to the extracellular fluid**. The separation of charge has the potential to do work. As a result, the magnitude of the charge difference between the inside and outside of the cell is referred to as the membrane potential and measured in millivolts. If there is an excess of negative charges on the inside of the cell, the membrane potential is negative. If the excess charge on the inside of the cell is positive, the membrane potential is positive. The membrane potential of a cell under specific conditions is determined by the concentration of ions inside and outside of the cell and by the permeability of the membrane for those ions
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Name the following metals Sn Ag Au Ru Hg Pb Ba Pt Pd U
Sn Tin Ag Silver Au Gold Ru Ruthenium Hg Mercury Pb Lead Ba Barium Pt Platinum Pd Palladium U Uranium
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What elements exist as diatomic molecules (7)? hint - rock band
HON and the halogens Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen F Cl Br I
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VSEPR 1. What does VSEPR stand for? 2. What is it used to predict?
1. Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory 2. The geometries or 3-D shapes of molecules
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VSEPR 1. What molecular geometries are predicted with **two** electron dense areas? (include all possible lone pairs options)
[Video webpage image LINK](http://www.ontrack-media.net/chemistry/cm3l4rimage5.jpg)
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VSEPR 1. What molecular geometries are predicted with **three** electron dense areas? (include all possible lone pairs options)
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VSEPR 1. What molecular geometries are predicted with **four** electron dense areas? (include all possible lone pairs options)
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VSEPR 1. What molecular geometries are predicted with **five** electron dense areas? (include all possible lone pairs options)
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VSEPR 1. What molecular geometries are predicted with **six** electron dense areas? (include all possible lone pairs options)
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Organic formulas 1. Structural formula for propane 2. Empirical formula - define 3. Condensed formula for propane 4. Skeletal formula for propane
1. The structural formula of a chemical compound is a graphic representation of the molecular structure, showing how the atoms are arranged. The chemical bonding within the molecule is also shown, either explicitly or implicitly. 2. The empirical formula is the simplest formula for a compound. A molecular formulais the same as or a multiple of the empirical formula, and is based on the actual number of atoms of each type in the compound. For example, if the empirical formula of a compound is C3H8 , its molecular formulamay be C3H8 , C6H16 , etc. 3. 4. Diagram
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1. Draw sigma bonds for methane
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1. Draw pi bonds for ethene
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1. Draw ethylene molecular orbital diagram
[Video webpage image LINK](http://www.chem.ucalgary.ca/courses/350/Carey5th/Ch10/ch10-6-1.html) [Video webpage image LINK](http://www.chemtube3d.com/orbitalsethene.htm)[Video webpage image LINK](https://classes.yale.edu/CHEM225/studyaids/pericyclic/pericyclic.htm)
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Acid base definitions 1. Define an Arrhenius acid (oldest) 2. Define a Bronsted Lowry acid 3. Define a Lewis acid
1. Aqueous solution only - Arrhenius acid = anything that produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solution base = hydroxide ions 2. Bronsted Lewis acid = anything that donates a proton base = accept 3. Lewis acid = anything that accepts a pair of electrons base = donate (most general definition and need to be labelled Lewis acids specifically as they are not generally called acids)
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pH 1. pH = 2. Name some substances in the pH range (table image)
1. pH = -log[H+]
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Living cell reactions 1. What do many reactions in living cell involve? 2. What does the rate of such reactions depend upon?
1. Transfer of a proton 2. pH [H+]
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Acid 1. Explain the terms conjugate acid and conjugate base
1. Acids always react with bases so in an equation both sides have acids and bases The LHS reactants are called acid and base The RHS products are called the conjugate acid and conjugate base An acid base reaction involves the donation of a proton (H+) from an acid to a base. The species which loses H+ is the acid The species which gains H+ is the base The conjugate base is what becomes of the acid after it loses H+ The conjugate acid is what becomes of the base after it gains H+
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Acid 1. How does the strength of an acid affect the strength of its conjugate base? 2. How does the strength of a base affect the strength of its conjugate acid?
1. The stronger the acid the weaker its conjugate base 2. The stronger the base the weaker its conjugate acid
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Acid 1. What is an amphoteric substance? 2. Give an example
1. Can act as either an acid or a base depending upon its environment 2. Water
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Acid 1. Name seven strong acids for MCAT
hydroidoic acid HI hydrobromic acid HBr hydrochloric acid HCl Nitric acid HNO3 Chloric acid HClO3 perchloric acid HClO4 Sulfuric acid H2SO4
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Acid 1. Name seven strong **bases** for MCAT
hydride ion H- amide ion NH2- sodium oxide Na2O calcium oxide CaO sodium hydroxide NaOH potassium hydroxide KOH calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)2
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Acid 1. Define polyprotic acids 2. Define diprotic acids
1. Can donate more than one proton 2. Can donate just two protons
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Acid 1. In a series of oxyacids what indicates a stronger acid? 2. and why?
1. More oxygens 2a. the oxygens draw electrons to one side increasing polarity 2b. the oxygens in the conjugate base can share the electrons spreading it over a larger volume thus stabilising the conjugate base
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Acid 1. What are the factors in molecular structure that affect acid strength (3)? 2. And how?
1. **Strength of bond holding hydrogen** to the atom - weaker means more likely to lose so more acidic increasing acidity with electronegativity across the table increasing acidity with atom size down the table 2. **Polarity of the bond** - increasing polarity increases the strength of the acid 3. The key factor in determining acidity is the **stability of the conjugate base.** Any factor which makes the conjugate base more stable will increase the acidity of the acid. Usually, it means stabilizing negative charge since the conjugate base will always be one unit of charge more “negative” than the acid. First, by bringing the charge closer to the positively charged nucleus Second, by spreading charge out over a larger volume A conjugate base is what you obtain when you remove a proton (H+) from a compound. For instance, HO(-) is the conjugate base of water. O(2-) is the conjugate base of HO(-). Conversely, conjugate acids are what you obtain when you add a proton to a compound. The conjugate acid of water is H3O(+).
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Hydride 1. What is a hydride? 2. How does their acidity change in the periodic table?
1. A binary molecule containing hydrogen 2. Acidity increasing left to right; and down
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Acid 1. water autoionization constant Kw =
The following equation describes the reaction of water with itself (called autoprotolysis): H2O + H2O H3O+ + OH¯ The equilibrium constant for this reaction is written as follows: Kc = ( [H3O+] [OH¯] ) / ( [H2O] [H2O] ) However, in pure liquid water, [H2O] is a constant value. To demonstrate this, consider 1000 mL of water with a density of 1.00 g/mL. This 1.00 liter (1000 mL) would weigh 1000 grams. This mass divided by the molecular weight of water (18.0152 g/mol) gives 55.5 moles. The "molarity" of this water would then be 55.5 mol / 1.00 liter or 55.5 M. The solutions studied in introductory chemistry are so dilute that the "concentration" of water is unaffected. So 55.5 molar can be considered to be a constant if the solution is dilute enough. Cross-multiplying the above equation gives: Kc [H2O] [H2O] = [H3O+] [OH¯] Since the term Kc [H2O] [H2O] is a constant, let it be symbolized by Kw, giving: **Kw = [H3O+] [OH¯] same as [H+] [OH¯]** This constant, Kw, is called the water autoprotolysis constant or water autoionization constant
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Acid 1. Acid dissociation constant Ka =
Basic Information 1) Weak acids are less than 100% ionized in solution.
2) Acetic acid (formula = HC2H3O2) is the most common weak acid example used by instructors.
3) Another way to write acetic acid's formula is CH3COOH.
4) A common abbreviation for acetic acid is HAc, where Ac¯ refers to the acetate polyatomic ion.
The following equation describes the reaction between acetic acid and water: HAc + H2O H3O+ + Ac¯ Note that it is an equilibrium condition. The equilibrium constant for this reaction is written as follows: Kc = ( [H3O+] [Ac¯] ) / ( [HAc] [H2O] ) However, in pure liquid water, [H2O] is a constant value. To demonstrate this, consider 1000 mL of water with a density of 1.00 g/mL. This 1.00 liter (1000 mL) would weigh 1000 grams. This mass divided by the molecular weight of water (18.0152 g/mol) gives 55.5 moles. The "molarity" of this water would then be 55.5 mol / 1.00 liter or 55.5 M. The solutions studied in introductory chemistry are so dilute that the "concentration" of water is unaffected. So 55.5 molar can be considered to be a constant if the solution is dilute enough. Moving [H2O] to the other side gives: Kc [H2O] = ( [H3O+] [Ac¯] ) / [HAc] Since the term Kc [H2O] is a constant, let it be symbolized by Ka, giving: **Ka = ( [H3O+] [Ac¯] ) / [HAc]** This constant, Ka, is called the **acid ionization constant**.
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Acid 1. Base ionisation constant K**b** =
Basic Information 1) Weak bases are less than 100% ionized in solution.
2) Ammonia (formula = NH3) is the most common weak base example used by instructors.
The following equation describes the reaction between ammonia and water: NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH¯ Note that it is an equilibrium condition. The equilibrium constant for this reaction is written as follows: Kc = ( [NH4+] [OH¯] ) / ( [NH3] [H2O] ) However, in pure liquid water, [H2O] is a constant value. To demonstrate this, consider 1000 mL of water with a density of 1.00 g/mL. This 1.00 liter (1000 mL) would weigh 1000 grams. This mass divided by the molecular weight of water (18.0152 g/mol) gives 55.5 moles. The "molarity" of this water would then be 55.5 mol / 1.00 liter or 55.5 M. The solutions studied in introductory chemistry are so dilute that the "concentration" of water is unaffected. So 55.5 molar can be considered to be a constant if the solution is dilute enough. Moving [H2O] to the other side gives: Kc [H2O] = ( [NH4+] [OH¯] ) / [NH3] Since the term Kc [H2O] is a constant, let it be symbolized by Kb, giving: **Kb = ( [NH4+] [OH¯] ) / [NH3]** This constant, Kb, is called the **base ionization constant**.
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Acid 1. What is the equivalence point in a titration? 2. What is the half equivalence point
1. The equivalence point, or stoichiometric point, of a chemical reaction is the point at which chemically equivalent quantities of acid and base have been mixed. It can be found by means of an indicator, most often phenolphthalein. The equivalence point on the graph is where all of the starting solution (usually an acid) has been neutralized by the titrant (usually a base). It can be calculated precisely by finding the second derivative of the titration curve and computing the points of inflection (where the graph changes concavity); 2. When a reaction in titration reaches to the half way, at this point the value of equivalence point is termed as half equivalence point. For example, the titration of 2M mono protic acid reach to the half-equivalence point when 1 M of the acid has been made into its corresponding base, and 1 M is still left by Stoichiometric.

The half-equivalence point is can be used to determine the acid dissociation and pKa of the acid used in titration. In acid-base titration the ratio between the acid and corresponding base is exactly 1:1 at the half-equivalence point.
[Video webpage image LINK](http://chemistry.tutorvista.com/analytical-chemistry/equivalence-point.html)
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Acid 1. What is the endpoint in a titration?
1. The endpoint (related to, but not the same as the equivalence point) refers to the point at which the indicator changes color in a colorimetric titration.
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Acid 1. How do polyprotic acids differ from monoprotic acids in titration?
1. They will have more than one equivalence point and half equivalence point
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Colligative 1. How does the freezing point of a solution compare to that of the pure solvent? 2. ΔTf =
1. The freezing point of a solution is **always lower** than that of the pure solvent. 2. The **freezing point depression** is given as ΔTf = iKfm where Kf is the molal freezing point depression constant, m is the molality of the solution, and i is the van’t Hoff factor equal to the number of particles the solute dissociates into. For nonelectrolytes, i = 1. For electrolytes, i = number of ions per formula.
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Colligative 1. osmotic pressure (pressure to stop osmosis) pi =
**Pi = i M R T** M is molarity R is the gas constant and we will be using the same value as in the gas laws unit: 0.08206 L atm/mol K. i is the van’t Hoff factor equal to the number of particles the solute dissociates into. For nonelectrolytes, i = 1. For electrolytes, i = number of ions per formula. T is the thermodynamic (absolute) temperature PV=nRT gives
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Senses 1. What does an afferent neuron's specialized ending produce in response to a stimulus?
1. An afferent neuron has a specialized ending that produces **graded potentials** that can **lead to action potentials** in response to a stimulus.
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Senses 1. In other systems such as vision, taste, and hearing, a .**..?......?......?..**. produces graded potentials that can trigger an action potential in an afferent neuron
In other systems such as vision, taste, and hearing, a **specialized receptor cell** produces graded potentials that can trigger an action potential in an afferent neuron
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Senses 1. How does the central nervous system **differentiate** between different sensations eg touch, temperature?
Each afferent neuron receives signals from a **single** type of stimulus.
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Senses 1. How does the central nervous system, receiving signals from afferent receptors, know how **intense** a sensation is?
Frequency of action potentials.
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Senses 1. What are the receptors important for somatosensation?
The **skin, muscles, and joints** have receptors that can sense **touch, pressure, temperature, pain, or the position** of the body. The information gathered by these receptors leads to sensations referred to as **somatosensations**. Each receptor type responds primarily to only one type of stimulus. Mechanoreceptors are nerve endings that are encapsulated by connective tissue that sense touch and pressure. There are different types of encapsulated nerve endings that have different morphologies which allow them to respond to a specific kind of touch. Stretching of the connective tissue fibers of the encapsulated endings activates ion channels which can produce action potentials that signal to the central nervous system. Posture and movement of body parts are sensed by muscle stretch mechanoreceptors, as well as mechanoreceptors present in skin, joints, tendons, and ligaments. Together they sense the amount of muscle stretch as well as the rate of muscle stretch. Vision and balance also play a role in the perception of where the body is in space, or proprioception. Temperature is sensed in the skin using different types of thermoreceptors. Free nerve endings, which are processes of neurons, sense temperature using ion channels that are activated only at certain temperatures. A single sensory neuron only expresses a single kind of thermoreceptor. Thermoreceptors can also detect certain chemicals. For instance, cold-sensing thermoreceptors respond to menthol, while heat-sensing thermoreceptors respond to capsaicin (from chili peppers) and ethanol. Pain is sensed by free nerve endings expressing nociceptors, which are receptors that sense extreme mechanical deformation, high temperatures, as well as chemicals released by damaged cells or immune cells.
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Eye 1. Draw the anatomy of the eye 2. Indicate where most focusing is done
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Eye 1. How does the eye lens work?
When light hits the cornea, it is bent, or refracted as it passes from air into the tissue. **This is the largest source of refraction and focusing by the eye** The light continues through the aqueous humor and is refracted as it travels through the lens, which can adjust to focus on objects a certain distance away. **Ciliary muscles** encircle the perimeter of the lens and **flatten the lens when the muscles relax** or **make the lens more round when the muscles contract**. A lens that is more round allows the eye to focus on closer objects.
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Eye 1. What are the steps of light detection by photoreceptor cells?
The retina contains two types of photoreceptor cells, the rods and cones. Because the light-sensing portion of the photoreceptor cells faces the back of the retina, the light must travel through several layers of cells before it is detected. Photopigment proteins (G-protein coupled receptors) in the plasma membrane of the photoreceptors contain **retinal**, a derivative of vitamin A that **changes its conformation in response to a photon of light** (Figure 31). The change in conformation of retinal affects the conformation of the photopigment protein **which starts a signal transduction cascade.** The signal transduction cascade reduces the amount of cGMP which causes a cGMP-gated cation channel to close (Figure 31). This hyperpolarizes the photoreceptor cell and eventually results in signaling to the central nervous system
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Eye 1. Differentiate between rods and cones 2. Describe the role of each in vision
**Rods** Photoreceptor rod cells express rhodopsin photopigment protein and are **very sensitive to light**. As a result, they are used in **night vision**. **Many** rod photoreceptor cells **bind a single bipolar cell**. This convergence of signals translates into **low resolution vision** during conditions of low illumination **Cones** Photoreceptor cone cells express one of three different photopigment proteins called opsins. Cones are **less sensitive to light** and so are used in conditions of **high levels of illumination**. Bipolar cells bind **only one cone cell** so there is **high resolution vision** with cones. The three different opsins that are expressed by the three types of cones bind retinal in unique ways which leads to absorption of light at different wavelengths. The three opsins are sensitive to red, blue or green wavelengths of light. For instance, red light from a red object primarily hyperpolarizes cones expressing red-sensitive opsin. This activates red bipolar cells and ganglion cells. Colors other than red, blue, or green are perceived when combinations of different cones are stimulated. For instance, we perceive yellow when the red and green cones are both stimulated
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Hearing 1. Draw the anatomy of the ear
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Hearing 1. Draw the anatomy of the cochlea
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Hearing 1. Draw the organ of corti
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Hearing 1. How is sound transmitted to the cochlea?
Sound transmission The outer ear, which consists of the pinna and external auditory canal, amplify and direct the sound to the middle ear (Figure 32). The middle ear is an air filled cavity with three bones, the malleus, incus, and stapes. The sound hits and deforms the tympanic membrane between the outer and middle ear (Figure 32). The three bones of the middle ear respond to the deformation of the tympanic membrane and amplify the vibration to the oval window on the cochlea of the inner ear. **Because the oval window is much smaller than the tympanic membrane, the vibrations are amplified.** This is important because in the inner ear, fluid is used to transmit the sound
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Hearing 1. What happens in the organ of corti in response to sound? (physical and chemical description)
Organ of Corti Within the cochlear duct, sitting on the basilar membrane is the organ of Corti, which contains the hair cells that serve as the receptor cells for sound. Stereocilia of the hair cells are embedded in a tectorial membrane. As the **basilar membrane bounces up and down, the stereocilia bend** (Figure 34). Bending the stereocilia on the hair cells **opens stretch-sensitive K+ channels** and K+ enters the cells due to the composition of the surrounding fluid. K+ entry **depolarizes** the hair cell and **neurotransmitter is released**. Bending in the other direction hyperpolarizes the cell and inhibits neurotransmitter release. After a hair cell activates the afferent neuron, axons from these neurons join to form the cochlear nerve. The region of the basilar membrane along the length of the cochlea that vibrates the most correlates with the frequency of the sound. As a result, the sensation of pitch is determined by which portion of the basilar membrane is activated. The louder the sound, the more vibration and the greater frequency of action potentials produced in the afferent neurons.
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Hearing 1. How is the **pitch** of sounds encoded 2. How is the **loudness** of sounds encoded
Organ of Corti Within the cochlear duct, sitting on the basilar membrane is the organ of Corti, which contains the hair cells that serve as the receptor cells for sound. Stereocilia of the hair cells are embedded in a tectorial membrane. As the basilar membrane bounces up and down, the stereocilia bend (Figure 34). Bending the stereocilia on the hair cells opens stretch-sensitive K+ channels and K+ enters the cells due to the composition of the surrounding fluid. K+ entry depolarizes the hair cell and neurotransmitter is released. Bending in the other direction hyperpolarizes the cell and inhibits neurotransmitter release. After a hair cell activates the afferent neuron, axons from these neurons join to form the cochlear nerve. The region of the basilar membrane along the length of the cochlea that vibrates the most correlates with the frequency of the sound. As a result, the sensation of **pitch is determined by which portion** of the basilar membrane is activated. The **louder** the sound, the more vibration and the **greater frequency of action potentials** produced in the afferent neurons.
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Balance 1. Draw the vestibular system of the inner ear
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Balance 1. What are the portions of the inner ear that sense movement of the head called?
The portions of the inner ear that sense movement of the head are called the **vestibular system**. The **semicircular canals** detect rotation of the head while the **otolith** organs detect linear movement of the head
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Balance 1. How do the semicircular canals in the vestibular system analzye rotation and head position?
