bacte euclid Flashcards
(321 cards)
1
Q
transfer of genetic material from donor bacterial strain to recipient strain in a form of plasmid
A
conjugation
2
Q
transfer of bacterial genes by a bacteriophage from one cell to another
A
transduction
3
Q
it refers to uptake and incorporation of naked DNA into a bacterial cell
A
transformation
4
Q
of bacterial morphology
A
4
5
Q
unit of measurement for bacteria
A
micrometer (micron)
6
Q
these are sites of respiratory activity of bacteria
A
mesosome
7
Q
unique component of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
A
lipopolysaccharide
8
Q
they grow in the absence of O2 and obtain O2 from O2-containing compounds
A
anaerobes
9
Q
term used to denote “cold-loving” bacteria
A
psychrophile/cryophile
10
Q
what media are made of extracts of meat or soybean (ex. nutrient broth, trypticase soy broth)
A
nutrient media
11
Q
proper manner of dispensing culture media (4)
A
weigh agar
dissolve agar in flask
sterilize
dispense into petri dish
12
Q
to dissolve the agar powder, pour half the volume of _ in a vessel, then the _, the pour the rest of the _
A
water, agar, water
13
Q
type of water used in preparing culture media
A
deionized or distilled water
14
Q
how to determine if an agar is completely dissolved
A
it should be clear (no particles)
15
Q
purpose of peptone in culture media
A
source of organic nitrogen
16
Q
phenylethyl alcohol is added on certain media to _
A
inhibit gram negative bacteria
17
Q
why should Thioglycolate broth be boiled for 10 mins before being used
A
to driven off oxygen
18
Q
in what broth, organisms will grow only in the part of broth where O2 concentration meets their needs
A
Thioglycolate broth
19
Q
obligate aerobes grow _ of THIO broth (O2 is 20-21%)
A
at the top
20
Q
microaerophiles grow _ of the THIO broth where the oxygen is around 5%
A
near the top
21
Q
obligate anaerobes grow _ of THIO broth (O2 is 0%)
A
at the bottom
22
Q
facultative anaerobes and _ anaerobes grow _ THIO broth
A
aerotolerant, in the entire
23
Q
it is added to culture media tubes to provide and maintain an anaerobic environment
A
mineral oil
24
Q
composition of blood agar
A
nutrient agar + 5% sheep blood
25
how is chocolate agar prepared
apply heat to blood agar to lyse RBCs
26
Thayer-Martin medium is basically an _
enriched chocolate agar
27
clear medium for mycobacteria
Middlebrook 7H10/7H11
28
component in SDA that is used as energy source
dextrose
29
to make agar selective for fungi, what should be added on the medium
antibiotics + cycloheximide
30
ideally, specimens should be transported to the laboratory within _ hours of collection
2 hours
31
suitable transport medium for bacteria and viruses
Stuart's medium
32
solidifying agent in Cary-Blair medium
agar
33
indicates that Cary-Blair medium has reached an acidic pH and cannot be used
indicator turns yellow color
34
some viruses in urine, CSF, or blood can be transported in the specimen _
itself
35
inhibitor used in mannitol salt agar
7.5% NaCl
36
purpose of reducing agent in a medium
prevents oxidation
37
function of tellurite
inhibits normal flora
38
inhibitor used in Salmonella-Shigella agar (2)
bile salts, brilliant green
39
indicator used in XLD agar
phenol red
40
H2S production, other than in TSI agar, requires an _
organic source of sulfur and a source of metal
41
most commonly used inoculation method to isolate desirable bacteria
streaking method
42
of quadrants on a culture medium streaked for stool culture
4
43
what is the reason for flaming the inoculating loop
to sterilize
44
contained volume of inoculating loop
10 uL or 1 uL (0.01 or 0.001 mL)
45
contained volume of inoculating loop for urine cultures
1 uL
46
dilution factor if 1 uL loop is used
1000
47
dilution factor if 10 uL loop is used
100
48
McFarland standard is used to _
adjust turbidity of inoculum
49
0.5 McFarland standard provides OD comparable to the density of a suspension of _ CFU/mL
1.5 x 10^8
50
0.5 McFarland standard composition
0.5 mL 1.175% BaCl2 + 99.5 mL 1% H2SO4
51
pH of Mueller Hinton agar for antimicrobial susceptibility testing
7.2-7.4
52
after inoculation, how long should the Mueller Hinton plates dry before adding the disks
within 15 mins
53
agar plates should be kept _ whenever possible to prevent water from dipping onto the agar surface
inverted
54
in the AST, where is the highest concentration of the antibiotic located
closest to the disk
55
in Quebec colony counter, the colonies are presented against _ background
black
56
in MHA, what can cause increase resistance of P. aeruginosa to aminoglycosides
increased Ca and Mg
57
effect of non-diluted bacterial inoculum to antimicrobial susceptibility testing
false resistant (heavy inoculum)
58
effect of too much moisture to antimicrobial susceptibility testing
smaller zone
59
a zone within a zone of inhibition is caused by _
swarming phenomenon
60
what to do if swarming organism produces zone in an antimicrobial susceptibility testing
ignore swarming
61
to isolate an organism from a liquid specimen, what method is used
pour plate
62
in the pour plate method, how does amount of agar added affect the dilution
dilution is not affected
63
types of growth on agar slants (6)
filiform
echinulate
beaded
effuse
arborescent
rhizoid
64
most common method for determination of antimicrobial susceptibility
Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion
65
it is the lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits microbial growth
minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
66
the ZOI is _ related to the MIC
inversely
67
it is the lowest concentration of antibiotic that kills 99.9% of bacteria
minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)
68
used to measure the zone diameter of inhibition
ruler/caliper
69
most commonly used automated instrument for AST
VITEK 2
70
resistance that resulted in the organism being resistant to an antibiotic
biological resistance
71
resistance wherein the antibiotic is no longer effective for clinical use
clinical resistance
72
it has series of antibiotic concentrations for determining antimicrobial susceptibility in a broth
broth dilution
73
it provides homogeneous atmosphere to bring culture up to optimal conditions faster
smart incubator
74
incubator should be set at _ to meet the temperature of most human pathogens
35C
75
phase where bacterial cells increase in size but not in number
lag phase
76
capnophilic organisms require how much CO2
5-10% CO2
77
it can be used as an alternative to anaerobic jar
candle jar
78
% of gases in a microaerophile environment (Campy GasPak jar)
5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2
79
primary use of candle jar
create atmosphere with approx. 3% CO2
80
% of gases in an anaerobic environment (GasPak jar)
% CO2, 10% H2, 85% N2
81
most common failure concerning GasPak jar
inactivated catalyst
82
smears of CSF are prepared from _
CSF sediment
83
purpose of mordant in Gram staining
dye fixative
84
correct order in Gram staining
VIAS
crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin
85
most critical step in Gram staining
decolorization
86
differentiation of Gram staining occurs during _
decolorization
87
safranin is replaced by 0.1% fuchsin to better visualize _
Legionella spp.
88
mordant used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast stain procedure
heat
89
stain retained by acid fast organisms
Carbolfuchsin
90
difference between modified acid fast stain and regular acid fast stain
weaker decolorizer
91
acid-fast stain that does not use heat as mordant
Kinyoun stain
92
color of non-AFB
blue
93
color of AFB
pink/red
94
precaution to treat all human blood & other body fluids as potentially infectious
standard precaution
95
precaution to all human blood and all other body fluids containing visible blood
universal precaution
96
donning of PPE
gown > mask/respirator > goggles/face shield > gloves
97
doffing of PPE
gloves > goggles/face shield > gown > mask/respirator
98
check of the face velocity of safety cabinets every _
month
99
settings of RPMs on face of rheostat control on centrifuge is checked every _
month
100
mask protects an individual from _
droplet nuclei
101
respirators in the lab must have _ if engineering control are not feasible
HEPA filter
102
for the N95 respirator to be an effective barrier, it is essential that it is _, yet comfortably on the face
snug fit
103
chain of infection requires a continuous link between (3)
source, MOT & susceptible host
104
6 components of chain of infection
infectious agent > reservoir > exit portal > mode of transmission > entry portal > susceptible host
105
MOT include (4)
direct contact, inhalation, ingestion, and animal or vector bite
106
reservoirs include (3)
humans, animals, and the environment
107
major routes of lab-acquired infections (4)
parenteral inoculations
spills & splashes
ingestions
inhalation of infectious aerosols
108
what MOT of microorganism may result from needlestick, broken glass, animal bites, scratch on fingers