Semicircular canals There are three semicircular canals in the inner ear that allow detection of head rotation along three perpendicular axes – nodding the head, shaking the head, and tipping the ear towards the shoulder (Figure 35). Each canal contains hair cells that move with the head as it rotates around a certain axis. Because **the fluid remains stationary, it bends the steriocilia of the hair cells** which causes **release of neurotransmitter** similar to hair cells of the auditory system.
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Balance 1. How do the Ololith organs in the inner ear work?
Otolith organs The otolith organs contain sheets of hair cells that have **calcium carbonate crystals**, called otoliths, embedded in gel that surrounds the stereocilia of the hair cells. Since the otoliths are **heavier than the fluid** around the hair cells, they remain stationary and pull on the stereocilia during linear movements. The utricle contains hair cells that point straight up in a standing postion and respond to horizontal linear acceleration. The saccule contains hair cells that are oriented at a 90 degree angle compared to those of the utricle (Figure 35). This allows them to detect up and down motions
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Balance 1. Explain the difference between the **utricle** and **saccule** in the vestibular system of the inner ear. (anatomy and consequences)
Otolith organs The otolith organs contain sheets of hair cells that have calcium carbonate crystals, called otoliths, embedded in gel that surrounds the stereocilia of the hair cells. Since the otoliths are heavier than the fluid around the hair cells, they remain stationary and pull on the stereocilia during linear movements. The **utricle** contains hair cells that point straight up in a standing postion and respond to horizontal linear acceleration. The **saccule** contains hair cells that are oriented at a 90 degree angle compared to those of the utricle (Figure 35). This allows them to detect up and down motions
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Taste 1. Name the five types of taste receptor 2. How many flavours can a taste bud respond to and under what conditions?
TASTE Taste ligands dissolved in saliva bind to chemoreceptors on taste buds. Receptor binding raises intracellular Ca++ causing the release of neurotransmitters and producing graded potentials. This leads to the initiation of action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron. 1. Taste buds can detect chemicals that can be categorized into five different flavors: **sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami**. Each type of chemical is detected by different receptors. 2. Each taste bud responds primarily to **one flavor at low concentrations** and **two or three at higher concentrations.**
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Smell 1. How do smell receptors differ from other receptors?
SMELL Odors in the air are detected by chemoreceptors of olfactory neurons. **1. The olfactory neuron serves as the receptor cell as well as the afferent neuron.** Binding of an odorant receptor leads to activation of signal transduction pathways that open cation channels and lead to graded potentials. Each odorant binds a combination of odorant receptors that are specific for different parts of the molecule. It is the combination of activated receptors that leads to our perception of a smell of a particular substance
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Smell 1. What happens when an odorant binds to a receptor?
SMELL Odors in the air are detected by chemoreceptors of olfactory neurons. The olfactory neuron serves as the receptor cell as well as the afferent neuron. 1**. Binding of an odorant receptor leads to activation of signal transduction pathways that open cation channels and lead to graded potentials.** Each odorant binds a combination of odorant receptors that are specific for different parts of the molecule. It is the combination of activated receptors that leads to our perception of a smell of a particular substance
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Efferent peripheral nervous system 1. What is the **neurotransmitter** at the first efferent junction from the central nervous system? 2. What is the corresponding **neuroreceptor**?
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Redox 1. Oxidation is ..?.. high energy electrons 2. Reduction is ..?.. high energy electrons
1. Oxidation is **losing** high energy electrons Oil Rig 2. Reduction is **gaining** high energy electrons
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Redox Reduction is a reduction of ..?.. (ie going more ..?..)
Reduction is a reduction of **charge** | (ie going more negative)
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Redox Oxidation is what ..?.. would have done if it was present
Oxidation is what **oxygen** would have done if it was present so in H2O hydrogen is oxidised in HF hydrogen is oxidised
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Redox How does oxidation state relate to ionic bonds and partial charged covalent bonds?
The oxidation state rounds up the partial charge and **pretends** that all the bonds are ionic. So you can see where the electrons have gone
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Redox Rule 1: The oxidation number of an element in its free (uncombined) state is ....?.. for example, ...?..
**Rule 1: The oxidation number of an element in its free (uncombined) state is zero — for example, Al(s) or Zn(s). O2** Rule 2: The oxidation number of a monatomic (one-atom) ion = the charge on the ion, for example: Na+ = +1 Rule 3: The sum of all oxidation numbers in a neutral compound =zero. The sum of all oxidation numbers in a polyatomic ion = the charge on the ion This rule often allows chemists to calculate the oxidation number of an atom that may have multiple oxidation states, if the other atoms in the ion have known oxidation numbers. Rule 4: The oxidation number of an alkali metal (IA family) in a compound is +1; the oxidation number of an alkaline earth metal (IIA family) in a compound is +2. Rule 5: The oxidation number of oxygen in a compound is usually –2. peroxides (for example, hydrogen peroxide), then the oxygen has an oxidation number of –1. If the oxygen is bonded to fluorine, the number is +1. Rule 6: The oxidation state of hydrogen in a compound is usually +1. If the hydrogen is part of a binary metal hydride (compound of hydrogen and some metal), then the oxidation state of hydrogen is –1. Rule 7: The oxidation number of fluorine is always –1. Chlorine, bromine, and iodine usually have an oxidation number of –1, unless they’re in combination with an oxygen or fluorine.
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Redox Rule 2: The oxidation number of a monatomic (one-atom) ion = ..?.. for example: ..?.. The sum of all oxidation numbers in a polyatomic ion = ..?..
Rule 1: The oxidation number of an element in its free (uncombined) state is zero — for example, Al(s) or Zn(s). O2 **Rule 2: The oxidation number of a monatomic (one-atom) ion = the charge on the ion, for example: Na+ = +1** Rule 3: The sum of all oxidation numbers in a neutral compound =zero. **The sum of all oxidation numbers in a polyatomic ion = the charge on the ion** This rule often allows chemists to calculate the oxidation number of an atom that may have multiple oxidation states, if the other atoms in the ion have known oxidation numbers. Rule 4: The oxidation number of an alkali metal (IA family) in a compound is +1; the oxidation number of an alkaline earth metal (IIA family) in a compound is +2. Rule 5: The oxidation number of oxygen in a compound is usually –2. peroxides (for example, hydrogen peroxide), then the oxygen has an oxidation number of –1. If the oxygen is bonded to fluorine, the number is +1. Rule 6: The oxidation state of hydrogen in a compound is usually +1. If the hydrogen is part of a binary metal hydride (compound of hydrogen and some metal), then the oxidation state of hydrogen is –1. Rule 7: The oxidation number of fluorine is always –1. Chlorine, bromine, and iodine usually have an oxidation number of –1, unless they’re in combination with an oxygen or fluorine.
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Redox Rule 3: The sum of all oxidation numbers in a neutral compound = ..?.. The sum of all oxidation numbers in a polyatomic ion = ..?..
Rule 1: The oxidation number of an element in its free (uncombined) state is zero — for example, Al(s) or Zn(s). O2 Rule 2: The oxidation number of a monatomic (one-atom) ion = the charge on the ion, for example: Na+ = +1 **Rule 3: The sum of all oxidation numbers in a neutral compound =zero.** **The sum of all oxidation numbers in a polyatomic ion = the charge on the ion** This rule often allows chemists to calculate the oxidation number of an atom that may have multiple oxidation states, if the other atoms in the ion have known oxidation numbers. Rule 4: The oxidation number of an alkali metal (IA family) in a compound is +1; the oxidation number of an alkaline earth metal (IIA family) in a compound is +2. Rule 5: The oxidation number of oxygen in a compound is usually –2. peroxides (for example, hydrogen peroxide), then the oxygen has an oxidation number of –1. If the oxygen is bonded to fluorine, the number is +1. Rule 6: The oxidation state of hydrogen in a compound is usually +1. If the hydrogen is part of a binary metal hydride (compound of hydrogen and some metal), then the oxidation state of hydrogen is –1. Rule 7: The oxidation number of fluorine is always –1. Chlorine, bromine, and iodine usually have an oxidation number of –1, unless they’re in combination with an oxygen or fluorine.
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Redox Rule 4: The oxidation number of an alkali metal (IA family) in a compound = ..?.. the oxidation number of an alkaline earth metal (IIA family) in a compound = ..?..
Rule 1: The oxidation number of an element in its free (uncombined) state is zero — for example, Al(s) or Zn(s). O2 Rule 2: The oxidation number of a monatomic (one-atom) ion = the charge on the ion, for example: Na+ = +1 Rule 3: The sum of all oxidation numbers in a neutral compound =zero. The sum of all oxidation numbers in a polyatomic ion = the charge on the ion This rule often allows chemists to calculate the oxidation number of an atom that may have multiple oxidation states, if the other atoms in the ion have known oxidation numbers. **Rule 4: The oxidation number of an alkali metal (IA family) in a compound is +1;** **the oxidation number of an alkaline earth metal (IIA family) in a compound is +2.** Rule 5: The oxidation number of oxygen in a compound is usually –2. peroxides (for example, hydrogen peroxide), then the oxygen has an oxidation number of –1. If the oxygen is bonded to fluorine, the number is +1. Rule 6: The oxidation state of hydrogen in a compound is usually +1. If the hydrogen is part of a binary metal hydride (compound of hydrogen and some metal), then the oxidation state of hydrogen is –1. Rule 7: The oxidation number of fluorine is always –1. Chlorine, bromine, and iodine usually have an oxidation number of –1, unless they’re in combination with an oxygen or fluorine.
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Redox Rule 5: The oxidation number of oxygen in a compound is usually ..?.. peroxides (for example, hydrogen peroxide), then the oxygen has an oxidation number of ..?.. If the oxygen is bonded to fluorine, the number is ..?..
Rule 1: The oxidation number of an element in its free (uncombined) state is zero — for example, Al(s) or Zn(s). O2 Rule 2: The oxidation number of a monatomic (one-atom) ion = the charge on the ion, for example: Na+ = +1 Rule 3: The sum of all oxidation numbers in a neutral compound =zero. The sum of all oxidation numbers in a polyatomic ion = the charge on the ion This rule often allows chemists to calculate the oxidation number of an atom that may have multiple oxidation states, if the other atoms in the ion have known oxidation numbers. Rule 4: The oxidation number of an alkali metal (IA family) in a compound is +1; the oxidation number of an alkaline earth metal (IIA family) in a compound is +2. **Rule 5: The oxidation number of oxygen in a compound is usually –2. peroxides (for example, hydrogen peroxide), then the oxygen has an oxidation number of –1.** **If the oxygen is bonded to fluorine, the number is +1.** Rule 6: The oxidation state of hydrogen in a compound is usually +1. If the hydrogen is part of a binary metal hydride (compound of hydrogen and some metal), then the oxidation state of hydrogen is –1. Rule 7: The oxidation number of fluorine is always –1. Chlorine, bromine, and iodine usually have an oxidation number of –1, unless they’re in combination with an oxygen or fluorine.
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Redox Rule 6: The oxidation state of hydrogen in a compound is usually ..?.. If the hydrogen is part of a binary metal hydride (compound of hydrogen and some metal), then the oxidation state of hydrogen is ..?..
Rule 1: The oxidation number of an element in its free (uncombined) state is zero — for example, Al(s) or Zn(s). O2 Rule 2: The oxidation number of a monatomic (one-atom) ion = the charge on the ion, for example: Na+ = +1 Rule 3: The sum of all oxidation numbers in a neutral compound =zero. The sum of all oxidation numbers in a polyatomic ion = the charge on the ion This rule often allows chemists to calculate the oxidation number of an atom that may have multiple oxidation states, if the other atoms in the ion have known oxidation numbers. Rule 4: The oxidation number of an alkali metal (IA family) in a compound is +1; the oxidation number of an alkaline earth metal (IIA family) in a compound is +2. Rule 5: The oxidation number of oxygen in a compound is usually –2. peroxides (for example, hydrogen peroxide), then the oxygen has an oxidation number of –1. If the oxygen is bonded to fluorine, the number is +1. **Rule 6: The oxidation state of hydrogen in a compound is usually +1.** **If the hydrogen is part of a binary metal hydride (compound of hydrogen and some metal), then the oxidation state of hydrogen is –1.** Rule 7: The oxidation number of fluorine is always –1. Chlorine, bromine, and iodine usually have an oxidation number of –1, unless they’re in combination with an oxygen or fluorine.
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Redox Rule 7: The oxidation number of fluorine is always ..?.. Chlorine, bromine, and iodine usually have an oxidation number of ..?.. unless they’re in combination with an oxygen or fluorine.
Rule 1: The oxidation number of an element in its free (uncombined) state is zero — for example, Al(s) or Zn(s). O2 Rule 2: The oxidation number of a monatomic (one-atom) ion = the charge on the ion, for example: Na+ = +1 Rule 3: The sum of all oxidation numbers in a neutral compound =zero. The sum of all oxidation numbers in a polyatomic ion = the charge on the ion This rule often allows chemists to calculate the oxidation number of an atom that may have multiple oxidation states, if the other atoms in the ion have known oxidation numbers. Rule 4: The oxidation number of an alkali metal (IA family) in a compound is +1; the oxidation number of an alkaline earth metal (IIA family) in a compound is +2. Rule 5: The oxidation number of oxygen in a compound is usually –2. peroxides (for example, hydrogen peroxide), then the oxygen has an oxidation number of –1. If the oxygen is bonded to fluorine, the number is +1. Rule 6: The oxidation state of hydrogen in a compound is usually +1. If the hydrogen is part of a binary metal hydride (compound of hydrogen and some metal), then the oxidation state of hydrogen is –1. **Rule 7: The oxidation number of fluorine is always –1. Chlorine, bromine, and iodine usually have an oxidation number of –1, unless they’re in combination with an oxygen or fluorine.**
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Buffer solution 1. What are the two ways of making a buffer solution?
**Weak** acid and its conjugate base **Weak** base and its conjugate acid Key is that there is a substantial amount of acid and base available at equilibrium to soak up any added acid or base
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Redox 1. Write the half reactions for Fe + 2HCl -\> FeCl2 + H2 2. Identify what has been oxidised and by what 3. Identify what has been reduced and by what 4. Identify the reducing agent 5. Identify the oxidising agent
1. Write the half reactions for Fe0 - 2e- -\> Fe+2(write it his way!) 2H+ + 2e- -\> H20 2. Fe oxidised by H OIL 3. H reduced by Fe RIG 4. Fe is the reducing agent 5. H is the oxidising agent
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Redox Cathode is the _??_ve terminal and the ..??.. of electrons Anode is the ??ve terminal and the ..??.. of electrons
Cathode is the **+ve** terminal and the **sink** of electrons Anode is the **-ve** terminal and the **source** of electrons [padlet](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/esCeKfPVHp)
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Redox Draw a galvanic cell Zn Cu
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Redox Explain the purpose and operation of the **salt bridge** in a galvanic cell Zn Cu
The salt bridge is viscous (a gel) so would stay in the bridge if only subject to gravity. The Cl- gets attracted into the +ve Zn side and **keeps the solution neutral** Likewise K+ to the Cu side As Zn jumps into solution the solution would become more and more positively charged. Eventually the current would stop flowing to the Cu and go back into the Zn solution.
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Redox 1. What is the standard reduction potential? 2. What are its units?
The standard reduction potential is the **tendency for a chemical species to be reduced**, and is measured in **volts** at standard conditions. The more positive the potential is the more likely it will be reduced. It is written in the form of a reduction half reaction. eg Cu2+ + 2e- -\> Cu Standard reduction or oxidation potentials can be determined experimentally using a SHE (standard hydrogen electrode). Universally, hydrogen has been recognized as having reduction and oxidation potentials of zero. Therefore, when the standard reduction and oxidation potential of chemical species are measured, it is actually the difference in the potential from hydrogen. By using a galvanic cell in which one side is a SHE, and the other side is half cell of the unknown chemical species, the potential difference from hydrogen can be determined using a voltmeter. Standard reduction potentials are used to determine the standard cell potential. The standard reduction cell potential and the standard oxidation cell potential can be combined to determine the overall Cell Potentials of a galvanic cell
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Redox 1. 2. What does a **positive** standard reduction potential indicate?
The standard reduction potential is the tendency for a chemical species to be reduced, and is measured in volts at standard conditions. The more positive the potential is the **more likely it will be reduced.** It is written in the form of a reduction half reaction. eg Cu2+ + 2e- -\> Cu Standard reduction or oxidation potentials can be determined experimentally using a SHE (standard hydrogen electrode). Universally, hydrogen has been recognized as having reduction and oxidation potentials of zero. Therefore, when the standard reduction and oxidation potential of chemical species are measured, it is actually the difference in the potential from hydrogen. By using a galvanic cell in which one side is a SHE, and the other side is half cell of the unknown chemical species, the potential difference from hydrogen can be determined using a voltmeter. Standard reduction potentials are used to determine the standard cell potential. The standard reduction cell potential and the standard oxidation cell potential can be combined to determine the overall Cell Potentials of a galvanic cell
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Redox 1. How is standard reduction potential determined? 2. What is it used for?
The standard reduction potential is the tendency for a chemical species to be reduced, and is measured in volts at standard conditions. The more positive the potential is the more likely it will be reduced. It is written in the form of a reduction half reaction. eg Cu2+ + 2e- -\> Cu Standard reduction or oxidation potentials can be determined **experimentally** using a SHE (**standard hydrogen electrode**). Universally, hydrogen has been recognized as having reduction and oxidation potentials of zero. Therefore, when the standard reduction and oxidation potential of chemical species are measured, it is actually the difference in the potential from hydrogen. By using a galvanic cell in which one side is a SHE, and the other side is half cell of the unknown chemical species, the potential difference from hydrogen can be determined using a voltmeter. Standard reduction potentials are used to **determine the standard cell potential.** The standard reduction cell potential and the standard oxidation cell potential can be **combined** to determine the overall Cell Potentials of a galvanic cell
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Redox 1. Draw the triangle between cell potential (E0cell) and the equilibrium constant (K) and the change in free energy (ΔG0) [Include the three equations]
ΔG0 = -nF E0cell nF Ecell= RT lnK ΔG0 = RT lnK
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Redox 1. What is the relationship between the potential of an electrochemical cell (E) and ΔG (the change in free energy)?
ΔG0 = -nF E0cell The maximum amount of work that can be produced by an electrochemical cell (wmax) is equal to the product of the cell potential (Ecell) and the total charge transferred during the reaction (nF = moles of electrons x Coulombs per mole of electrons) The change in free energy (ΔG) is also a measure of the maximum amount of work that can be performed during a chemical process (ΔG = wmax).
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Redox 1. What is the relationship between cell potential (E) and the equilibrium constant (K)?
**nF Ecell= RT lnK** We can use the relationship between ΔG and the equilibrium constant K, to obtain a relationship between Ecell and K. Recall that for a general reaction of the type aA+bB→cC+dD, the standard free-energy change and the equilibrium constant are related by the following equation: ΔG°=−RTlnK Given the relationship between the standard free-energy change and the standard cell potential ΔG=−nFEcell , we can write −nFEcell=−RTlnK Rearranging this equation gives above
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Redox Assuming the triangle between change in free energy (ΔG0) cell potential (E0cell) and the equilibrium constant (K) and the 1. Show the values for reaction: spontaneous in forward direction spontaneous in reverse direction no net reaction = equilibrium
Unfortunately, these criteria apply only to systems in which all reactants and products are present in their standard states, a situation that is seldom encountered in the real world
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Redox What is the Effect of Concentration (Q) on Cell Potential (Ecell and E0cell) The Nernst Equation
The Effect of Concentration on Cell Potential: The Nernst Equation - **arguably the most important relationship in electrochemistry** **nF Ecell= nF Ecell −RT lnQ** Recall that the actual free-energy change for a reaction under nonstandard conditions, ΔG, is given as follows: ΔG=ΔG°+RTlnQ We also know that ΔG = −nFEcell and ΔG° = −nFE°cell. Substituting and dividing both sides of this equation by −nF we obtain above
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Redox 1. What does the mnemonic RedCat AnOx stand for?
Galvanic cell Reduction at the Cathode Oxidation at the Anode
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Redox 1. Draw an **_electrolytic_** cell
[electrolytic cell](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/esCeKfPVHp)
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Redox 1. What does an **electrolytic** cell require to initiate a redox reaction?
An [electrolytic cell](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/esCeKfPVHp)is a cell which requires an **outside electrical source** to initiate the redox reaction. **The process of how electric energy drives the nonspontaneous reaction is called electrolysis.** Whereas the galvanic cell used a redox reaction to make electrons flow, the electrolytic cell uses electron movement (in the source of electricity) to cause the redox reaction. In an electrolytic cell, electrons are forced to flow in the opposite direction
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Redox 1. What is the difference between a galvanic cell and an electrolytic cell?
**Galvanic: turns chemical energy into electrical energy** **Electrolytic Cell: turns electrical energy into chemical energy** The most common form of Electrolytic cell is the rechargeable battery (cell phones, mp3's, etc) or electroplating. While the battery is being used in the device it is a galvanic cell function (using the redox energy to produce electricity). While the battery is charging it is an electrolytic cell function (using outside electricity to reverse the completed redox reaction).
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Neuron 1. What is a graded potential? 2. Do they have a refractory period?
1. A graded potential is a transient change in the membrane potential that decreases in magnitude as it spreads out along the plasma membrane of the neuron and is proportional to the intensity of the stimulus. 2. Graded potentials can stimulate or inhibit neurons and have **no refractory period**, or time period when the cell cannot respond to a stimulus after the first change in potential
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Neuron 1. What is an action potential?
1. An action potential is an electrical signal like graded potentials but they differ in several ways. **Action potentials are large changes in membrane potential that have a similar pattern of membrane potential change**. In this way, an action potential is an all-or-none phenomenon because either there is a large change in membrane potential if the stimulus was adequate or there is little change in membrane potential. In addition, action potentials have the same intensity as they travel along a membrane – they **do not diminish over distance**.
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Neuron 1. How do action potentials work? (multi-stage diagram)
At the beginning of an action potential the cell which was at resting membrane potential has a graded potential that causes the membrane to be depolarized If the depolarization from the graded potential reaches a certain voltage, called the **threshold**, then enough voltage-gated Na+ channels will be opened to start an action potential (**stage 2**). Once enough Na+ channels are open, **Na+ starts rushing into** the cell due to the net negative charge inside the cell and the excess of Na+ outside the cell. This causes the membrane potential to increase (stage 2) and **surpass 0 mV** due to the concentration gradient of Na+. The cell is so permeable to Na+ that the membrane potential quickly comes close to the equilibrium potential for Na+. Right before the membrane potential reaches the equilibrium potential for Na+, the Na+ channels inactivate and the slower opening voltage-gated K+ channels open. When the K+ channels open, there is an excess of positive charge and K+ inside the cell (a positive membrane potential) so K+ leaves the cell and travels down its concentration and electrical gradients. This lowers the membrane potential (**stage 3**) and it approaches the equilibrium potential for K+, which is below resting potential (**stage 4**). The K+ channels start to close and the membrane returns to the resting potential (**stage 5**).
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Neuron 1. Does an action potential have a refractory period? 2. What are the implications?
1. Once the Na+ channels have inactivated, the membrane must repolarize before the channel returns to the closed state and can be opened again. This means that **there is a refractory period** that prevents another action potential from occurring before the first one has ended. 2. However, because of the refractory period, the action potential travels in **one direction** along the axon and not in two directions. In addition, each action potential that is produced down the axon will be **identical** and will not diminish over time or distance
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Neuron 1. Where does an action potential start? 2. What determines if an action potential is formed?
1. In either case, the graded potentials can start in the dendrites or cell body and if it is strong enough travel to the **axon initial segment,** where the neuron has the highest concentration of voltage-gated ion channels and the lowest threshold, to start an action potential. The initial segment is the beginning of the axon that connects to the neuronal cell body at the axon hillock. 2. Because a neuron can have many dendrites and have many other neurons contacting the dendrites or cell body, the axon hillock and initial segment can **integrate those signals** by requiring that signals reach a **threshold** before an action potential is formed. The **strength**, **frequency** and **location** of a stimulus received by a neuron will determine if threshold is reached because graded potentials are formed, not action potentials.
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Neuron 1. What is Saltatory conduction of an action potential? 2. How does it work? 3. Why is it used?
In the human body, axons can be quite long (from the spinal cord to the tip of the toe). In order for an action potential to travel quickly along an axon that may be one meter long, **some axons are myelinated**. Myelin is an insulator that is made up of many layers of specialized plasma membrane that is formed by Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system and oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system. The Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes lay the myelin along the axons with **regularly spaced gaps called nodes of Ranvier**. The myelin speeds conduction along an axon by insulating it and preventing leaking of ions in the area around an action potential. This allows the effects of the action potential, or the change in membrane potential, to be **detected further down the axon** in the neighboring node where there is a concentration of ion channels. In a myelinated axon, the action potential jumps from node to node allowing it to **travel more quickly and more efficiently**
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Neurons 1. What affects the speed of an action potential?
1. **Myelination** and **diameter** (larger is faster) The diameter of an axon also determines how quickly action potentials travel down its length. Larger diameter axons have less resistance so action potentials travel more quickly along their length. This is exploited by the body. Neurons that sense touch have large diameter axons while pain and itch neurons have small diameter axons
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Neurons 1. Neurons signal to one another through a specialized junction called a **?**
Neurons signal to one another through a specialized junction called a **synapse**. The synapse is where the electrical signal from one neuron (presynaptic neuron) is transmitted to another neuron (postsynaptic neuron). Depending on the role of a particular neuron, it can receive signals from many presynaptic neurons (**convergence**) or it can send signals to many postsynaptic neurons (**divergence**). The presynaptic neuron causes a graded potential to occur in the postsynaptic neuron. The graded potential can depolarize the postsynaptic membrane, which makes the potential closer to threshold, and is called an excitatory postsynaptic potential (Figure 26, synapses 1 and 2). Alternatively, the graded potential can hyperpolarize the postsynaptic membrane, which makes the membrane potential farther from threshold, and is called an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (Figure 26, synapse 3). Since presynaptic neurons cause graded potentials in postsynaptic neurons, spatial and temporal summation of signals from multiple synapses can occur so the postsynaptic neuron can integrate information
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Neuron 1. What is convergence in neuron signalling? 2. What is divergence in neuron signalling?
Neurons signal to one another through a specialized junction called a synapse. The synapse is where the electrical signal from one neuron (presynaptic neuron) is transmitted to another neuron (postsynaptic neuron). Depending on the role of a particular neuron, it can 1. receive signals from many presynaptic neurons **(convergence)** or it can 2. send signals to many postsynaptic neurons **(divergence**). The presynaptic neuron causes a graded potential to occur in the postsynaptic neuron. The graded potential can depolarize the postsynaptic membrane, which makes the potential closer to threshold, and is called an excitatory postsynaptic potential (Figure 26, synapses 1 and 2). Alternatively, the graded potential can hyperpolarize the postsynaptic membrane, which makes the membrane potential farther from threshold, and is called an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (Figure 26, synapse 3). Since presynaptic neurons cause graded potentials in postsynaptic neurons, spatial and temporal summation of signals from multiple synapses can occur so the postsynaptic neuron can integrate informationNeuron
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Neurons 1. How are signals integrated by a post synaptic neuron? (text + diagram of three pre-synaptic neurons firing)
The presynaptic neuron causes a **graded potential** to occur in the postsynaptic neuron. The graded potential can depolarize the postsynaptic membrane, which makes the potential closer to threshold, and is called an excitatory postsynaptic potential (Figure 26, **synapses 1 and 2**). **Alternatively, the graded potential can hyperpolarize** the postsynaptic membrane, which makes the membrane potential farther from threshold, and is called an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (Figure 26, **synapse 3**). Since presynaptic neurons cause graded potentials in postsynaptic neurons, **spatial and temporal summation of signals from multiple synapses** can occur so the postsynaptic neuron can integrate information
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Neurons 1. How does lateral inhibition of sensory neurons work? (Text + diagram of pencil pushing skin) 2. Why is it used?
One example of neurons integrating information is during lateral inhibition of sensory neurons. In order to discern the exact point of contact of a stimulus such as a pencil, neighboring neurons must be inhibited. For instance in Figure 27, the pencil is depressing the skin so that three sensory neurons are firing. However, the neuron in the middle, neuron 2, is firing more frequently because the pencil is in the middle of its receptive field. Branches from the axons of all three neurons converge on neighboring neurons. However, since neuron 2 is firing action potentials most frequently, its firing is affected the least by the inhibition. Lateral inhibition leads to reduction of the firing of neurons 1 and 3 and the sensation that the pencil is depressing only the field of neuron 2 (Figure 27). This allows for **more precise determination of the stimulus site and type**.
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Neurons 1. How do synapses in the mammalian nervous system transmit between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons?
Most synapses in the mammalian nervous system transmit between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons using chemicals called **neurotransmitters**. As the action potential from the presynaptic neuron travels to the end of the axon, calcium is released from voltage-gated calcium channels and causes vesicles full of neurotransmitters to fuse with the plasma membrane and dump their contents into the space between the two neurons called the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and either directly or indirectly activate ion channels on the postsynaptic neuron to cause a graded potential. In an excitatory synapse, ion channels are opened that let positive ions into the cell causing a graded potential that depolarizes the membrane and may or may not be sufficient to reach threshold (excitatory postsynaptic potential). In an inhibitory synapse, chloride enters the cell or potassium leaves the cell causing a graded potential that hyperpolarizes the membrane and moves the membrane potential farther from threshold (inhibitory postsynaptic potential).
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Neurons 1. How are neurotransmitters released from the pre-synaptic neuron?
Most synapses in the mammalian nervous system transmit between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons using chemicals called neurotransmitters. **As the action potential from the presynaptic neuron travels to the end of the axon, calcium is released from voltage-gated calcium channels and causes vesicles full of neurotransmitters to fuse with the plasma membrane and dump their contents into the space between the two neurons called the synaptic cleft.** The neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and either directly or indirectly activate ion channels on the postsynaptic neuron to cause a graded potential. In an excitatory synapse, ion channels are opened that let positive ions into the cell causing a graded potential that depolarizes the membrane and may or may not be sufficient to reach threshold (excitatory postsynaptic potential). In an inhibitory synapse, chloride enters the cell or potassium leaves the cell causing a graded potential that hyperpolarizes the membrane and moves the membrane potential farther from threshold (inhibitory postsynaptic potential).
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Neurons 1. How do neurotransmitters effect the post-synaptic neuron?
Most synapses in the mammalian nervous system transmit between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons using chemicals called neurotransmitters. As the action potential from the presynaptic neuron travels to the end of the axon, calcium is released from voltage-gated calcium channels and causes vesicles full of neurotransmitters to fuse with the plasma membrane and dump their contents into the space between the two neurons called the synaptic cleft. **The neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and either directly or indirectly activate ion channels on the postsynaptic neuron to cause a graded potential.** In an excitatory synapse, ion channels are opened that let positive ions into the cell causing a graded potential that depolarizes the membrane and may or may not be sufficient to reach threshold (excitatory postsynaptic potential). In an inhibitory synapse, chloride enters the cell or potassium leaves the cell causing a graded potential that hyperpolarizes the membrane and moves the membrane potential farther from threshold (inhibitory postsynaptic potential).
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Neurons 1. What is an exitatory synapse? 2. How does it work?
Most synapses in the mammalian nervous system transmit between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons using chemicals called neurotransmitters. As the action potential from the presynaptic neuron travels to the end of the axon, calcium is released from voltage-gated calcium channels and causes vesicles full of neurotransmitters to fuse with the plasma membrane and dump their contents into the space between the two neurons called the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and either directly or indirectly activate ion channels on the postsynaptic neuron to cause a graded potential. **1. An excitatory synapse is a synapse in which an action potential in a presynaptic neuron increases the probability of an action potential occurring in a postsynaptic cell.** **2. In an excitatory synapse, ion channels are opened that let positive ions into the cell causing a graded potential that depolarizes the membrane and may or may not be sufficient to reach threshold (excitatory postsynaptic potential).** In an inhibitory synapse, chloride enters the cell or potassium leaves the cell causing a graded potential that hyperpolarizes the membrane and moves the membrane potential farther from threshold (inhibitory postsynaptic potential).
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Neuron 1. What is an inhibitory synapse? 2. How does it work?
Most synapses in the mammalian nervous system transmit between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons using chemicals called neurotransmitters. As the action potential from the presynaptic neuron travels to the end of the axon, calcium is released from voltage-gated calcium channels and causes vesicles full of neurotransmitters to fuse with the plasma membrane and dump their contents into the space between the two neurons called the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and either directly or indirectly activate ion channels on the postsynaptic neuron to cause a graded potential. An excitatory synapse is a synapse in which an action potential in a presynaptic neuron increases the probability of an action potential occurring in a postsynaptic cell. In an excitatory synapse, ion channels are opened that let positive ions into the cell causing a graded potential that depolarizes the membrane and may or may not be sufficient to reach threshold (excitatory postsynaptic potential). **1. Inhibitory synapse -A synapse in which an action potential in the presynaptic cell reduces the probability of an action potential occurring in the postsynaptic cell.** **2. In an inhibitory synapse, chloride enters the cell or potassium leaves the cell causing a graded potential that hyperpolarizes the membrane and moves the membrane potential farther from threshold (inhibitory postsynaptic potential).**
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Neurons 1. Draw the organisation of the efferent peripheral nervous system (show paths, neurotransmitters and receptors)
The nervous system contains many types of neurotransmitters along with their respective receptors. There are two main types of synapses that are not only found in the central nervous system but also in the periphery. In **cholinergic synapses** the presynaptic neuron releases acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter and it is received by one of two main types of receptors in the postsynaptic neuron or cell. Skeletal muscle and brain express **nicotinic receptors** which are ion channels that are gated by acetylcholine. In heart, smooth muscle and glands, **muscarinic receptors** bind acetylcholine which starts a signal transduction pathway that regulates ion channels. **Adrenergic synapses** release either norepinephrine or epinephrine into the synaptic cleft. The norepinephrine or epinephrine binds to one of two classes of receptors, alpha-adrenergic or beta-adrenergic receptors. Both types of receptors use signal transduction to affect the postsynaptic cell which can be in the heart, smooth muscle, or a gland
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Nervous system 1. Draw the organisation of the nervous system (and what things connect to)
**Somatic** motor neurons excite only skeletal muscle and are responsible for most of our voluntary movements. The **enteric** neurons connect to neurons in the wall of the intestinal tract that control many processes there. The **sympathetic and parasympathetic** divisions are important for controlling many processes for body homeostasis The somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system also differ in their anatomy. In the somatic nervous system, neurons with cell bodies in the central nervous system send axons to the skeletal muscle they innervate. In the autonomic nervous system, a neuron with a cell body in the central nervous system synapses with a second neuron whose cell body is in a ganglion, or cluster of neuronal cell bodies in the periphery. The second neuron sends an axon to the target organ
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Nervous system 1. Where are the ganglia for the **sympathetic** system usually located? 2. Where are the ganglia for the **parasympathetic** system usually located?
1. The ganglia for the sympathetic system are for the most part **next to the spinal cord** 2. The ganglia for the parasympathetic system are usually **very close to or within the target organs**.
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Nervous system 1. When is the parasympathetic system mostly activated? 2. When is the sympathetic system mostly activated? 3. Give a car analogy for these two systems
Many organs are innervated by the parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves, or bundles of axons. In most cases this allows one system to activate the organ and the other system to inhibit it. 1.2. In general, the **parasympathetic** system is activated during periods of **rest or digestion** while the **sympathetic** system is most active during the **fight or flight** situations. The sympathetic system prepares us for fighting by increasing the heart rate, releasing glucose from the liver, and dilating our pupils. In addition, the sympathetic system can divert blood from the skin and digestive system to the heart, brain and skeletal muscles. 3. The **sympathetic** branch of the autonomic nervous system can be thought of as the **gas pedal** on a car while the **parasympathetic** branch is like the **brake**. This dual control of systems that cause opposing actions allows for fine control of an organ’s activity and overall body homeostasis.
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Colligative 1. How does the boiling point of a solution compare to that of the pure solvent? 2. ΔTb =
1. The boiling point of a solution is **higher(nonvolatile solute)** / **lower (volatile solute)** than that of the pure solvent. 2. The **boilingpoint depression** is given as ΔTf = iKbm where K**f** is the molal boiling point depression constant, m is the molality of the solution, and i is the van’t Hoff factor equal to the number of particles the solute dissociates into. For nonelectrolytes, i = 1. For electrolytes, i = number of ions per formula.
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Nervous 1. The efferent portion of the peripheral nervous system consists of (the **................**nervous system and the **.................**nervous system)
The efferent portion of the peripheral nervous system consists of the **somatic** nervous system and the **autonomic** nervous system. The autonomic nervous system controls the function of glands, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and the neurons of the GI tract. It is composed of two neurons in series that can either excite or inhibit the target organ. In contrast, the somatic nervous system contains single neurons that excite skeletal muscles. The movements controlled by the somatic nervous system can be voluntary or involuntary (reflexes)
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Nervous 1. What does the autonomic nervous system control (4)?
The efferent portion of the peripheral nervous system consists of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. The **autonomic** nervous system controls the function of **glands, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and the neurons of the GI tract**. It is composed of two neurons in series that can either excite or inhibit the target organ. In contrast, the somatic nervous system contains single neurons that excite skeletal muscles. The movements controlled by the somatic nervous system can be voluntary or involuntary (reflexes)
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Nervous 1. What does the **somatic** nervous system control?
The efferent portion of the peripheral nervous system consists of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system controls the function of glands, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and the neurons of the GI tract. It is composed of two neurons in series that can either excite or inhibit the target organ. In contrast, the **somatic** nervous system contains **single neurons that excite skeletal muscles.** The movements controlled by the somatic nervous system can be voluntary or involuntary (reflexes)
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Spinal cord structure 1. Draw the Spinal cord structure (from pin to muscle)
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Spinal cord 1. How many muscle fibres does a motor neuron control?.
The axons of motor neurons are myelinated and have large diameters for fast conduction of action potentials. As the axon approaches a skeletal muscle fiber (muscle cell) it usually branches to form synapses with **anywhere from three to one thousand muscle fibers**. However, each muscle fiber is usually innervated by only a single neuron. A motor unit consists of a neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates. A single neuron innervates fibers from only one muscle and the innervated muscle fibers are usually spread throughout the muscle
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Spinal cord 1. What does a motor unit consist of?
The axons of motor neurons are myelinated and have large diameters for fast conduction of action potentials. As the axon approaches a skeletal muscle fiber (muscle cell) it usually branches to form synapses with anywhere from three to one thousand muscle fibers. However, each muscle fiber is usually innervated by only a single neuron. 1. A motor unit consists of **a neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates.** A single neuron innervates fibers from only one muscle and the innervated muscle fibers are usually spread throughout the muscle
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Nervous 1. The portion of the skeletal muscle fiber plasma membrane that synapses with the motor neuron axon is called the ..?..?..?
The portion of the skeletal muscle fiber plasma membrane that synapses with the motor neuron axon is called the **motor end plate**. Once an action potential arrives at the axon terminal, the depolarization of the membrane opens voltage-gated calcium channels (Figure 36). An increase in intracellular calcium at the terminal causes release of acetylcholine vesicles into the neuromuscular junction. The acetylcholine binds nicotinic channels at the motor end plate which causes them to open and allow sodium to enter (Figure 36). The sodium entry triggers voltage-gated sodium channels near the motor end plate, initiating an action potential which is propagated in all directions along the plasma membrane of the muscle fiber
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Nervous Action potential -> motor end plate -> 1. What happens when an action potential arrives at the axon terminal?