direct inoculation
109
generally, bacteria are attracted to a _ environment
moist
110
term for "hospital-acquired"
nosocomial
111
safest method of sterilization
autoclave
112
QC for autoclave; it dies after autoclave sterilization
Bacillus stearothermophilus
113
QC for dry heat oven
Bacillus subtilis
114
morphology of B. stearothermophilus used as an indicator of autoclave sterilization
spores
115
autoclave sterilization is based upon moist heat at _ under 15 psi for _
121C, 15 mins
116
it is a fumigant used for cold sterilization of surgical instrument; a gas sterilant
ethylene oxide
117
disinfectant for machines that cannot be autoclaved or heated
ethylene oxide
118
process of killing all pathogenic microorganisms but not bacterial spores
disinfection
119
process of killing all microorganisms including highly resistant bacterial spores
sterilization
120
most effective method of sterilization
autoclave
121
surface disinfectant used for biosafety cabinets
10% bleach
122
if Chlorox is not available in the laboratory, what can be used as a substitute
vinegar
123
quaternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by _
organic material
124
number of bacteria of Grade A milk BEFORE pasteurization
75,000/mL
125
number of bacteria of Grade A milk AFTER pasteurization
15,000/mL
126
certified milk contains _ bacteria per mL
10,000 or less
127
boiling is (sporicidal or non sporicidal)
non sporicidal
128
term that means safe to drink and safe to use for cooking
potable
129
concentration of H2O2 used for cleansing wounds
3% (to 6%)
130
iodine in alcohol
iodine tincture
131
iodophors are composed of iodine and _
detergents
132
SPS may be used in blood cultures because (2)
1. prevents phagocytosis
2. neutralizes bactericidal effect of serum
133
who is the least responsible in specimen collection
intern
134
most common compound used for skin disinfection for blood culture collection
70% ethanol, followed by iodophor
135
obtain samples from _ venipuncture sites within _ hours at least _ apart
2 to 3, 24 hours, 1 hour
136
ideally, all culture should be obtained and sent _ antibiotics are started
BEFORE
137
throat swab for anaerobic culture, what to do next
reject the specimen
138
classification based on a, b, & y hemolysis is developed by
Smith and Brown
139
greening or browning of blood agar due to partial lysis of RBCs
alpha hemolysis
140
complete clearing of blood agar
beta hemolysis
141
no hemolysis on blood agar
gamma hemolysis
142
small zone of alpha hemolysis surrounded by zone of beta hemolysis
alpha-prime hemolysis
143
what is responsible for the brown coloration during alpha hemolysis
methemoglobin
144
viewing hemolysis on BAP uses what light
transmitted light
145
how often should catalase, oxidase, and coagulase reagents be tested
1x/day of use, when 1st opened
146
oxidase test
put drop of rgt on colony
rub colony on filter paper & add drop of rgt
rub colony on filter paper containing rgt
147
some citrate-(+) organisms cause false (+) tube coagulase test because _
they use citrate and release calcium
148
in the urea agar, urea is broken down into NH3, CO2, & H2O, then ammonia reacts to form _
ammonium carbonate
149
test for identification of S. agalactiae, G. vaginalis, C. jejuni, and L. monocytogenes
Hippurate hydrolysis
150
indicator in the methyl red test
methyl red
151
testing 3 amino acids in the decarboxylase test requires 4 tubes, why
1 tube is needed for a control
152
substrate in the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method
nitrocefin
153
positive reaction for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method
color change
154
#1 agent of diarrhea in the US and worldwide
Campylobacter jejuni
155
#1 agent of diarrhea in the Philippines
Salmonella enteritidis
156
food poisoning agents (6)
1. S. aureus
2. B. cereus
3. C. botulinum
4. S. typhimurium
5. B. stearothermophilus
6. Lactobacillus
157
what toxin of S. aureus disrupts the smooth muscle in blood vessels & is toxic to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes, & platelets
alpha toxin
158
what toxin of S. aureus is a heat-labile sphingomyelinase, which catalyzes hydrolysis of membrane phospholipids resulting in cell lysis
beta toxin
159
what toxin of Staphylococci is cytolytic to erythrocytes and demonstrates nonspecific membrane toxicity to other mammalian cells
delta toxin
160
what toxin of S. aureus may actually function in association with the Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)