The portion of the skeletal muscle fiber plasma membrane that synapses with the motor neuron axon is called the motor end plate. 1. Once an action potential arrives at the axon terminal, the depolarization of the membrane opens **voltage-gated calcium channels** (Figure 36). An increase in intracellular calcium at the terminal causes release of acetylcholine vesicles into the neuromuscular junction. The acetylcholine binds nicotinic channels at the motor end plate which causes them to open and allow sodium to enter (Figure 36). The sodium entry triggers voltage-gated sodium channels near the motor end plate, initiating an action potential which is propagated in all directions along the plasma membrane of the muscle fiber
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Nervous Action potential -> motor end plate -> voltage gated calcium channels -> 1. What happens after an action potential has reached an axon terminal and the voltage gated calcium channels have opened?
The portion of the skeletal muscle fiber plasma membrane that synapses with the motor neuron axon is called the motor end plate. Once an action potential arrives at the axon terminal, the depolarization of the membrane opens voltage-gated calcium channels (Figure 36). 1. An increase in intracellular calcium at the terminal causes **release of *_acetylcholine vesicles_* into the neuromuscular junction**. The acetylcholine binds nicotinic channels at the motor end plate which causes them to open and allow sodium to enter (Figure 36). The sodium entry triggers voltage-gated sodium channels near the motor end plate, initiating an action potential which is propagated in all directions along the plasma membrane of the muscle fiber
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Nervous Action potential -> motor end plate -> voltage gated calcium channels -> acetylcholine -> 1. What does acetylcholine bind to at the motor end plate? 2. and what happens when they do?
The portion of the skeletal muscle fiber plasma membrane that synapses with the motor neuron axon is called the motor end plate. Once an action potential arrives at the axon terminal, the depolarization of the membrane opens voltage-gated calcium channels (Figure 36). An increase in intracellular calcium at the terminal causes release of acetylcholine vesicles into the neuromuscular junction. 1. The acetylcholine binds **nicotinic channels** at the motor end plate which causes them to **open and allow** **sodium** to enter (Figure 36). The sodium entry triggers voltage-gated sodium channels near the motor end plate, initiating an action potential which is propagated in all directions along the plasma membrane of the muscle fiber
347
Nervous 1. Action potential -\> motor end plate -\> voltage gated calcium channels -\> acetylcholine -\> nicotinic channels open -\> sodium enters -\> What happens next?
The portion of the skeletal muscle fiber plasma membrane that synapses with the motor neuron axon is called the motor end plate. Once an action potential arrives at the axon terminal, the depolarization of the membrane opens voltage-gated calcium channels (Figure 36). An increase in intracellular calcium at the terminal causes release of acetylcholine vesicles into the neuromuscular junction. The acetylcholine binds nicotinic channels at the motor end plate which causes them to open and allow sodium to enter (Figure 36). 1. The sodium entry triggers **voltage-gated sodium channels** near the motor end plate, initiating an **action potential** which is propagated in all directions along the plasma membrane of the muscle fiber
348
SPINAL CORD ANATOMY 1. The cell bodies of the neurons that innervate skeletal muscle of the body are found in the **??..??...?..?..??..??**
SPINAL CORD ANATOMY 1. The cell bodies of the neurons that innervate skeletal muscle of the body are found in the **ventral horn of the spinal cord** (Figure 37, blue). The neurons that innervate the skeletal muscle of the head are in the brainstem. In the body, sensory signals come into the spinal cord from the dorsal root ganglia, which contain the cell bodies of sensory neurons (Figure 37, red). These neurons can excite motor neurons in the spinal cord. Motor neuron axons travel through tissues as nerves and synapse on skeletal muscle cells. Excitation of motor neurons causes acetylcholine to be released at the neuromuscular junction causing contraction of the muscle. The muscle relaxes when the motor neuron is no longer excited
349
SPINAL CORD ANATOMY 1. Where do sensory signals come into the spinal cord? 2. What do these neurons do to motor neurons in the spinal cord?
SPINAL CORD ANATOMY The cell bodies of the neurons that innervate skeletal muscle of the body are found in the ventral horn of the spinal cord (Figure 37, blue). The neurons that innervate the skeletal muscle of the head are in the brainstem. In the body, sensory signals come into the spinal cord from the **dorsal root ganglia**, which contain the **cell bodies** of sensory neurons (Figure 37, red). These neurons can **excite motor** neurons in the spinal cord. Motor neuron axons travel through tissues as nerves and synapse on skeletal muscle cells. Excitation of motor neurons causes acetylcholine to be released at the neuromuscular junction causing contraction of the muscle. The muscle relaxes when the motor neuron is no longer excited
350
SPINAL CORD ANATOMY 1. Excitation of motor neurons causes **????????** to be released at the neuromuscular junction causing **???????** of the muscle. The muscle **?????** when the motor neuron is no longer excited
SPINAL CORD ANATOMY The cell bodies of the neurons that innervate skeletal muscle of the body are found in the ventral horn of the spinal cord (Figure 37, blue). The neurons that innervate the skeletal muscle of the head are in the brainstem. In the body, sensory signals come into the spinal cord from the dorsal root ganglia, which contain the cell bodies of sensory neurons (Figure 37, red). These neurons can excite motor neurons in the spinal cord. Motor neuron axons travel through tissues as nerves and synapse on skeletal muscle cells. Excitation of motor neurons causes **acetylcholine** to be released at the neuromuscular junction causing **contraction** of the muscle. The muscle **relaxes** when the motor neuron is no longer excited
351
Two types of lower motor neurons 1. Which muscle fibers of a skeletal muscle control posture and movement? 2. What type of motor neuron innervates this muscle fibre?
_Two types of lower motor neurons_ The portion of a skeletal muscle that controls **posture** and **movement**, the **extrafusal** muscle fibers, are innervated by **alpha** motor neurons. A specialized type of skeletal muscle fiber, the intrafusal muscle cell, resides in the muscle spindle in the interior of the muscle (Figure 38). The intrafusal muscle fibers are innervated by gamma motor neurons. During muscle contraction, alpha and gamma motor neurons are coactivated. Stretching of the intrafusal fibers in the muscle spindle is sensed by stretch receptors and sent via afferent sensory neurons to the spinal cord. This allows for monitoring of the length of the muscle which helps control muscle tone.
352
Two types of lower motor neurons 1. During muscle contraction what are coactivated?
Two types of lower motor neurons The portion of a skeletal muscle that controls posture and movement, the extrafusal muscle fibers, are innervated by alpha motor neurons. A specialized type of skeletal muscle fiber, the intrafusal muscle cell, resides in the muscle spindle in the interior of the muscle (Figure 38). The intrafusal muscle fibers are innervated by gamma motor neurons. During muscle contraction, **alpha and gamma motor neurons** are **coactivated**. Stretching of the intrafusal fibers in the muscle spindle is sensed by stretch receptors and sent via afferent sensory neurons to the spinal cord. This allows for monitoring of the length of the muscle which helps control muscle tone.
353
Two types of lower motor neurons Stretching of the intrafusal fibers in the muscle spindle is sensed by stretch receptors and sent via afferent sensory neurons to the spinal cord. 1. This allows for monitoring of the ......???..... of the muscle which helps control muscle tone.
Two types of lower motor neurons The portion of a skeletal muscle that controls posture and movement, the extrafusal muscle fibers, are innervated by alpha motor neurons. A specialized type of skeletal muscle fiber, the intrafusal muscle cell, resides in the muscle spindle in the interior of the muscle (Figure 38). The intrafusal muscle fibers are innervated by gamma motor neurons. During muscle contraction, alpha and gamma motor neurons are coactivated. Stretching of the **intrafusal** fibers in the muscle spindle is sensed by stretch receptors and sent via **afferent sensory neurons** to the spinal cord. This allows for monitoring of the **length** of the muscle which helps control muscle tone.
354
Two types of muscle sensory receptors 1. The muscle **....??....** is an important muscle sensory receptor that provides information about muscle **length** and the **rate of change** of muscle length.
Two types of muscle sensory receptors In order for the body to be able to control muscle contraction properly, there must be feedback about the contractile status of individual muscles. The muscle **spindle** is an important muscle sensory receptor that provides information about muscle **length** and the **rate of change** of muscle length. In addition, Golgi tendon organs are encapsulated sensory receptors situated in tendons near the junction with the muscle (Figure 38). They detect changes in muscle tension instead of changes in muscle length. Both types of sensory receptors send information to the spinal cord and the brain that is usually subconscious.
355
Two types of muscle sensory receptors Encapsulated sensory receptors situated in tendons near the junction with the muscle detect changes in muscle **tension** instead of changes in muscle length. 1. What are they called?
Two types of muscle sensory receptors In order for the body to be able to control muscle contraction properly, there must be feedback about the contractile status of individual muscles. The muscle spindle is an important muscle sensory receptor that provides information about muscle length and the rate of change of muscle length. In addition, **Golgi tendon organs** are encapsulated sensory receptors situated in tendons near the junction with the muscle (Figure 38). They detect changes in muscle **tension** instead of changes in muscle length. Both types of sensory receptors send information to the spinal cord and the brain that is usually subconscious.
356
Two types of muscle sensory receptors The muscle spindle is an important muscle sensory receptor. In addition, Golgi tendon organs are encapsulated sensory receptors situated in tendons near the junction with the muscle 1. Both types of sensory receptors send information to the spinal cord and the brain that is usually **....??.....**
Two types of muscle sensory receptors In order for the body to be able to control muscle contraction properly, there must be feedback about the contractile status of individual muscles. The muscle spindle is an important muscle sensory receptor that provides information about muscle length and the rate of change of muscle length. In addition, Golgi tendon organs are encapsulated sensory receptors situated in tendons near the junction with the muscle (Figure 38). They detect changes in muscle tension instead of changes in muscle length. Both types of sensory receptors send information to the spinal cord and the brain that is usually **subconscious**.
357
Muscle Stretch Reflex. 1. If a muscle spindle within a muscle is quickly stretched, the ...???......???......???... causes ...???... of the muscle as well as nearby muscles. This is what occurs when the patellar tendon is struck during a physical exam (Figure 39).
Muscle Stretch Reflex. If a muscle spindle within a muscle is quickly stretched, the **muscle stretch reflex** causes **contraction** of the muscle as well as nearby muscles. This is what occurs when the patellar tendon is struck during a physical exam (Figure 39). The afferent sensory neuron relays the stretch signal from the muscle spindle to its cell body in the dorsal root of the spinal cord. The sensory neuron synapses with the motor neuron in the spinal cord that controls that muscle. In addition, the sensory neuron activates an inhibitory neuron which inhibits the motor neuron (reducing its likelihood of firing an action potential) leading to the muscle on the opposite side of the limb, causing it to relax (Figure 39). The muscle spindle reflex is important in allowing maintenance of the length of a certain muscle.
358
Muscle Stretch Reflex. 1. What type of neuron relays the stretch signal from the muscle spindle to its cell body.
Muscle Stretch Reflex. If a muscle spindle within a muscle is quickly stretched, the muscle stretch reflex causes contraction of the muscle as well as nearby muscles. This is what occurs when the patellar tendon is struck during a physical exam (Figure 39). The **afferent sensory neuron** relays the stretch signal from the muscle spindle to its cell body in the **dorsal root** of the spinal cord. The sensory neuron synapses with the **motor neuron** in the spinal cord that controls that muscle. In addition, the sensory neuron activates an inhibitory neuron which inhibits the motor neuron (reducing its likelihood of firing an action potential) leading to the muscle on the opposite side of the limb, causing it to relax (Figure 39). The muscle spindle reflex is important in allowing maintenance of the length of a certain muscle.
359
Muscle Stretch Reflex. If a muscle spindle within a muscle is quickly stretched, the muscle stretch reflex causes contraction of the muscle as well as nearby muscles. This is what occurs when the patellar tendon is struck during a physical exam (Figure 39). The afferent sensory neuron relays the stretch signal from the muscle spindle to its cell body in the dorsal root of the spinal cord. The sensory neuron synapses with the motor neuron in the spinal cord that controls that muscle. 1. In addition, the sensory neuron activates an **...???...** neuron which **...???..**. the motor neuron (reducing its likelihood of firing an action potential) leading to the muscle on the opposite side of the limb, causing it to relax (Figure 39). 2. The muscle spindle reflex is important in allowing maintenance of the .**..???..**. of a certain muscle. e.g. holding **......???......???...**
Muscle Stretch Reflex. If a muscle spindle within a muscle is quickly stretched, the muscle stretch reflex causes contraction of the muscle as well as nearby muscles. This is what occurs when the patellar tendon is struck during a physical exam (Figure 39). The afferent sensory neuron relays the stretch signal from the muscle spindle to its cell body in the dorsal root of the spinal cord. The sensory neuron synapses with the motor neuron in the spinal cord that controls that muscle. 1. In addition, the sensory neuron activates an **inhibitory neuron which inhibits** the motor neuron (reducing its likelihood of firing an action potential) leading to the muscle on the opposite side of the limb, causing it to relax (Figure 39). 2. The muscle spindle reflex is important in allowing maintenance of the **length** of a certain muscle. **e.g holding a drink**
360
Golgi Tendon Reflex. 1. If the Golgi tendon organs of a muscle are stretched and stimulated, muscle **....?....** is inhibited through inhibition of the motor neuron leading to that muscle. 2. This is because the afferent neuron activates an **....?....** neuron which is synapsing with the .**...?...**. neuron (Figure 40).
Golgi Tendon Reflex. 1. If the Golgi tendon organs of a muscle are stretched and stimulated, muscle **contraction** is inhibited through inhibition of the motor neuron leading to that muscle. 2. This is because the afferent neuron activates an **inhibitory** neuron which is synapsing with the **motor** neuron (Figure 40). In addition, the opposing muscle is stimulated to contract through the interaction of an excitatory interneuron with the afferent neuron (Figure 40). The Golgi tendon reflex acts to protect muscles and tendons from damage due to excessive tension. In addition, they may play a role in equalizing the load across different parts of a muscle.
361
Golgi Tendon Reflex. If the Golgi tendon organs of a muscle are stretched and stimulated, muscle contraction is inhibited through inhibition of the motor neuron leading to that muscle. This is because the afferent neuron activates an inhibitory neuron which is synapsing with the motor neuron (Figure 40). 1. In addition, the opposing muscle is stimulated to contract through the interaction of an ...?.... ..?.... with the afferent neuron (Figure 40). 2. The Golgi tendon reflex acts to ..?.... muscles and tendons from damage due to excessive ..?.....
Golgi Tendon Reflex. If the Golgi tendon organs of a muscle are stretched and stimulated, muscle contraction is inhibited through inhibition of the motor neuron leading to that muscle. This is because the afferent neuron activates an inhibitory neuron which is synapsing with the motor neuron (Figure 40). 1. In addition, the opposing muscle is stimulated to contract through the interaction of an **excitatory interneuron** with the afferent neuron (Figure 40). 2. The Golgi tendon reflex acts to **protect** muscles and tendons from damage due to excessive **tension**. In addition, they may play a role in equalizing the load across different parts of a muscle.
362
Withdrawal Reflexes. A withdrawal reflex occurs when a part of the body such as a portion of a limb is subjected to a painful stimulus. 1. The **...?..**. reflex causes contraction of one muscle and relaxation of the opposing muscle to move that portion of the body away from the insult.
Withdrawal Reflexes. A withdrawal reflex occurs when a part of the body such as a portion of a limb is subjected to a painful stimulus. 1. The **flexor** reflex causes contraction of one muscle and relaxation of the opposing muscle to move that portion of the body away from the insult. A short time after the flexor reflex initiates, the crossed extensor reflex initiates on the opposite side of the body. This reflex allows for the opposite side of the body to support the body’s weight or to push the body out of the way of the painful stimulus.
363
Withdrawal Reflexes. A withdrawal reflex occurs when a part of the body such as a portion of a limb is subjected to a painful stimulus. The flexor reflex causes contraction of one muscle and relaxation of the opposing muscle to move that portion of the body away from the insult. 1. A short time after the flexor reflex initiates, the ...?.....?.....?.. initiates on the ...?.. side of the body.
Withdrawal Reflexes. A withdrawal reflex occurs when a part of the body such as a portion of a limb is subjected to a painful stimulus. The flexor reflex causes contraction of one muscle and relaxation of the opposing muscle to move that portion of the body away from the insult. A short time after the flexor reflex initiates, the **crossed extensor reflex** initiates on the **opposite** side of the body. This reflex allows for the opposite side of the body to **support the body’s weight** or to **push the body out of the way** of the painful stimulus.
364
Locomotion Walking and running require the legs to alternate between forward flexion (the swing phase) and backward extension (the stance phase). The repetition of this pattern is synchronized with the other leg so that the two legs remain in opposite phases. In most animals, if the spinal cord is separated from the brain the four legs can still make coordinated walking motions. 1. This is accomplished through **..?....?....?..** which are oscillatory neural circuits of lower motor neurons in the spinal cord.
Locomotion Walking and running require the legs to alternate between forward flexion (the swing phase) and backward extension (the stance phase). The repetition of this pattern is synchronized with the other leg so that the two legs remain in opposite phases. In most animals, if the spinal cord is separated from the brain the four legs can still make coordinated walking motions. This is accomplished through **central pattern generators** which are oscillatory neural circuits of lower motor neurons in the spinal cord. Even though these circuits control the basic movements of walking, they are greatly influenced by the brain. For instance, running occurs when the brain causes the central pattern generators to shorten the stance phase. In addition, posture and goal-directed locomotion require input from the brain. However, the central pattern generators allow relatively simple modifications by the brain to control a very complicated process such as locomotion
365
Two types of lower motor neurons 1. Which specialized type of skeletal muscle fibre resides in the muscle spindle in the interior of the muscle? 2. What type of motor neuron innervates this muscle fibre?
_Two types of lower motor neurons_ The portion of a skeletal muscle that controls posture and movement, the extrafusal muscle fibers, are innervated by alpha motor neurons. A specialized type of skeletal muscle fiber, the **intrafusal** muscle cell, resides in the muscle spindle in the interior of the muscle (Figure 38). The intrafusal muscle fibers are innervated by **gamma** motor neurons. During muscle contraction, alpha and gamma motor neurons are coactivated. Stretching of the intrafusal fibers in the muscle spindle is sensed by stretch receptors and sent via afferent sensory neurons to the spinal cord. This allows for monitoring of the length of the muscle which helps control muscle tone.
366
Two types of muscle sensory receptors 1. **Golgi tendon organs** are encapsulated sensory receptors situated in tendons near the junction with the muscle (Figure 38). They detect changes in muscle **....??...**. instead of changes in muscle length.
Two types of muscle sensory receptors In order for the body to be able to control muscle contraction properly, there must be feedback about the contractile status of individual muscles. The muscle spindle is an important muscle sensory receptor that provides information about muscle length and the rate of change of muscle length. In addition, **Golgi tendon organs** are encapsulated sensory receptors situated in tendons near the junction with the muscle (Figure 38). They detect changes in muscle **tension** instead of changes in muscle length. Both types of sensory receptors send information to the spinal cord and the brain that is usually subconscious.
367
Judy was holding a stack of books when Bill added three more. To prevent dropping the books, Judy’s muscles increased their force of contraction through an increase in the: length of the muscle. number of motor units activated. speed of the myosin ATPase. strength of each cross bridge interaction with myosin
number of motor units activated
368
John began lifting weights at the gym to improve his total lack of fitness. After strength training for 9 months, his biceps were bigger and he could lift 100 lbs. more than when he started. His training: increased the number of muscle fibers in his biceps. increased the number of myofibrils in his biceps. increased the number of motor units in his biceps
increased the number of **myofibrils** in his biceps.
369
In the muscle stretch reflex, stretching of the biceps muscle leads to: A contraction of the biceps and relaxation of the triceps B relaxation of the biceps and contraction of the triceps C contraction of the biceps and contraction of the triceps D relaxation of the biceps and relaxation of the triceps
**A contraction** of the biceps and **relaxation** of the triceps
370
The Golgi tendon organ fires action potentials most frequently when its associated muscle is in which state? relaxed stretched contracted
contracted
371
The response of the otoliths of the utricle during deceleration is similar to leaning the head in which direction? forward backward to the right to the left
forward
372
In the eye, **relaxation** of the ciliary muscles encircling the lens will cause the lens to: become more rounded flatten ciliary muscles do not affect lens shape
flatten
373
The convergence of rod cells on bipolar cells explains which of the following? the low resolution of color vision the low resolution of night vision the high resolution of color vision the ability to see color
the low resolution of night vision
374
The volume of a sound is conveyed to the brain through: the portion of the basilar membrane which vibrates the amount of fluid that leaves the cochlea the frequency of action potential production
the frequency of action potential production
375
In a cell, if the equilibrium potential for Na+ is +50 mV and the equilibrium potential for K+ is -50 mV, what is the membrane potential if the membrane is equally permeable to Na+ and K+? +50 mV +25 mV 0 mV -25 mV -50 mV
0 mV
376
Would an increase in the number of open K+ channels near the initial segment of a neuron affect the size of the stimulus required to initiate an action potential? yes, the stimulus required would be greater yes, the stimulus required would be smaller no
yes, the stimulus required would be greater
377
In a post-synaptic neuron, which of the following changes would increase the likelihood of an action potential firing? A increasing the number of excitatory synapses B increasing the firing rate of an excitatory synapse C moving an inhibitory synapse closer to the initial segment both A and B A, B, and C
both A and B
378
Heart rate is increased by the sympathetic nervous system and decreased by the parasympathetic nervous system. Which of the following changes will increase heart rate? A increased sympathetic nervous system tone B decreased sympathetic nervous system tone C increased parasympathetic nervous system tone D decreased parasympathetic nervous system tone both A and D
both A and D
379
In skeletal muscle the speed of contraction is regulated by the: A. myosin ATPase B. troponin - tropomyosin complex C. plasma membrane CaATPase D. amount of intracellular glycogen
A. myosin ATPase Skeletal muscle fibers are classified into one of three types distinguished by the **speed of their myosin ATPase and preferred metabolism**: fast, glycolytic fibers fatigue quickly fast, oxidative, glycolytic fibers resist fatigue slow, oxidative fibers resist fatigue The main feature of muscle contraction is the interaction of actin, myosin and ATP. [This fundamental process of contraction is regulated by the tropomyosin-troponin-Ca2+ system](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
380
On which myofilament is troponin located? A. thin filament (actin) B. thick filament (myosin)
[A. thin filament (actin)](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
381
What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)? A. intracellular organelle that generates ATP B. intracellular organelle that stores calcium ions C. cell surface transporter for calcium efflux D. T tubule channel for calcium influx
[B. intracellular organelle that stores calcium ions](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
382
Fused tetanus can occur in normal skeletal muscle when there is: A. delayed efflux of calcium through the ryanodine receptor B. a large graded potential (end plate potential) generated at the neuro-muscular junction. C. a temporal summation of individual contractions leading to maximal tension. D. an increase in the activity of the T tubule CaATPase
[C. a temporal summation of individual contractions leading to maximal tension.](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
383
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which antibodies block the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. Why does an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor help these patients? A. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor slows the removal of acetylcholine thereby increasing receptor occupancy and end plate potentials. B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor increases uptake of acetylcholine into the synapse thereby "reloading" the synaptic vesicles. C. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor increases the removal of antibodies from the synapse. D. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor slows the degradation of the acetylcholine receptor at the synapse thereby increasing its activity.
A. [Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor slows the removal of acetylcholine thereby increasing receptor occupancy and end plate potentials](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/pbszkbg7y942).
384
Jane was holding a tray of dirty glasses when John added an extra 5 pounds of plates. To prevent dropping the tray, Jane’s muscles increased their force of contraction through an increase in the: A. length of the muscle. B. number of motor units activated and the frequency of their activation. C. peak intracellular calcium concentration in the muscle. D. strength of each cross bridge interaction with myosin.
B. number of motor units activated and the frequency of their activation.
385
Diseases affecting striated muscle cells are uncommon but are devastating and often lethal because normal striated muscle function is required for: A. heart beat B. swallowing C. breathing D. B and C E. A, B and C
E. A, B and C A. Cardiac muscle is a striated fiber containing the same arrangements of contractile filaments as skeletal muscle Smooth muscle is an involuntary, non-striated type associated with blood vessels and visceral organs Smooth muscle regulates air flow in lungs
386
In the disease, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a large molecule called dystrophin is not synthesized properly. This protein is critical for linking the sarcomere to the plasma membrane and in turn to extracellular connective tissue elements. In the absence of a functional dystrophin, contractile activity causes the affected muscle cells to rupture. Why does the sarcomere have to be attached to the plasma membrane? A. Attachment permits the filament to pull against the cell surface during contraction thereby shortening the entire cell. B. Without this anchoring only the interior filaments would shorten and the cell would stay the same length. C. Attachment allows for rapid removal of calcium across the cell membrane preventing excess shortening. D. A and B
**A. Attachment permits the filament to pull against the cell surface during contraction thereby shortening the entire cell.** Dystrophin is a protein located between the sarcolemma and the outermost layer of myofilaments in the muscle fiber (myofiber). It is a cohesive protein, linking actin filaments to another support protein that resides on the inside surface of each muscle fiber’s plasma membrane (sarcolemma). This support protein on the inside surface of the sarcolemma in turn links to two other consecutive proteins for a total of three linking proteins. The final linking protein is attached to the fibrous endomysium of the entire muscle fiber. **Dystrophin supports muscle fiber strength**, and the **absence of dystrophin reduces muscle stiffness, increases sarcolemmal deformability, and compromises the mechanical stability of costameres and their connections to nearby myofibrils**; as shown in recent studies where biomechanical properties of the sarcolemma and its links through costameres to the contractile apparatus were measured,[5] and helps to prevent muscle fiber injury. **Movement of thin filaments (actin) creates a pulling force on the extracellular connective tissue that eventually becomes the tendon of the muscle.**
387
What filaments insert into the Z line of the sarcomere? A. Thin filament (actin) B. Thick filament (myosin) C. Thick and thin filaments
[A. Thin filament (actin)](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
388
What filaments insert into the M line of the sarcomere? A. Thin filaments (actin) B. Thick filaments (myosin) C. Thick and thin filaments
[B. Thick filaments (myosin)](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
389
What is the I band of the sarcomere? A. Thin filament (actin) only B. Thick filament (myosin) only C. Myosin-actin overlap
[A. Thin filament (actin) only](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
390
The dark (A band) region of skeletal muscle contains: A. Thin filament (actin) only B. Thick filament (myosin) C. Myosin-actin overlap region only
[B. Thick filament (myosin)](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
391
During contraction of the sarcomere, which of the following changes in length? A. I band shortens B. A band shortens C. Both A and I bands shorten
[A. I band shortens](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez) Upon muscle contraction, the A-bands do not change their length (1.85 micrometer in mammalian skeletal muscle), whereas the I-bands and the H-zone shorten
392
Do the sarcomeres change in length with contraction? A. Yes. Sarcomeres shorten due to sliding of the thin and thick filaments past each other. B. No. Sarcomeres are attached to the Z lines and do not shorten with contraction.
A. Yes. Sarcomeres shorten due to sliding of the thin and thick filaments past each other.
393
Channelopathies are diseases related to mutations in ion conducting channels in skeletal muscle. A mutation in the acetylcholine receptor (AChR) leads to prolonged AChR channel activation in response to a single nerve stimulus. This will lengthen the time interval for: A. depolarization of the muscle plasma membrane. B. the refractory period. C. the action potential. D. A, B, and C
D. A, B, and C
394
Predict how a mutation in the Sacroplasmic Reticulum Ca-release-Ca channel (ryanodine channel) affects skeletal muscle activity if the mutation caused a prolonged increase in free cytoplasmic Ca++. A. results in sustained contractions. B. results in shortened contractions C. results in faster relaxation. D. has no effect on the duration of either contraction or relaxation.
[A. results in sustained contractions](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
395
Predict what would happen in a skeletal muscle if the voltage gated K+ channel is inactivated. A. longer action potential due to slower repolarization B. shorter action potential due to faster repolarization C. has no effect on action potential duration
[A. longer action potential due to slower repolarization](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/mrpkwftiahga) Voltage-gated K+ channels (Kv channels), present in all animal cells, open and close upon changes in the transmembrane potential. Kv channels are one of the key components in generation and propagation of electrical impulses in nervous system. Upon changes in transmembrane potential, these channels open and allow passive flow of K+ ions from the cell to **restore the membrane potential**.
396
In smooth muscle cells, a pacemaker potential: always reach threshold activate with the influx (entry) of Cl- activate with the efflux (exit) of Na+ vary in size
[always reach threshold](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/4ova3k99hh1l) Pacemaker cells exhibit an unstable resting membrane potential leading to rhythmic states of depolarization followed by repolarization
397
Which of the following determines the **speed** of contraction in smooth muscle? number of cross bridges formed kinetics of the myosin ATPase activation of the voltage gated sodium channel unmasking of the thin filament
[kinetics of the myosin ATPase](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/4ova3k99hh1l) MYOSIN ATPase has a slow rate of hydrolysis. It hydrolyzes ATP at about 10% of the rate observed in skeletal muscle. Consequently smooth muscle produces slow, sustained contractions using only 10% of the ATP that skeletal muscle would require for the same work
398
During contraction, when the cardiac muscle is shortening in length, the I band (thin filament) will: lengthen shorten remain unchanged
shorten
399
Which of the following determines the strength of contraction in all three muscle types (skeletal, smooth, cardiac)? number of cross bridges formed kinetics of the myosin ATPase activation of the voltage gated sodium channel unmasking of the thin filament
number of cross bridges formed
400
If a patient is given a drug that inhibits myosin light chain kinase, the effect will be: B. decreased airway resistance in the lung. C. decreased heart beat. D. decreased tone of postural muscles. A. decreased diameter of the small arteries.
B. decreased airway resistance in the lung. [myosin light chain kinase -\> activating smooth muscle](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/4ova3k99hh1l)
401
A bundle of muscle contracts rhythmically and in unison even when the nerve supply is cut. The cells have poorly developed T tubules. What type of muscle is this? B. fast twitch skeletal muscle C. multiunit smooth muscle A. single unit smooth muscle
A. single unit smooth muscle MULTI-UNIT smooth muscle fibers are innervated independently. The fibers are not connected by gap junctions. Depolarization of one fiber is followed by contraction of that fiber only. These fibers are richly innervated by the autonomic nervous system. Nervous stimuli and hormones cause contraction (or relaxation) of these fibers, not stretch. The smooth muscle of the lung airways, in the walls of large arteries, and attached to the hair of the skin are multi-unit fibers. SINGLE UNIT smooth muscle fibers are connected by gap junctions. Depolarization of one fiber triggers synchronous depolarization throughout the bundle followed by contraction of the fiber bundle. That is, many fibers act as one sheet. Single unit fibers are found in the walls of small blood vessels, the GI tract, and uterus where stretching of one fiber creates a coordinated contraction
402
Contraction of **smooth** muscle relies on \_\_\_?\_\_\_\_ for modulating actin-myosin interaction (cross bridge formation). C. Na+ dependent myosin phosphorylation A. Na+ dependent actin phosphorylation B. Ca++ dependent actin phosphorylation D. Ca++ dependent myosin phosphorylation
D. Ca++ dependent myosin phosphorylation In smooth muscle, coupling between the membrane action potentials and contraction is mediated by calcium ions (Ca++). Calcium regulates the thick filament (myosin) to enable cross bridge formation and contraction.
403
Which of the following statements is correct? A. Phasic contractions are single twitches that can summate to a fused tetanus. B. Multiunit smooth muscle is electrically coupled by gap junctions. C. Tonic contractions are continuous contractions exhibited by single unit smooth muscle D. Tonic contractions are single twitches exhibited by multiunit smooth muscle E. A and C
E. A and C A. Phasic contractions are single twitches that can summate to a fused tetanus. C. Tonic contractions are continuous contractions exhibited by single unit smooth muscle
404
Action potentials can be generated in smooth muscle cells by activating which of the following? A. voltage gated Na+ channels B. ligand gated Ca++ channels C. mechano gated Ca++ channels D. B and C E. A, B and C
D. B and C B. ligand gated Ca++ channels C. mechano gated Ca++ channels
405
What sort of contractions can smooth muscle perform?
MYOSIN ATPase has a slow rate of hydrolysis. It hydrolyzes ATP at about 10% of the rate observed in skeletal muscle. Consequently smooth muscle produces **slow, sustained contractions using only 10%** of the ATP that skeletal muscle would require for the same work
406
Smooth muscle 1. TONIC CONTRACTION = 2. PHASIC CONTRACTION =
TONIC CONTRACTION = sustained contracted state over time without fatigue. PHASIC CONTRACTION = graded force generated by increasing stimulus up to fused tetanus.
407
1. How does Ca++ enter smooth muscle to activate the membrane?
MEMBRANE ACTIVATION Contraction of smooth muscle, like skeletal muscle, is dependent on a rise of cytosolic Ca++ due to changes in the plasma membrane. However, smooth muscle **does not have T tubules**. Instead **Ca++ enters from the ECF by diffusion through calcium channels in the plasma membrane**. These Ca++ channels include: **voltage-gated channels, ligand-gated channels and mechano-gated channels**. The inputs that regulate contraction include: Autonomic nervous system via voltage gated Ca++ channels. Hormones via ligand-gated Ca++ channels. Stretch via mechano-gated Ca++ channels. At any one time, multiple inputs, some excitatory and others inhibitory, can be activated in a single cell. The net effect is dependent on the relative intensity of these inputs. Note that the intracellular Ca++ of smooth muscle can increase (or decrease) due to changes in the membrane potential from graded depolarization, hyperpolarization, or an action potential
408
How does the autonomic nervous system get Ca++ into smooth muscle to activate the muscle?
MEMBRANE ACTIVATION Contraction of smooth muscle, like skeletal muscle, is dependent on a rise of cytosolic Ca++ due to changes in the plasma membrane. However, smooth muscle does not have T tubules. Instead Ca++ enters from the ECF by diffusion through calcium channels in the plasma membrane. These Ca++ channels include: voltage-gated channels, ligand-gated channels and mechano-gated channels. The inputs that regulate contraction include: **Autonomic nervous system via voltage gated Ca++ channels**. Hormones via ligand-gated Ca++ channels. Stretch via mechano-gated Ca++ channels. At any one time, multiple inputs, some excitatory and others inhibitory, can be activated in a single cell. The net effect is dependent on the relative intensity of these inputs. Note that the intracellular Ca++ of smooth muscle can increase (or decrease) due to changes in the membrane potential from graded depolarization, hyperpolarization, or an action potential
409
How do **hormones** get Ca++ into smooth muscle to activate the muscle?
MEMBRANE ACTIVATION Contraction of smooth muscle, like skeletal muscle, is dependent on a rise of cytosolic Ca++ due to changes in the plasma membrane. However, smooth muscle does not have T tubules. Instead Ca++ enters from the ECF by diffusion through calcium channels in the plasma membrane. These Ca++ channels include: voltage-gated channels, ligand-gated channels and mechano-gated channels. The inputs that regulate contraction include: Autonomic nervous system via voltage gated Ca++ channels. **Hormones via ligand-gated Ca++ channels.** Stretch via mechano-gated Ca++ channels. At any one time, multiple inputs, some excitatory and others inhibitory, can be activated in a single cell. The net effect is dependent on the relative intensity of these inputs. Note that the intracellular Ca++ of smooth muscle can increase (or decrease) due to changes in the membrane potential from graded depolarization, hyperpolarization, or an action potential
410
How does stretch get Ca++ into smooth muscle to activate the muscle?
MEMBRANE ACTIVATION Contraction of smooth muscle, like skeletal muscle, is dependent on a rise of cytosolic Ca++ due to changes in the plasma membrane. However, smooth muscle does not have T tubules. Instead Ca++ enters from the ECF by diffusion through calcium channels in the plasma membrane. These Ca++ channels include: voltage-gated channels, ligand-gated channels and mechano-gated channels. The inputs that regulate contraction include: Autonomic nervous system via voltage gated Ca++ channels. Hormones via ligand-gated Ca++ channels. **Stretch via mechano-gated Ca++ channels.** At any one time, multiple inputs, some excitatory and others inhibitory, can be activated in a single cell. The net effect is dependent on the relative intensity of these inputs. Note that the intracellular Ca++ of smooth muscle can increase (or decrease) due to changes in the membrane potential from graded depolarization, hyperpolarization, or an action potential
411
How many inputs can there be controlling Ca++ channels into smooth muscle?
MEMBRANE ACTIVATION Contraction of smooth muscle, like skeletal muscle, is dependent on a rise of cytosolic Ca++ due to changes in the plasma membrane. However, smooth muscle does not have T tubules. Instead Ca++ enters from the ECF by diffusion through calcium channels in the plasma membrane. These Ca++ channels include: voltage-gated channels, ligand-gated channels and mechano-gated channels. The inputs that regulate contraction include: Autonomic nervous system via voltage gated Ca++ channels. Hormones via ligand-gated Ca++ channels. Stretch via mechano-gated Ca++ channels. **At any one time, multiple inputs, some excitatory and others inhibitory, can be activated in a single cell. The net effect is dependent on the relative intensity of these inputs.** Note that the intracellular Ca++ of smooth muscle can increase (or decrease) due to changes in the membrane potential from graded depolarization, hyperpolarization, or an action potential
412
How does spontaneous pacemaker potentials work in some smooth muscle cells? Draw the graph
[Some smooth muscle exhibits spontaneous contractile activity](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/4ova3k99hh1l)in the absence of either nerve or hormonal stimuli. The plasma membranes of these fibers do not maintain a stable resting membrane potential. Instead the resting membrane potential gradually drifts towards threshold where it triggers an action potential (Figure 49). Following repolarization the membrane again begins to depolarize. This is property is called pacemaker activity. Pacemakers are found within the GI tract.
413
Redox 1. Is a rechargable bettery a galvanic cell or an electrolytic cell?
While the battery is **being used in the device it is a galvanic cell** function (using the redox energy to produce electricity). While the battery is **charging it is an electrolytic cell** function (using outside electricity to reverse the completed redox reaction). Galvanic: turns chemical energy into electrical energy Electrolytic Cell: turns electrical energy into chemical energy
414
Muscle 1. What contractile proteins do all three muscle types contain?
All three types of muscle contain the contractile proteins, **myosin and actin,** contract to generate force, and share 3 common principles: Sliding filament mechanism in which myosin filaments bind to and pull actin filaments as a basis for shortening. Regulation of contractile proteins by calcium ions. Changes in membrane potential lead to a rise in intracellular calcium resulting in contraction (E-C coupling)
415
Muscle In muscle Thick and thin filaments are organized into a series of repeating functional units 1. What are the units called? 2. Draw one (showing zones and bands)
[padlet](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
416
Muscle 1. What is the mechanical response of a single muscle fiber to a single action potential called? 2. What happens with repeated stimulation of a skeletal muscle?