gamma toxin
161
aka the spreading factor
hyaluronidase / Duran-Reynal factor
162
causes endocarditis from prosthetic heart valves
S. epidermidis
163
causes UTI in young, sexually-active females; Novobiocin-resistant
S. saprophyticus
164
most common pathogen in throat cultures
Streptococcus pyogenes
165
the capsule of S. pyogenes is made of _
hyaluronic acid
166
virulence factor that acts as an acceptor of Factor H
M protein
167
post-sequelae infection of Group A Streptococcus
acute glomerulonephritis & acute rheumatic failure
168
antigenic, oxygen-labile (cause subsurface hemolysis)
streptolysin O
169
non-antigenic, oxygen-stable (causes surface hemolysis)
streptolysin S
170
Streptococcus associated with colon cancer
Streptococcus bovis
171
lancet-shaped gram-positive bacteria
Streptococcus pneumoniae
172
test to detect the most common agent of otitis media
Optochin (Taxo P) S. pneumoniae
173
serologic test for confirmation of Streptococci (3)
Phadebact test
fluorescent antibody test
Lancefield precipitin test
174
Pneumococci resistant to penicillin should be tested for _
production of beta-lactamase
175
positive result in the Quellung test
capsular swelling
176
"Palisading," "picket fence," and "Chinese letters" appearance
Corynebacterium
177
Babes-Ernst granules are characteristic of _
C. diphtheriae
178
flexible calcium alginate nasopharyngeal swab is the device of choice for recovery of
C. diphtheriae
179
test that detects C. diphtheriae toxin in vitro
Elek test
180
what Corynebacterium species is a normal flora found on skin & mucous membranes; gram-positive bacilli with _ and _ forms
C. amycolatum, V and L forms
181
gram-positive, aerobic, nitrate (-), catalase (+), rapid urease (+), causes UTI
Corynebacterium urealyticum
182
genera that produce bacterial spores
Bacillus and Clostridium
183
causes flat sour spoilage
B. stearothermophilus / B. coagulans
184
Bacillus spp. that causes progressive endophthalmitis
B. cereus
185
specimen that is best for identifying Bacillus cereus as the cause of an outbreak
food
186
causes spoilage of bacon stored in vacuum-packed containers
Lactobacillus
187
Bacillus spp. used as a bioterrorism agent
B. anthracis
188
the capsule of B. anthracis is made of
poly-D-glutamic acid
189
microscopic appearance of B. anthracis on culture smear
bamboo pole
190
B. anthracis susceptible to Penicillin will produce what colony morphology
string of pearls
191
tumbling / umbrella motility at 25C, causes meningitis, stillbirth, food poisoning
Listeria monocytogenes
192
bacteria positive in the Anton test
L. monocytogenes
193
vitamin needed by anaerobes (Bacteroides, Porphyromonas) for growth
vitamin K
194
reaction of Bacteroides fragilis to Kanamycin, Vancomycin, and Colistin
all resistant
195
what is responsible for antimicrobial/penicillin resistance of Bacteroides fragilis
beta-lactamase
196
Lecithinase-positive, lipase-negative demonstrated on egg yolk agar
C. perfringens
197
agent of clindamycin-associated pseudomembranous colitis
C. difficile
198
agent of gas gangrene (myonecrosis)
C. perfringens
199
agent of botulism, flaccid paralysis, floppy baby syndrome, SIDS; canned good bacillus
C. botulinum
200
agent of lockjaw, spastic paralysis
C. tetani
201
agent of big head rams; causes wound infections
Clostridium sordellii
201
anaerobic, with terminal "lollipop" / tennis-racquet-shaped / "drumstick" spores
C. tetani
202
what mechanism is responsible for botulism in infants caused by C. botulinum
ingestion of spores in food or liquid
202
the classic form of foodborne botulism is characterized by the ingestion of
preformed toxin in foods
203
"Ray fungus," "lumpy jaw," "molar tooth," "sulfur granules," urease-negative
Actinomyces israelii
203
anaerobic bacteria that serve as trigger for inflammatory acne
Propionibacterium acnes
204
anaerobic bacteria that causes blood culture contamination
Propionibacterium acnes
205
extensive branching/aerial hyphae, lysozyme resistant, urease-positive
nocardia
205
SPS disk test is used to identify _
Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
205
agent of Whipple's disease
Tropheryma whipplei
206
Nocardia will grow in any media that does not contain _
antibiotics
207
Nugent scoring system is used for diagnosing _
bacterial vaginosis
207
branching, gram-positive, partially acid-fast, does not hydrolyze casein, tyrosine, or xanthine
Nocardia asteroides
207
filamentous bacteria growing on tap water agar
Streptomyces spp.