[Muscle Tension](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez) The mechanical response of a single muscle fiber to a single action potential is called a **twitch**. Following an action potential there is brief period before tension, the force exerted on an object, develops. This is known as the latent period. The action potential of a single impulse lasts only 2 milliseconds. The associated contraction time (twitch) lasts for 10-100 milliseconds. This means that repeated stimulation of a skeletal muscle will cause **summation of the contractions until there is no relaxation and fused tetanus is reached** (Figure 45). Not all muscle fibers have the same contraction times. Some fast fibers contract in 10 milliseconds; slower fibers take 100 milliseconds or longer. The duration depends on the SR-ATPase activity.
417
Muscle 1. How is the maximal amount of force a muscle can generate determined? 2. Draw graph [Variation in active tension with muscle fiber](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)
Length-Tension Relationship. The maximal amount of force (tension) a muscle can generate is determined by the **degree of overlap of the thick and thin filaments** (Figure 46). The basal state and slightly stretched state provide optimal force generation (Figure 46). Because the muscle is anchored to bone within the body, conditions of excess stretch or non-overlap and excess contraction are avoided. However, with injury, irreversible damage to the actin and myosin filaments can occur.
418
Muscle 1. What does muscle fibre depend on to produce force?
Skeletal Muscle Metabolism Muscle fibers depend on **ATP to produce force**. There are three pathways a muscle fiber uses to make ATP. 1. Creatine phosphate converts ADP to ATP in a single, fast reaction. As a result, 4 moles of ATP are produced per minute from creatine phosphate. However, the stores of creatine phosphate are limited so they are used up in the first 10 seconds of intense exercise. Creatine phosphate is the primary source of ATP during a short, high intensity activity such as the 100 meter dash. 2. Anaerobic metabolism burns glucose as well as the large stores of muscle glycogen (a glucose polymer) to produce lactic acid and ATP in the absence of oxygen. Since only glycolysis is used, 2.5 moles of ATP can be produced per minute. Anaerobic metabolism is used during the first 1.5 minutes of high intensity activity and is the primary source of ATP for the 400 meter dash. 3. Aerobic metabolism uses glycogen, blood glucose, or fatty acids to produce ATP, CO2, and water in the presence of oxygen. Only 1 mole of ATP is made per minute but the available fuel sources are limited only in extreme circumstances. Aerobic metabolism is the primary source of ATP during endurance activities such as a marathon.
419
Muscle 1. How many pathways are there to produce ATP in a muscle fibre? 2. What are they?
Skeletal Muscle Metabolism Muscle fibers depend on ATP to produce force. There are **three pathways** a muscle fiber uses to make ATP. 1. **Creatine phosphate** converts ADP to ATP in a single, fast reaction. As a result, 4 moles of ATP are produced per minute from creatine phosphate. However, the stores of creatine phosphate are limited so they are used up in the first 10 seconds of intense exercise. Creatine phosphate is the primary source of ATP during a short, high intensity activity such as the 100 meter dash. 2. **Anaerobic metabolism** burns glucose as well as the large stores of muscle glycogen (a glucose polymer) to produce lactic acid and ATP in the absence of oxygen. Since only glycolysis is used, 2.5 moles of ATP can be produced per minute. Anaerobic metabolism is used during the first 1.5 minutes of high intensity activity and is the primary source of ATP for the 400 meter dash. 3. **Aerobic metabolism** uses glycogen, blood glucose, or fatty acids to produce ATP, CO2, and water in the presence of oxygen. Only 1 mole of ATP is made per minute but the available fuel sources are limited only in extreme circumstances. Aerobic metabolism is the primary source of ATP during endurance activities such as a marathon.
420
Muscle 1. In the creatine phosphate ATP pathway - how long do the creatine phosphate stores last? 2. What sort of activity?
Skeletal Muscle Metabolism Muscle fibers depend on ATP to produce force. There are three pathways a muscle fiber uses to make ATP. 1. Creatine phosphate converts ADP to ATP in a single, fast reaction. As a result, 4 moles of ATP are produced per minute from creatine phosphate. However, the stores of creatine phosphate are limited so they are used up in the first **10 seconds** of intense exercise. Creatine phosphate is the primary source of ATP during a short, high intensity activity such as the **100 meter dash**. 2. Anaerobic metabolism burns glucose as well as the large stores of muscle glycogen (a glucose polymer) to produce lactic acid and ATP in the absence of oxygen. Since only glycolysis is used, 2.5 moles of ATP can be produced per minute. Anaerobic metabolism is used during the first 1.5 minutes of high intensity activity and is the primary source of ATP for the 400 meter dash. 3. Aerobic metabolism uses glycogen, blood glucose, or fatty acids to produce ATP, CO2, and water in the presence of oxygen. Only 1 mole of ATP is made per minute but the available fuel sources are limited only in extreme circumstances. Aerobic metabolism is the primary source of ATP during endurance activities such as a marathon.
421
Muscle 1. In the Anaerobic metabolism ATP pathway - how long do the stores last? 2. What sort of activity?
Skeletal Muscle Metabolism Muscle fibers depend on ATP to produce force. There are three pathways a muscle fiber uses to make ATP. 1. Creatine phosphate converts ADP to ATP in a single, fast reaction. As a result, 4 moles of ATP are produced per minute from creatine phosphate. However, the stores of creatine phosphate are limited so they are used up in the first 10 seconds of intense exercise. Creatine phosphate is the primary source of ATP during a short, high intensity activity such as the 100 meter dash. 2. Anaerobic metabolism burns glucose as well as the large stores of muscle glycogen (a glucose polymer) to produce lactic acid and ATP in the absence of oxygen. Since only glycolysis is used, 2.5 moles of ATP can be produced per minute. Anaerobic metabolism is used during the **first 1.5 minutes of high intensity** activity and is the primary source of ATP for the **400 meter dash**. 3. Aerobic metabolism uses glycogen, blood glucose, or fatty acids to produce ATP, CO2, and water in the presence of oxygen. Only 1 mole of ATP is made per minute but the available fuel sources are limited only in extreme circumstances. Aerobic metabolism is the primary source of ATP during endurance activities such as a marathon.
422
Muscle 1. In the aerobic metabolism pathway for ATP - how long do the stores last? 2. What activity?
Skeletal Muscle Metabolism Muscle fibers depend on ATP to produce force. There are three pathways a muscle fiber uses to make ATP. 1. Creatine phosphate converts ADP to ATP in a single, fast reaction. As a result, 4 moles of ATP are produced per minute from creatine phosphate. However, the stores of creatine phosphate are limited so they are used up in the first 10 seconds of intense exercise. Creatine phosphate is the primary source of ATP during a short, high intensity activity such as the 100 meter dash. 2. Anaerobic metabolism burns glucose as well as the large stores of muscle glycogen (a glucose polymer) to produce lactic acid and ATP in the absence of oxygen. Since only glycolysis is used, 2.5 moles of ATP can be produced per minute. Anaerobic metabolism is used during the first 1.5 minutes of high intensity activity and is the primary source of ATP for the 400 meter dash. 3. Aerobic metabolism uses glycogen, blood glucose, or fatty acids to produce ATP, CO2, and water in the presence of oxygen. Only 1 mole of ATP is made per minute but the available fuel sources are **limited only in extreme circumstances**. Aerobic metabolism is the primary source of ATP during endurance activities such as a **marathon**.
423
Muscle Skeletal muscle fibers are classified by the speed of their myosin ATPase and preferred metabolism 1. Name them
Skeletal muscle fibers are classified into one of three types distinguished by the speed of their myosin ATPase and preferred metabolism: * *fast, glycolytic fibers** fatigue quickly * *fast, oxidative, glycolytic fibers** resist fatigue * *slow, oxidative fibers** resist fatigue Fast fibers undergo cross-bridge cycling about 4 times faster than slow fibers. Oxidative fibers contain lots of mitochondria for aerobic metabolism during tasks that require endurance. Glycolytic fibers use only small amounts of oxygen and are larger in diameter than oxidative fibers. As a result of their larger diameter, each glycolytic fiber can produce more tension than an oxidative fiber. Most skeletal muscles include all three fiber types. However, each motor unit contains only a single type of muscle fiber. Motor units containing slow, oxidative fibers contain fewer fibers than motor units containing fast fibers. Recruitment is the process of activating different types of muscle fibers within a fascicle in response to need. Recruitment starts with slow, oxidative fibers that do not provide a lot of force but can provide fine muscle control. If more tension is needed, fast-oxidative-glycolytic fibers can be recruited. Finally, fast, glycolytic fibers that fatigue rapidly increase tension the most dramatically are recruited.
424
Muscle Skeletal muscle fibers are classified by the speed of their myosin ATPase and preferred metabolism Recruitment is the process of activating different types of muscle fibers within a fascicle in response to need. 1. What is the order of recruitment?
Skeletal muscle fibers are classified into one of three types distinguished by the speed of their myosin ATPase and preferred metabolism: * *fast, glycolytic fibers** fatigue quickly * *fast, oxidative, glycolytic fibers** resist fatigue * *slow, oxidative fibers** resist fatigue Recruitment is the process of activating different types of muscle fibers within a fascicle in response to need. Recruitment **starts with slow, oxidative fibers** that do not provide a lot of force but can provide fine muscle control. **If more tension is needed, fast-oxidative-glycolytic fibers can be recruited**. **Finally, fast, glycolytic fibers** that fatigue rapidly increase tension the most dramatically are recruited.
425
Muscle Which of the following occurs during muscle contraction? A. the A bands get shorter B. the I bands get shorter C. the Z lines get closer together D. the Z lines get farther apart A and C B and C
B and C
426
A mutation in a muscle that prevents the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca+2-ATPase pump from functioning would disrupt which of the following steps? action potentials traveling down the T tubules cytosolic calcium increasing when the muscle was stimulated myosin binding to actin relaxation
relaxation
427
Relate wavelength of light to frequency
λ = c / f
428
What is the photoelectric effect?
Light (of appropriate intensity and frequency) incident upon a metal ejects a photoelectron [padlet](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/oqqr8a6oa1vs)
429
Muscle 1. What is excitation-contraction coupling?
E-C coupling ([excitation-contraction coupling](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/coz0oorilmez)) (Figure 44) refers to the electrical events which trigger a contraction. Each skeletal muscle is innervated by an alpha motor neuron. An action potential arriving at the neuromuscular junction releases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from the
430
Muscle 1. Where is Ca++ stored in skeletal muscle?
In skeletal muscle, Ca++ is stored within the cell in a **membrane bound compartment** called the **sarcoplasmic reticulum** (SR). The SR wraps around myofibrils. Ca++ is released from the SR into the cytoplasm in response to an electrical signal (action potential). The action potential opens a voltage gated channel in the T tubule (invagination of the plasma membrane) which is adjacent to the SR (Figure 44). This voltage gated channel is called the dihydropyridine receptor. Activation of the dihydropyridine receptor in turn opens a Ca++ channel (ryanodine receptor) on the SR and Ca++ enters the cytoplasm (Figure 44). Ca++ is taken back up into the SR from the cytoplasm by the SR CaATPase.
431
Neuron 1. What is the magnitude of the charge difference between the inside and outside of the cell is referred to as? 2. What determines the charge difference between the inside and outside of a cell?
Equilibrium potentials Due to the concentration gradient of ions across the plasma membrane of cells, the intracellular fluid has a small excess of negative charge compared to the extracellular fluid. The separation of charge has the potential to do work. As a result, the magnitude of the charge difference between the inside and outside of the cell is referred to as the **membrane potential and measured in millivolts**. If there is an excess of negative charges on the inside of the cell, the membrane potential is negative. If the excess charge on the inside of the cell is positive, the membrane potential is positive. The **membrane potential** of a cell under specific conditions is determined by the **concentration of ions inside and outside of the cell** and by the **permeability of the membrane for those ions**
432
Neuron 1. Terms for changes in membrane potential - draw diagram
433
Neurons 1. Transport proteins important for establishing resting membrane potential - draw diagram
434
1. In what form is most CO2 in blood? 2. Write the equation
1. Bicarbonate ion 2. Carbonic acid which dissociates into bicarbonate and proton
435
Consider the following pulmonary function test data from a patient with pulmonary fibrosis in answering the question below. Predicted Observed %Predicted Vital Capacity (Liters) 4.1 1.4 34 Expiratory Reserve Volume (Liters) 1.4 0.2 14 Residual Lung Volume (Liters) 2.3 1.2 52 Total Lung Capacity (Liters) 6.4 2.6 41 Tidal Volume (Liters) 0.6 Anatomic Dead Space (Liters) 0.14 For this patient, the functional residual capacity (FRC) would be closest to: A. 2.4 Liters B. 1.4 Liters C. 2.8 Liters D. 1.2 Liters
B. 1.4 Liters
436
Consider the following pulmonary function test data from a patient with pulmonary fibrosis in answering the question below. Frequency (f) 18 breaths/min Pulmonary Diffusing Capacity (ml/min per mmHg) predicted 14.1 observed 8.6 62% Arterial Blood Gases: PO2 = 50 mm Hg PCO2 = 49 mm Hg 1. a likely reason for the lower than normal diffusing capacity is which of the following? A. increased surface area of the alveolar-capillary membrane B. increased driving pressure gradient for diffusion of oxygen C. increased thickness of the alveolar capillary membrane D. decreased diffusion constant for CO2
C. increased thickness of the alveolar capillary membrane
437
If Jane’s tidal volume is 0.6 L, the anatomic dead space is 0.14 L, and the respiratory rate is 18 breaths/ min, then estimated alveolar ventilation would be closest to: A. 8.28 Liters/min B. 10.8 Liters/min C. 2.80 Liters/min D. 5.10 Liters/min
A. 8.28 Liters/min
438
Fibrosis patients often have a functional residual capacity that is smaller than normal because: A. The diameter of their airways is greater than normal B. The compliance of the lung is decreased C. The compliance of the chest wall is decreased D. The total lung capacity is greater than normal E. The elastic recoil of the lungs is decreased
B. The compliance of the lung is decreased
439
In a patient diagnosed with emphysema, the: A. lung elastic recoil is greater than normal due to damage of elastic fibers. B. functional residual capacity is greater than normal due to increased lung compliance. C. airway compression during forced expiration is less than normal because pleural pressure decreases more than it does in a normal individual. D. total lung capacity is less than normal due to increased lung compliance.
B. functional residual capacity is greater than normal due to increased lung compliance.
440
If a person is stabbed with a knife and air enters the intrapleural space (pneumothorax), the most likely response would be for the: A. lung to expand outward and the chest wall to spring inward B. lung to expand outward and the chest wall to spring outward C. lung to collapse inward and the chest wall to collapse inward D. lung to collapse inward and the chest wall to spring outward
D. lung to collapse inward and the chest wall to spring outward
441
At the end of a maximal inspiration with the glottis open: A. alveolar pressure will be greater than 0. B. intrapleural pressure will be greater than atmospheric pressure. C. alveolar pressure will be equal to atmospheric pressure. D. intrapleural pressure will be equal to atmospheric pressure. E. intrapleural pressure will be greater than alveolar pressure
C. alveolar pressure will be equal to atmospheric pressure.
442
Total lung capacity is: A. measured with a spirometer. B. approximately 500 ml in an adult. C. the sum of residual volume and vital capacity. D. the sum of FRC plus tidal volume.
C. the sum of residual volume and vital capacity.
443
John is a 27 year old marathon runner. He theorizes that breathing 100% O2 should increase the amount of O2 in his blood about 5-fold because room air is 21% O2. Which of the following statements is the most accurate answer to his hypothesis? A. The amount of O2 carried by Hb will increase markedly but the amount of soluble O2 in his blood will remain the same. B. The amount of O2 carried by Hb in the blood will not rise appreciably. C. The amount of O2 carried by Hb in the blood will rise 5-fold.
B. The amount of O2 carried by Hb in the blood will not rise appreciably
444
John is almost finished with his 5 mile bike race. Relative to his baseline condition at the start of the race, the amount of O2 delivered to his leg muscles is: A. increased due to the rise in temperature and fall in pH. B. increased due to the rise in temperature and rise in pH. C. decreased due to the shortened time for equilibration across the alveolar membrane. D. decreased due to the rise in blood CO2 which displaces O2 on Hb.
A. increased due to the rise in temperature and fall in pH
445
A decrease in blood pH will _______ the rate of breathing. A. decrease B. increase C. not change
B. increase
446
Which of the following conditions leads to decreased lung compliance? A Decreased production of surfactant B Increased fibrosis C Increased fluid in the interstitial space surrounding the alveoli (edema) A, B and C
A, B and C
447
Alveoli are less compliant at: Low lung volume High lung volume Functional residual capacity (FRC)
High lung volume
448
ake is floating on the surface of a lake and breathing through a snorkel. Does he need to increase his tidal volume to keep his alveolar ventilation normal? Yes. No
Yes
449
When is PAO2 highest in the lung? end of expiration end of inspiration mid expiration mid inspiration
end of inspiration
450
An increase in tissue PCO2 will cause vasoconstriction in: A arterioles that perfuse the lung alveoli B arterioles that perfuse skeletal muscle C arterioles perfuse lung alveoli and skeletal muscle D veins only
A arterioles that perfuse the lung alveoli
451
Predict the O2 binding curve for fetal Hb relative to adult Hb? A right shifted indicating higher affinity for O2 B left shifted indicating higher affinity for O2 C right shifted indicating lower affinity for O2 D left shifted indicating lower affinity for O2 E identical to adult Hb
B left shifted indicating higher affinity for O2
452
Nancy arrived at the emergency room in a coma. You suspect a drug overdose which has depressed her rate and depth of breathing. As a consequence you expect her PaCO2 level to be: A increased B decreased C normal
A increased
453
A decrease in blood pH will _________ the rate of breathing. increase decrease not change
increase
454
At the first half mile of a marathon run you would expect which of the following? A PaCO2 to decrease but no change in PaO2. B PaCO2 and PaO2 to show little or no change from resting values. C PaCO2 to increase and PaO2 to decrease. D PaCO2 and PaO2 to decrease markedly.
B PaCO2 and PaO2 to show little or no change from resting values.
455
In the last half mile of a marathon run, you would expect which of the following? A PaCO2 to increase B PaCO2 to decrease C PaCO2 to remain 40 mmHg
B PaCO2 to decrease
456
457
1. What is the difference between heat capacity and specific heat? 2. What are their units?
[padlet](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/m81s0oga0rtp)
458
Two functional groups containing sulfur
[Sulfide](https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1BJ2kdjusZqnTeGS627uXN_9zgGdSW2Edye9oP8oEgi0/edit#gid=1870605008) R-S-R [Thiol R-SH](https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1BJ2kdjusZqnTeGS627uXN_9zgGdSW2Edye9oP8oEgi0/edit#gid=844983111)
459
Two functional groups containing Halogens
[Alkyl Halide](https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1BJ2kdjusZqnTeGS627uXN_9zgGdSW2Edye9oP8oEgi0/edit#gid=1351463628) R-X [Acyl halide](https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1BJ2kdjusZqnTeGS627uXN_9zgGdSW2Edye9oP8oEgi0/edit#gid=876923948) sim ketone
460
Six functional groups containing Nitrogen
Amine Nitro Nitrile Imine Amide Enamine [google doc for functional groups](https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1BJ2kdjusZqnTeGS627uXN_9zgGdSW2Edye9oP8oEgi0/edit#gid=1298515092)
461
Le Chatellier 1. When volume is **increased** in a gas reaction - which side of the reaction is favoured?
[padlet](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/m81s0oga0rtp) 1. The side with more moles of gas
462
Le Chatellier 1. When the temperature is **increased** in an **exothermic** reaction - which side of the reaction is favoured?
[padlet](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/m81s0oga0rtp) 1. Reactants
463
Le Chatellier 1. What effect does adding an inert gas to a gas reaction have?