208
IMViC reaction is routinely used mostly for identification of _
Enterobacteriaceae
208
agent of Vincent's angina
Fusobacterium necrophorum, Borrelia vincentii
208
all members of Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase _ except _
oxidase negative except Plesiomonas shigelloides
208
serologic cross reactions may occur between isolates of Shigella and _
E. coli
209
E. coli associated with the Shiga toxin causing bloody diarrhea
enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
209
LOA reaction of Klebsiella pneumoniae
+ - -
209
E. coli that produces heat-labile and heat-stable toxins causing watery diarrhea
enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
210
colorless colonies on sorbitol MacConkey agar; does not ferment sorbitol
E. coli O157:H7
210
agent of granuloma inguinale (Donovanosis)
Klebsiella granulomatis
211
most sensitive method of laboratory diagnosis of typhoid fever
bone marrow culture
211
direct spread of pneumonic plague disease occurs by what route
inhalation of infected droplets
211
what type of assay is employed in Typhidot
ELISA
211
toxin that causes profuse watery diarrhea
Cholera toxin
212
specimens for Salmonella ID for 1st, 2nd, & 3rd week of infection
1st. blood
2nd. stool
3rd. urine
213
O1 and O139 are serogroups of what bacteria
Vibrio cholerae
213
susceptible to 0/139 disk
V. cholerae
213
any organism that is indole (+) and nitrate reduction (+) is also _
Cholera red positive
213
what test can be used for the diagnosis of Vibrio cholerae infection
String test
214
Vibrio has potential therapeutic resistance against what drug
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (SXT)
214
stool specimens suspected of containing Vibrio spp. should be collected and transported only in _
Cary-Blair medium
214
reagent used in the String test
0.5% sodium desoxycholate
215
bacteria that can cause eye infection from contact lens solution
P. aeruginosa
216
agent of "swimmer's ear"
P. aeruginosa
217
isolated on cystic fibrosis patients
P. aeruginosa (1st), B. cepacia (2nd)
218
upper respiratory tract flora, nonhemolytic; grows on CAP, require V factor
H. parainfluenzae
219
agent of painful "soft chancre" or chancroid
H. ducreyi
219
agent of painless "hard chancre"
T. pallidum
220
S. aureus provides what factor for growth of Haemophilus
V factor
221
it occurs when an organism, such as S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, or Neisseria spp., produces V factor
satellitism
221
example of microaerophilic bacteria
Campylobacter
222
bacteria associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome
C. jejuni
223
Campylobacter requires how much CO2
5-10%
224
Campylobacter, Helicobacter and Arcobacter are all _ gram-negative bacilli
CURVED
224
curved bacteria with darting motility
Campylobacter
224
most common cause of peptic ulcer
H. pylori
224
best and most accurate method to confirm H. pylori infection
biopsy
224
organism that produces a positive urea breath test
H. pylori
225
Legionella associated with BCYE and Pontiac fever
Legionella pneumophila
225
agent of "whooping cough"
Bordetella pertussis
226
amino acid(s) required for growth of Francisella tularensis
cystine and cysteine
226
microscope used for spirochete detection
darkfield
226
Weil's disease and jaundice are attributed to _
Leptospira
226
definitive test for leptospirosis
culture
227
agent of erythema migrans
Borrelia burgdorferi
227
Castaneda blood culture bottles are used to isolate _
Brucella spp.