[padlet](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/m81s0oga0rtp) 1. None - doesn't change the partial pressures of the reactants and products so is not a disturbance
464
Carbon double bonds 1. A C=C bond is a **..?...?...?..** in a molecule. It should be the site of a lot of **.?...?.**.
1. A C=C bond is a **reaction hot spot** in a molecule. It should be the site of a lot of **chemical action**
465
nucleophilic substitution A nucleophile is an **..?..** rich species that will react with an electron **..?..** species A substitution implies that one group **..?..** another.
What does the term "nucleophilic substitution" imply ? A nucleophile is an **electron** rich species that will react with an **electron** poor species A substitution implies that one group **replaces** another. Nucleophilic substitution reactions occur when an electron rich species, the nucleophile, reacts at an electrophilic saturated C atom attached to an electronegative group (important), the leaving group The electrophilic C can be recognised by looking for the polar σ bond due to the presence of an electronegative substituent (esp. C-Cl, C-Br, C-I and C-O) Nucleophilic substitution reactions are an important class of reactions that allow the interconversion of functional groups. Of particular importance are the reactions of alkyl halides (R-X) and alcohols (R-OH) For alcohols, the range of substitution reactions possible can be increased by utilising the tosylates (R-OTs), an alternative method of converting the -OH to a better leaving group.
466
nucleophilic substitution 1. What are the **three conditions** for Nucleophilic substitution reactions to occur?
What does the term "nucleophilic substitution" imply ? A nucleophile is an electron rich species that will react with an electron poor species
A substitution implies that one group replaces another.
Nucleophilic substitution reactions occur when an **electron rich species, the nucleophile**, reacts at an **electrophilic saturated C atom** attached to an **electronegative** group (important), the **leaving** group The electrophilic C can be recognised by looking for the polar σ bond due to the presence of an electronegative substituent (esp. C-Cl, C-Br, C-I and C-O) Nucleophilic substitution reactions are an important class of reactions that allow the interconversion of functional groups. Of particular importance are the reactions of alkyl halides (R-X) and alcohols (R-OH) For alcohols, the range of substitution reactions possible can be increased by utilising the tosylates (R-OTs), an alternative method of converting the -OH to a better leaving group.
467
nucleophilic substitution 1. How can an **electrophilic saturated C atom** can be recognised?
What does the term "nucleophilic substitution" imply ? A nucleophile is an electron rich species that will react with an electron poor species
A substitution implies that one group replaces another.
Nucleophilic substitution reactions occur when an electron rich species, the nucleophile, reacts at an electrophilic saturated C atom attached to an electronegative group (important), the leaving group The electrophilic C can be recognised by looking for the **polar σ bond** due to the presence of an **electronegative** substituent (esp. C-Cl, C-Br, C-I and C-O) Nucleophilic substitution reactions are an important class of reactions that allow the interconversion of functional groups. Of particular importance are the reactions of alkyl halides (R-X) and alcohols (R-OH) For alcohols, the range of substitution reactions possible can be increased by utilising the tosylates (R-OTs), an alternative method of converting the -OH to a better leaving group.
468
nucleophilic substitution 1. Nucleophilic substitution reactions are an important class of reactions that allow the ..?.. of functional groups
What does the term "nucleophilic substitution" imply ? Nucleophilic substitution reactions are an important class of reactions that allow the **interconversion** of **functional groups**. Of particular importance are the reactions of alkyl halides (R-X) and alcohols (R-OH) For alcohols, the range of substitution reactions possible can be increased by utilising the tosylates (R-OTs), an alternative method of converting the -OH to a better leaving group.
469
nucleophilic substitution Nucleophilic substitution reactions are an important class of reactions that allow the interconversion of functional groups. 1. Of particular importance are the reactions of **..?....?..** and .**.?..**
What does the term "nucleophilic substitution" imply ? Of particular importance are the reactions of **alkyl halides (R-X)** and alcohols **(R-OH)** For alcohols, the range of substitution reactions possible can be increased by utilising the tosylates (R-OTs), an alternative method of converting the -OH to a better leaving group.
470
Some smooth muscle exhibits spontaneous contractile activity in the absence of either nerve or hormonal stimuli. 1. Where in the body for example?
Some smooth muscle exhibits [spontaneous contractile activity](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/4ova3k99hh1l)in the absence of either nerve or hormonal stimuli. The plasma membranes of these fibers do not maintain a stable resting membrane potential. Instead the resting membrane potential gradually drifts towards threshold where it triggers an action potential (Figure 49). Following repolarization the membrane again begins to depolarize. This is property is called pacemaker activity. ## Footnote **Pacemakers are found within the GI tract.**
471
What are the differences between MULTI-UNIT smooth muscle fibers and SINGLE UNIT smooth muscle fibers
SINGLE VERSUS MULTI-UNIT FIBERS Smooth muscle fibers do not have a specific neuro-muscular junction. Instead as the autonomic nerve nears a bundle of smooth muscle, it divides into many branches each containing a series of swellings (called varicosities) filled with vesicles of neurotransmitters. **MULTI-UNIT smooth muscle** fibers are innervated independently. The fibers are not connected by gap junctions. Depolarization of one fiber is followed by contraction of that fiber only. These fibers are richly innervated by the autonomic nervous system. Nervous stimuli and hormones cause contraction (or relaxation) of these fibers, not stretch. The smooth muscle of the lung airways, in the walls of large arteries, and attached to the hair of the skin are multi-unit fibers. **SINGLE UNIT smooth muscle** fibers are connected by gap junctions. Depolarization of one fiber triggers synchronous depolarization throughout the bundle followed by contraction of the fiber bundle. That is, many fibers act as one sheet. Single unit fibers are found in the walls of small blood vessels, the GI tract, and uterus where stretching of one fiber creates a coordinated contraction
472
In smooth muscle does Ca++ regulate the thick filament or the thin filament?
In smooth muscle, coupling between the membrane action potentials and contraction is mediated by calcium ions (Ca++). Calcium regulates the **thick filament (myosin)** to enable cross bridge formation and contraction.
473
Draw cardiac muscle cell(s )
[cardiac muscle cell](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/djz4ork23k1n)
474
How many of the cardiac muscle cells are conducting (the intrinsic pacemakers)?
CONDUCTING cardiac muscle cells **are ~ 1% of the cardiac** muscle cells. These are large diameter cells that do not produce tension, instead they are specialized for excitation. They constitute a network in the heart known as a conduction system. They are connected to the contractile cells by gap junctions. The conducting fibers are filled mostly with glycogen and have few myofilaments. These cells are the intrinsic pacemakers. We will deal with their action potentials in the next lecture.
475
What sort of muscle fibres are the contractile cardiac muscle cells?
CONTRACTILE cardiac muscle cells are **slow oxidative muscle fibers**. These fibers form the walls of the heart, shorten and produce tension. They use glucose and fatty acids as substrates.
476
Acid-base 1. Derive the Henderson-Hasselbalch approximation starting with a buffer solution HA H+ + A¯ pH = pKa + log ([A−] / [HA])
The Henderson-Hasselbalch approximation allows us one method to approximate the pH of a buffer solution pH = pKa + log ([A−] / [HA]) HA is the acid, A- is the conjugate base [padlet](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/i21vv5axnfrq) [derivation](http://www.chemteam.info/AcidBase/HH-Equation.html)
477
Acid-base 1. What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch approximation used for? 2. Write the equation
The Henderson-Hasselbalch approximation allows us one method to approximate the pH of a buffer solution pH = pKa + log ([A−] / [HA]) HA is the acid, A- is the conjugate base [padlet](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/i21vv5axnfrq) [derivation](http://www.chemteam.info/AcidBase/HH-Equation.html)
478
Cardiac muscle 1. In cardiac muscle the action potential activates the C++ gates in the ???
ELECTRICAL – CONTRACTION (E-C) COUPLING As in skeletal muscle, contraction in cardiac muscle is dependent on the entry of _Ca++ from the **T tubule** (Figure 51)._ Depolarization of the T tubule membrane opens the voltage gated Ca++ channels (dihydropyridine receptor), permitting the entry of a small amount of Ca++. This Ca++ opens the Ca++ gated Ca++ channel (ryanodine receptor) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) thereby releasing a lot of Ca++ into the cytoplasm. In turn, Ca++ binds to troponin which unmasks the actin (thin filament), cross bridges form, and shortening occurs. With repolarization of the T tubule membrane, no further Ca++ enters the cells and the SR CaATPase removes Ca++ from the cytoplasm. This removal of Ca++ ends the contractile cycle and the muscle relaxes
479
Cardiac muscle 1. Describe the three steps in the ELECTRICAL – CONTRACTION (E-C) COUPLING in cardiac muscle
[ELECTRICAL – CONTRACTION (E-C) COUPLING](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/djz4ork23k1n) As in skeletal muscle, contraction in cardiac muscle is dependent on the entry of Ca++ from the T tubule (Figure 51). 1. Depolarization of the T tubule membrane opens the voltage gated Ca++ channels (dihydropyridine receptor), permitting the entry of a small amount of Ca++. 2. This Ca++ opens the Ca++ gated Ca++ channel (ryanodine receptor) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) thereby releasing a lot of Ca++ into the cytoplasm. 3. In turn, Ca++ binds to troponin which unmasks the actin (thin filament), cross bridges form, and shortening occurs. With repolarization of the T tubule membrane, no further Ca++ enters the cells and the SR CaATPase removes Ca++ from the cytoplasm. This removal of Ca++ ends the contractile cycle and the muscle relaxes
480
Describe the phases of ACTION POTENTIAL OF CONTRACTILE CARDIAC CELLS (0-4)
[ACTION POTENTIAL OF CONTRACTILE CARDIAC CELLS](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/djz4ork23k1n) The action potential of the contractile cardiac muscle fiber (Figure 52) is longer in duration (200-220 msec) than that seen in skeletal muscle (2 msec). In cardiac cells there are four phases to the action potential. Phase 0, voltage gated Na+ channels open. Phase 1, voltage gated Na+ channels inactivate and voltage gated K+ channels open. Phase 2 (plateau), voltage gated Ca++ channels open and voltage gated K+ channels remain open. Phase 3, only voltage gated K+ channels are open and cells repolarize. Phase 4, all of the voltage gated channels are closed and the resting membrane potential is restored by the Na/K ATPase. Note that the entry of Ca++ in phase 2 is essential for initiating contraction and triggering the opening of the Ca++ gated Ca++ release channel (ryanodine receptor). One other point, each action potential results in one contraction. One contraction (twitch) is ~250 msec, almost the same duration as the action potential (200 msec). This is due to the prolonged plateau phase 2.
481
Cardiac muscle 1. What is the absolute refractory period of cardiac muscle? 2. How long does the action potential last? 3. How long is a single contraction? 4. What are the implications for tetanus of the heart muscle?
[REFRACTORY PERIOD AND ABSENCE OF TETANUS](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/djz4ork23k1n) Absolute refractory period of the cardiac muscle action potential refers to the time interval when the voltage gated sodium channels are inactivated. **The absolute refractory period lasts ~180 msec.** **The action potential lasts 200-220 msec.** **A single contraction is 250 msec.** Recall that these voltage gated Na+ channels must undergo a conformational change from an “inactivated” state to a “closed” state before they can reopen and initiate another action potential. As a consequence of phase 2, the voltage gated Na+ channels remain “inactivated” for an extended period of time and do not “close” until repolarization in phase 3 (~180 msec). No amount of stimulus can cause an action potential during the absolute refractory period. An important point regarding the refractory period is that contractions cannot sum and therefore **there is no fused tetanus (summed contractions).** Fused tetanus in the heart would lead to death as it would prevent the rhythmic pumping of blood.
482
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would the first twitch differ? the twitch would last longer the twitch would be shorter the twitch would last the same amount of time the twitch would produce more tension
the twitch would be shorter the SR Ca+2-ATPase pumps Ca++ back into the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
483
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would contraction differ after multiple and frequent action potentials? A the maximal tension would be increased compared to an untreated fiber B fused tetanus would be reached in the same amount of time as an untreated fiber C fused tetanus would be reached later than an untreated fiber D fused tetanus would be reached sooner than an untreated fiber
C fused tetanus would be reached later than an untreated fiber the SR Ca+2-ATPase pumps Ca++ back into the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
484
Which of the following is the typical order of motor unit recruitment? A slow-oxidative, fast-glycolytic, fast-oxidative B slow-oxidative, fast-oxidative, fast-glycolytic C fast-oxidative, slow-oxidative, fast-glycolytic D fast-glycolytic, fast-oxidative, slow-oxidative
B slow-oxidative, fast-oxidative, fast-glycolytic Skeletal muscle fibers are classified into one of three types distinguished by the speed of their myosin ATPase and preferred metabolism: fast, glycolytic fibers fatigue quickly fast, oxidative, glycolytic fibers resist fatigue slow, oxidative fibers resist fatigue Recruitment is the process of activating different types of muscle fibers within a fascicle in response to need. Recruitment starts with slow, oxidative fibers that do not provide a lot of force but can provide fine muscle control. If more tension is needed, fast-oxidative-glycolytic fibers can be recruited. Finally, fast, glycolytic fibers that fatigue rapidly increase tension the most dramatically are recruited.
485
Which of the following types of muscles have sufficient numbers of gap junctions between fibers to propagate action potentials between cells? A both cardiac muscle and single-unit smooth muscle B cardiac muscle only C multi-unit smooth muscle only D both cardiac muscle and multi-unit smooth muscle E single-unit smooth muscle only
A both cardiac muscle and single-unit smooth muscle
486
Smooth muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in that smooth muscle does **NOT** contain: troponin–tropomyosin complexes myosin ATPase activity dense bodies thin filaments
troponin–tropomyosin complexes
487
In smooth muscle cells, a pacemaker potential differs from a graded potential because pacemaker potentials: activate with the efflux of Na+ vary in size always reach threshold activate with the influx (entry) of Cl-
[always reach threshold](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/4ova3k99hh1l)
488
Angular momentum 1. in terms of mass and velocity L = 2. In terms of linear momentum L = 3. In terms of angular velocity L =
L = m v r (v is tangential to r) L = ρ r (ρ is tangential to r) L = m ω r2
489
Draw the four graphs showing results of the photoelectric effect
[four graphs showing results of the photoelectric effect](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/oqqr8a6oa1vs)
490
1. What is the Rydberg equation 1/λ = 2. What is it used for?
[Rydberg equation](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/oqqr8a6oa1vs) 2. Photoelectric effect / emission spectra
491
Heart Electrical Activity Tom, an 80 yr old male, presents to his physician with a resting heart rate of 35 bpm. 1. You classify his heart rate as: A. Normal B. Bradycardia C. Tachycardia 2. His pacemaker is most likely located at the: A. Sinoatrial node B. Atrial-ventricular node C. His Bundle-Purkinje
Answer 1: B. Bradycardia Answer 2: C. His Bundle-Purkinje
492
1. The valves of the heart open and close in response to: A. active contraction of the papillary muscles B. pressure differences between the heart chambers C. shortening of the tendons within the ventricle D. autonomic nervous stimulation
1. B pressure differences between the heart chambers
493
If Jim has a cardiac output of 3 L per min at a resting heart rate of 30 bpm. If his heart rate increases to 90 bpm but his cardiac output remains the same what happens to his stroke volume? A. His stroke volume increases by a factor of 3 B. His stroke volume decreases to 33 ml C. His stroke volume remains unchanged
B. His stroke volume decreases to 33 ml
494
Cardiac Performance Consider the Pressure-Volume (PV) Loop below. The black PV loop (designated by ABCD) depicts the Left Ventricle of a normal heart. 1. The red PV loop depicts the LV of a heart with: A. decreased systemic pressure (after load) B. increased systemic pressure (after load)
Answer 1: B. increased systemic pressure (after load)
495
Cardiac Performance Consider the Pressure-Volume (PV) Loop below. The black PV loop (designated by ABCD) depicts the Left Ventricle of a normal heart. 2. What occurs at C and G? A. AV valve closes B. aortic valve opens C. AV valve opens D. aortic valve closes
Answer 2: B. aortic valve opens
496
Cardiac Performance Consider the Pressure-Volume (PV) Loop below. The black PV loop (designated by ABCD) depicts the Left Ventricle of a normal heart. 3. What occurs at D and H? A. AV valve closes B. aortic valve opens C. AV valve opens D. aortic valve closes
Answer 3: D. aortic valve closes
497
Cardiac Performance Consider the Pressure-Volume (PV) Loop below. The black PV loop (designated by ABCD) depicts the Left Ventricle of a normal heart. 4. Are the stroke volumes (SV) for these two hearts equal? A. Yes, each is 60 mls B. No, red loop SV is 150 ml; black loop SV is 120 mls. C. No, red loop SV is 90 mls; black loop SV is 60 mls
Answer 4: A. Yes, each is 60 mls
498
Cardiac Performance Consider the Pressure-Volume (PV) Loop below. The black PV loop (designated by ABCD) depicts the Left Ventricle of a normal heart. 5. Are the ejection fractions of these two hearts equal? A. Yes, each is 50% B. No. Black loop EJ = 60/120 x 100 = 50%; Red loop EJ = 60/150 x 100 = 40%
Answer 5: B. No. Black loop EJ = 60/120 x 100 = 50%; Red loop EJ = 60/150 x 100 = 40%
499
The Circulatory System 1. If blood flow to an arm is obstructed for more than 30 seconds while taking a blood pressure, then release of the cuf will be followed by a temporary rise in blood flow and a return to resting levels. The higher blood flow is caused by \_\_\_. A. an increase in total peripheral resistance (TPR). B. a temporary increase in mean arterial pressure. C. local vasodilation due to the build up of metabolites. D. shifting blood flow from other organs.
Answer 1: C. local vasodilation due to the build up of metabolites.
500
The Circulatory System 2. In advanced atherosclerosis, calcified plaques cause the normally muscular arteries to become narrow. What happens to resistance in these vessels? A. Resistance increases B. Resistance decreases C. Resistance remains unchanged
Answer 2: A. Resistance increases
501
The Circulatory System 3. If advanced atherosclerosis, calcified plaques cause the normally muscular arteries to become narrow. If cardiac output remains unchanged, what happens to MAP? A. MAP increases B. MAP decreases C. MAP remains unchanged
Answer 3: A. MAP increases
502
The Circulatory System 4. If MAP increases in an eighty year old male, what happens to afterload? A. Afterload is increased B. After load is decreased C. After load is unchanged?
Answer 4: A. Afterload is increased Afterload is the pressure against which the heart must work to eject blood during systole (systolic pressure). The lower the afterload, the more blood the heart will eject with each contraction. Like contractility, changes in afterload will raise or lower the Starling curve relating stroke volume index to LAP. The effect of afterload on stroke colume is due to the fact that the maximum pressure that the heart can develop is smaller at lower ventricular volumes. Therefore, if the systolic pressure is lower, the heart will be able to contract to a smaller volume at the end of systole. This will result in an improved stroke volume. Conversely, if the systolic pressure is higher, the heart will be unable to contract to as small a vollume at the end of systole and the stroke volume index will be decreased.
503
1. Mary rose quickly from her bed to answer the door. This change in body position resulted in: A. Increased dilation of peripheral blood vessels B. Decreased firing of the carotid baroreceptors C. Increased parasympathetic stimulation of the SA node D. Unchanged venous return
Answer 1: B. Decreased firing of the carotid baroreceptors
504
2. Total peripheral resistance decreases in a runner during strenuous exercise due to: A. increased parasympathetic nervous stimulation of the working skeletal muscle B. increased vasoconstriction of the large veins of the body C. increased metabolites in the IS surrounding the muscle
Answer 2: C. increased metabolites in the IS surrounding the muscle
505
3. If two liters of blood are lost from the body, arterial hypotension occurs. This can lead to the movement of fluid from the tissues into the capillaries in response to: A. Higher capillary hydrostatic pressure B. Lower capillary hydrostatic pressure C. Higher capillary oncotic pressure D. Lower capillary oncotic pressure
Answer 3: B. Lower capillary hydrostatic pressure
506
4. Does MAP (increase, decrease or remain unchanged) during anaerobic exercise such as weight lifting? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains unchanged
Answer 4: A. Increases
507
Capillaries are best described as: E. thin walled vessels which carry blood deficient in oxygen. C. thin walled vessels which convey blood toward the heart. A. thin walled vessels which permit exchange of materials between blood and interstitial fluid. B. thick walled vessels which convey blood away from the heart. D. thick walled vessels which carry blood rich in oxygen.
A. thin walled vessels which permit exchange of materials between blood and interstitial fluid. Well done!
508
2. Valves are found: A. in the heart B. in the veins C. in the arteries D. A and B E. A, B and C
D. A and B Well done!
509
3. The driving force of blood flow is a(n) __________ gradient. B. volume A. osmotic D. gravity C. pressure
C. pressure Well done!
510
4. Vascular resistance is related to the: B. diameter of a blood vessel D. viscosity of the blood A. length of a blood vessel C. nature of the blood flow (turbulent vs lamellar) E. A, B, C, and D
E. A, B, C, and D Well done!
511
5. Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue EXCEPT: B. decreased vessel diameter A. increased blood volume D. decreased peripheral resistance C. increased blood pressure
B. decreased vessel diameter Well done!
512
6. As blood vessel length increases: A. resistance increases B. flow decreases C. friction decreases D. A and B E. A, B and C
D. A and B Well done!
513
7. The steep repolarization of phase 3 of the cardiac contractile cell’s action potential is due to which ion(s)? A. Ca2+ B. K+ C. Na+ E. A and C D. A and B
B. K+ Well done!
514
8. Phase 2 (plateau) of the cardiac contractile cell action potential is due to a combination of: D. Ca++ influx and K+ efflux A. Na+ efflux and K+ influx B. Na+ influx and Ca++ influx C. Ca++ efflux and K+ influx
D. Ca++ influx and K+ efflux Well done!
515
9. The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the: A. end-diastolic volume E. cardiac reserve C. stroke volume B. end-systolic volume D. cardiac output
C. stroke volume Well done!
516
10. Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output EXCEPT: B. Increased parasympathetic stimulation D. Increased heart rate C. Increased sympathetic stimulation A. Increased venous return
B. Increased parasympathetic stimulation Well done!
517
11. Each of the following conditions would increase the heart rate EXCEPT: D. increased permeability of the myocardial membrane to sodium ion B. increased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers C. increased levels of epinephrine in the interstitial fluid surrounding the myocardium A. increased sympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers
B. increased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers Well done!
518
12. Ventricular contraction begins just after ___ begins. B. QRS complex A. P wave E. ST segment C. T Wave D. PR segment
B. QRS complex Well done!
519
13. Ventricular repolarization occurs during: D. PR segment A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T Wave E. ST segment
C. T Wave Well done!
520
14. Atrial depolarization occurs during: A. P wave D. PR segment B. QRS complex E. ST segment C. T Wave
A. P wave Well done!
521
15. If the blood pressure doubled at the same time that the peripheral resistance were doubled, the blood flow through a vessel would be: C. 16 times greater D. 1/16 as much B. halved A. doubled E. unchanged
E. unchanged Well done!
522
16. Abnormally slow conduction through the ventricles would change the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in an EKG. B. T wave A. P wave C. QRS complex D. B and C
D. B and C Well done!
523
17. The main site of variable resistance in the systemic circulation, contributing more than 60% of the total resistance are: E. veins A. muscular arteries B. elastic arteries D. venules C. arterioles
C. arterioles Well done!
524
18. When a person rises quickly from a prone position: D. heart rate decreases A. the carotid baroreceptors become more active B. venous return is unchanged C. reflex vasoconstriction of the peripheral blood vessels occurs
C. reflex vasoconstriction of the peripheral blood vessels occurs Well done!
525
19. Parasympathetic stimulation of the sinoatrial (SA) node will: A. hyperpolarize the pacemaker cells B. decrease the heart rate C. increase the rate of depolarization E. A and C D. A and B
D. A and B Well done!
526
20. Stretching a myocardial cell: A. decreases the force of a contraction B. allows more K+ to enter C. increases the force of contraction D. A and B E. B and C
C. increases the force of contraction Well done!
527
The impulse from the pacemaker cells flows in a unidirectional manner throughout the heart via specialized conducting tissue (Figure 55) and into the heart muscle. 1. Draw and identify the tissues and the order
[padlet-electrical conduction in the heart](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/gpf807lxm9f9)
528
1. Draw membrane potential vs time for pacemaker cells 2. Describe the flow of ions at each stage
[Pacemaker cells](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/gpf807lxm9f9) have the unique property of being able to generate action potentials spontaneously (i.e. without input from the nervous system). They can generate an action potential because their resting membrane potential (- 60mV) is unstable. This potential exists because the pacemaker cells have unusual channels that are permeable to both Na + and K+. These channels are called If channels. The "f" is derived from the fact that they were originally called "funny" channels because the If channels are Na+ channels with unusual properties. When the If channels opens, the influx of Na+ exceeds the efflux of K + and the net influx of positive charges slowly depolarizes the cell. As the membrane potential becomes more positive, the If channels close and the Ca++ channels open transiently, which further depolarize the cell. When the threshold potential is reached, a burst of Ca++ channels open, more Ca++ rushes in, and a steep phase of depolarization (Phase2) occurs (Figure 56). At the peak of the action potential, K+ channels open, K+ rushes out of the cell and the cell repolarizes
529
1. What unusual ion channels do pacemaker cells in the heart have? 2. What are they called?
[Pacemaker cells](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/gpf807lxm9f9) have the unique property of being able to generate action potentials spontaneously (i.e. without input from the nervous system). They can generate an action potential because their resting membrane potential (- 60mV) is unstable. This potential exists because the pacemaker cells have **unusual channels that are permeable to both Na + and K+**. These channels are **called If channels**. The "f" is derived from the fact that they were originally called "funny" channels because the If channels are Na+ channels with unusual properties. When the If channels opens, the influx of Na+ exceeds the efflux of K + and the net influx of positive charges slowly depolarizes the cell. As the membrane potential becomes more positive, the If channels close and the Ca++ channels open transiently, which further depolarize the cell. When the threshold potential is reached, a burst of Ca++ channels open, more Ca++ rushes in, and a steep phase of depolarization (Phase2) occurs (Figure 56). At the peak of the action potential, K+ channels open, K+ rushes out of the cell and the cell repolarizes
530
In normal hearts which of the several pacemakers available sets the pace?
The pacemaker cells set the rate of the heartbeat. They are anatomically distinct from the contractile cells because they have no organized sarcomeres and therefore do not contribute to the contractile force of the heart. There are several different pacemakers in the heart but the **sinoatrial node (SA)** is the fastest. **In normal hearts, the SA node is the pacemaker**. The other conduction tissue (AV), Bundle of His and Purkinje Fibers will take over in disease states according to their speed of depolarization (AV \> bundle of His \>Purkinje).
531
1. Which parts of the nervous system modulate heart rate? 2. How is heart rate slowed? 3. How is heart rate sped up?
HEART RATE (HR) can be modulated by **autonomic nervous stimulation**. Increased **parasympathetic** stimulation of muscarinic receptors on the heart **slows the firing of the SA node**. Parasympathetic stimulation does so by delaying the closing of K+ channels (efflux). The increased K+ efflux further hyperpolarizes the cells and slows the opening of the If channels. In contrast, **sympathetic stimulation speeds heart rate by shortening the time to threshold.** Sympathetic stimulation increases Na influx via the If channels and closes the K channels
532
How are myocardial contractile cells linked mechanically? and electrically?
MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTILE CELLS are tightly linked to one another by **intercalated discs, specialized adhesive junctions, which ensure transmission of force** from one myocardial cell to an adjacent cell. The cells also contain **gap junctions that facilitate transmission of electrical impulses** from cell to cell. Myocardial contractile cells have a resting membrane potential of approximately -85 millivolts (mV). Depolarization occurs when the permeability to sodium increases, and sodium flows into the cell (Phase 0, Figure 57). As the membrane potential reaches about +20 mV, the voltage gated sodium channels inactivate. The muscle cell begins to repolarize as K+ leaves the cell through open voltage gated K+ channels (Phase 1). At this membrane potential, voltage gated Ca++ channels open causing the action potential to flatten as the K+ efflux balances the Ca++ influx. The plateau (Phase 2) ends when Ca ++ channels close and K+ efflux exceeds Ca++ influx. In Phase 3, K+ efflux repolarizes the muscle cell. The resting membrane potential is maintained by the activity of the Na-K ATPase (Phase 4)
533
Fast action potential of cardiac contractile cell has four phases (0-4) 1. Describe each phase in terms of gates and ions
Myocardial contractile cells have a resting membrane potential of approximately -85 millivolts (mV). Depolarization occurs when the permeability to sodium increases, and sodium flows into the cell (Phase 0, Figure 57). As the membrane potential reaches about +20 mV, the voltage gated sodium channels inactivate. The muscle cell begins to repolarize as K+ leaves the cell through open voltage gated K+ channels (Phase 1). At this membrane potential, voltage gated Ca++ channels open causing the action potential to flatten as the K+ efflux balances the Ca++ influx. The plateau (Phase 2) ends when Ca ++ channels close and K+ efflux exceeds Ca++ influx. In Phase 3, K+ efflux repolarizes the muscle cell. The resting membrane potential is maintained by the activity of the Na-K ATPase (Phase 4)
534
1. What does an ECG represent in general? 2. What does each deflection represent?
An ECG recording is the **sum of all of the electrical potentials** generated by all the cells of the heart at any instance in time. Each deflection (wave) of the ECG **represents either depolarization or repolarization** of the specific parts of the heart. Because depolarization occurs before mechanical contraction, the waves of depolarization can be associated with contraction and relaxation of the atria and the ventricles. A typical ECG recording and the waves are shown below (Figure 58). The P wave corresponds to depolarization of the atria. The QRS complex corresponds to depolarization of the ventricles. The T wave corresponds to repolarization of the ventricle.
535
Draw a typical ECG, name the parts, and what they represent
An ECG recording is the sum of all of the electrical potentials generated by all the cells of the heart at any instance in time. Each deflection (wave) of the ECG represents either depolarization or repolarization of the specific parts of the heart. Because depolarization occurs before mechanical contraction, the waves of depolarization can be associated with contraction and relaxation of the atria and the ventricles. [A typical ECG recording](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/gpf807lxm9f9) and the waves are shown below (Figure 58). The P wave corresponds to depolarization of the atria. The QRS complex corresponds to depolarization of the ventricles. The T wave corresponds to repolarization of the ventricle.
536
In the heart, electrical activity (depolarization and repolarization) proceeds in a sequential manner. 1. Starts in ? 2. Moves through? Name of wave? Physical result? 3. Where next? Something happens to it? Physical result? 4. Where next?
1. Normally each heart beat starts in the pacemaker cells of the **sinoatrial (SA) node** located **in the right atria**. 2. From the SA node, the wave of depolarization moves through **both atria (P wave), resulting in atrial contraction.** 3. The impulse then passes **through the intranodal pathways** connecting the SA node with the **atrioventricular node (AV node)**. At the AV node the **impulse slows** allowing the **atria to contract before the ventricles depolarize**. 4. The impulse then passes from the AV node through specialized conducing tissue known as the Bundle of His. The Bundle of His branches (left and right) within the septum that separates the ventricles and then into the Purkinje fiber system, which carry the impulse through the ventricular walls (QRS complex). This specialized conduction system ensures that the ventricles contract in a synchronized fashion and results in a contraction that begins at the apex (tip) of the heart. This is important because blood is ejected through the valves (pulmonic and aorta) that are located at the base of the heart (at the A-V junction).
537
1. What is the stoichiometric formula for carbohydrates?
Carbohydrates can be represented by the stoichiometric formula **(CH2O)n,** where n is the number of carbons in the molecule. Therefore, the ratio of carbon to hydrogen to oxygen is 1:2:1 in carbohydrate molecules. The origin of the term “carbohydrate” is based on its components: carbon (“carbo”) and water (“hydrate”). Carbohydrates are classified into three subtypes: monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides.
538
1. Describe the flow of blood through the heart 2. And the required thickness of the walls of the various parts
The **right side of the heart has a thin muscular wall and works at low pressures**. Contraction of the right ventricle (RV) pumps blood into the pulmonary circulation (lungs) where oxygen is taken up and carbon dioxide is eliminated. The **left side of the heart has a thicker muscular wall and works at higher pressures.** Contraction of the left ventricle (LV) pumps blood into the systemic circulation for delivery to the limbs and to all of the organs. The right atrium (RA) receives blood returning from the systemic circulation; the left atrium (LA) receives blood from the lungs (Figure 59). Total amount of blood circulating is ~5 liters/ minute
539
What is the total amount of blood circulating in the body in a time interval?
The right side of the heart has a thin muscular wall and works at low pressures. Contraction of the right ventricle (RV) pumps blood into the pulmonary circulation (lungs) where oxygen is taken up and carbon dioxide is eliminated. The left side of the heart has a thicker muscular wall and works at higher pressures. Contraction of the left ventricle (LV) pumps blood into the systemic circulation for delivery to the limbs and to all of the organs. The right atrium (RA) receives blood returning from the systemic circulation; the left atrium (LA) receives blood from the lungs (Figure 59). **Total amount of blood circulating is ~5 liters/ minute**
540
1. Where does blood enter and leave the heart? 2. What implications are there for contraction?
1. Note that blood enters and leaves the ventricles at the base (A-V junction). 2. That means that the ventricles must contract from the bottom (apex) upward to expel the blood from the base
541
Draw a schematic of the heart showing flow, pumps and valves
[Four valves are embedded within the cardiac skeleton between the atria and ventricles.](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/gpf807lxm9f9) These valves respond passively to pressure gradients. The pulmonic and aortic valves open when the ventricles contract and close with relaxation. The pulmonic and aortic valves prevent back flow from the arteries into the relaxing ventricles. The AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) close once the ventricles fill. These two valves are closed during contraction of the ventricles and ejection of blood and therefore experience high pressures. To prevent the mitral and tricuspid valves from prolapse (being pushed into the atria) they are tethered to the ventricle wall via tendon like cords and the papillary muscles. The pulmonic and aortic valves do not have tendons to resist prolapse, instead they are semilunar valves (cup like in shape) which fill with blood when closed. These two valves are closed during relaxation and passive filling of the ventricles
542
Draw a Left Ventricle Pressure Volume loop for a heartbeat - indicate what is happening at each stage
[Pressure-volume loop ABCD depicts changes in left ventricle in one beat.](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/gpf807lxm9f9) The ventricle fills between A-B. Interval B-C depicts isovolumic contraction. Interval C-D depicts ejection. Interval D-A depicts isovolumic relaxation
543
1. What is cardiac output? 2. And how is it adjusted?
CARDIAC OUTPUT (CO) is the **volume of blood ejected by one ventricle in a period of time.** Cardiac output is one measure of the effectiveness of the heart as a pump. It dynamically adjusts by **changing either the heart rate or stroke volume or both**. **Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate** **CO= SV x HR** For an average resting heart rate of 70 beats per min (bpm) and a stroke volume of 70 mL per beat, the CO = ~ 5L/min. The average total volume of blood circulating in the body is ~ 5L. Therefore, each ventricle pumps all of the blood of the body through it in only one minute.
544
Heart 1. What is Ejection Fraction =
EJECTION FRACTION (EF) describes the efficiency of the heart. It is Stroke volume(SV) divided by end diastolic volume (EDV) times 100. **EF (%) = SV/ EDV x 100** During strenuous exercise, CO can increase to 30-35 L/min. What parameter (stroke volume or heart rate) limits this increase in CO? [Answer: heart rate.] As heart rate increases, the time for contraction and relaxation of the cardiac muscle shorten; the filling time limits CO.
545
Heart 1. What is preload? 2. and how is it increased?
**PRELOAD is the degree of stretch of the myocardium before contraction**. An **increase in venous return (filling) will increase preload** and thus increase the force of contraction. [Consider the P-V loop depicted in Figure 63.](http://padlet.com/davidofbuderim/gpf807lxm9f9) An increase in preload (filling) will move the EDV to the right along the X axis and increase the pressure generated (Y axis). The heart (depicted as ABCD) when filled to an EDV of 140 ml, generates a systolic pressure of 180 mmHg. The “red curved” line in Figure 63 depicts the force generated for each increase in EDV for this particular heart.
546
1. What are the four factors that increase venous return to the heart?
Four factors can increase venous return (EDV): 1. Skeletal muscle pump in which contraction of leg muscles surrounding the veins aids in returning blood to the heart. 2. Respiratory pump in which deep breathing expands the chest and decreases the intra-thoracic cavity pressure. 3. Sympathetic nervous system activation leads to greater constriction of the arterial vessels and large veins which moves the blood to the heart. 4. Increase in blood volume as in blood doping.
547
What is the electrical event on the ECG that precedes contraction of the atria?
P wave
548
What is the electrical event on the ECG that precedes ventricular diastole?
T wave
549
Ventricular repolarization in the human heart: A. begins in the atria and travels in the same direction as the depolarization wave. B. results from phase 2 of the fast action potential. C. is represented by the T wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG). D. is represented by the QRS complex on the electrocardiogram (ECG)
C. is represented by the T wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG).
550
AV valves of the heart open and close because of: nervous impulses to papillary muscles. passive recoil of valves. changes in pressure in adjacent chambers. mechanical stretching of the fibers attached to the valves as the myocardium contracts and relaxes.
changes in pressure in adjacent chambers
551
The region of the heart that normally has the highest rate of spontaneous action potentials is the: Purkinje fibers Atrioventricular (AV) node Bundle of HIS Sinoatrial (SA) node
Sinoatrial (SA) node
552
In an electrocardiogram (ECG) , the atrio-ventricular (AV) conduction time is reflected in the: P-wave duration T-wave duration QT interval PR interval
PR interval
553
Due to differences in opposing forces, there is usually a net _____ occurring at the arteriolar end of most capillaries coupled with net ___ at the venous end. absorption; filtration filtration; absorption
filtration; absorption
554
Increasing venous return increases cardiac output by: decreasing end diastolic volume increasing the stroke volume decreasing the ejection fraction increasing heart rate
increasing the stroke volume
555
Contrast the following: (i) velocity of blood flow in capillaries (ii) velocity of blood flow in aorta (ii) \> (i) (i) = or nearly = (ii) (i) \> (ii)
(ii) \> (i)
556
Joan rose quickly from her bed to answer the front doorbell. In response to rising, her baroreceptors: decreased firing had no change in their firing rate increased firing
decreased firing
557
What is the electrical event on the ECG that precedes ventricular diastole?
T wave
558
What is the electrical event on the ECG that precedes contraction of the atria?
P wave
559
What is the general method for determining molecular structure from the molecular formula? (Hint - counting electrons to give four numbers)
Available electrons = (valence electrons) Needed electrons = (to fill shells) Shared electrons = (needed - available) Bonds = (1/2 shared electrons) Draw the bonds and fill in lone pairs as required
560
Molecular geometry 1. What is an electron domain? 2. How is it used?
single bond = 1 electron domain Lone pair = 1 electron domain Double bond = 1 electron domain Triple bond = 1 electron domain 2. Electrons in a single domain cannot be separated spatially =\> bond angles
561
Periodic table 1. Name the elements 19-36
[table](http://www.ptable.com/)
562
Periodic table 1. Name the first four Halogens
[table](http://www.ptable.com/)
563
Periodic table 1. Name the first six Noble gases
[table](http://www.ptable.com/)