227
"Bang's bacillus," causes abortion in cattle, (+) CO2, inhibited by thionine
Brucella abortus
228
causes granulomatous disease in animals
Actinobacillus
228
Kingella kingae is associated with what infection
endocarditis (HACEK)
228
gram-negative, coffee-/kidney-bean shaped diplococci, oxidase-positive
Neisseria
228
Neisseria spp. that can cause DIC
N. meningitidis
228
"PPNG" stands for
penicillinase-producing gonococci
229
PMNs with gram-negative cocci from purulent discharge is suggestive of _
N. gonorrhoeae
229
superoxol test is an initial test for _
N. gonorrhoeae
229
what bacteria is very sensitive to drying & temperature changes, so it is best to plate cultures immediately
N. gonorrhoeae
229
nonpathogenic Neisseria is commonly found in _ cultures
nasopharyngeal
229
recommended transport media for Neisseria
JEMBEC system
229
test for presumptive ID of M. catarrhalis isolated from middle-ear fluid
beta-lactamase
229
Mycobacterium species can be differentiated by the (3)
time of growth, photoreactivity and biochemical tests
229
photoreactivity of Mycobacteria is grouped into 3:
photochromogens, scotochromogens & nonchromogens
229
NTM colonies that develop pigment on exposure to light are classified as _
photochromogen
230
NTM colonies that develop pigment in the dark or light are classified as _
scotochromogen
230
NTM colonies that do not develop pigment in the dark or light are classified as _
nonphotochromogen
230
acceptable specimens for Mycobacteriologic culture (3)
respiratory specimens
body fluids
body tissues (ex. blood)
230
diagnosis by DSSM shall only require submission of how many samples
2 samples
230
how to sterilize inoculating loops & needles for sputum culture
dip them in 70% alcohol with SAND before flaming
230
best type of sputum specimen for recovery of mycobacteria
1st/early morning
230
>25 squamous epithelial cells seen on initial evaluation of sputum, this indicates _
sputum mixed with saliva
230
produces serpentine cords on broth cultures
M. tuberculosis
230
what organism is niacin and nitrate reduction positive
M. tuberculosis
230
acid-fast rods in a specimen from nasal mucosa are not a _
diagnostic point
230
rapid growers Mycobacteria (4)
M. fortuitum
M. chelonae
M. phlei
M. smegmatis
230
test for rapid growing mycobacteria
arylsulfatase test
230
M. bovis belongs to (nontuberculous / tuberculous) mycobacteria
tuberculous
230
Mycobacterium that cannot be grown in cell-free culture media
M. leprae
230
Lepromine test is a _ test for M. leprae
skin test
231
Rickettsias are transmitted by _
arthropod vectors
231
vector of Rickettsia prowazekii
Louse > squirrel flea, squirrel louse
232
Rickettsiae not vector-borne associated
Coxiella burnetii
232
best way to prevent Epidemic typhus
bathe regularly, wear clean clothes
233
gold standard method for detecting Rickettsial antibodies
IFA test & micro-IF
233
OX-19 and OX-2 are derived from _
P. vulgaris
234
OX-K is derived from _
P. mirabilis
235
agent of cat-scratch disease
Bartonella henselae
236
agent of Oroya fever, Verruga peruana, Carrion's disease
Bartonella bacilliformis
237
intracellular reproductive form of Chlamydia
reticulate body
238
infectious form of Chlamydia
elementary body
239
specimen of choice for detecting C. trachomatis in males
urethral swab
240
how is Chlamydia trachomatis transmitted
sexual contact, childbirth
240
TRIC stands for
Trachoma-inclusion conjunctivitis
241
test to determine the completeness of milk pasteurization
phosphatase test
241
agent that causes souring of milk
Lactobacillus spp. & Streptococcus lactis
241
agent of primary atypical pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
242
McCoy cells are used to culture _
C. trachomatis
242
agent of ropy or slimy milk
Alcaligenes viscosus
243
small bacteria having a size close to viruses
Mycoplasma spp.
243
transport storage temperature for Chlamydia
4C
244
mycoplasmas are not true bacteria because _
they lack cell wall
244
test of choice for detecting C. trachomatis genital infections
NAAT
245
agent of red milk
Serratia marcescens
245
agent of yellow milk
Flavobacterium & Pseudomonas synxantha
245
agent of blue milk
Pseudomonas syncyanae
246
agent of stormy fermentation of milk
C. perfringens, C. butyricum
246
agent of blue-green milk
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
247
it uses laser excitation to ionize chemical functional groups in the proteins of an organism
MALDI-TOF
247
results in milk bacteriology are reported as _
total plate count
247
instrument maintenance records should be retained in the laboratory for how long
for the life of the instrument
247
MALDI-TOF means
Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption Ionization Time of Flight Mass Spectrometry
