Bacteria Flashcards

(272 cards)

1
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus Characteristics

A

1) Golden Yellow Colonies
2) Gram Positive
3) Catalase Positive
4) Coagulase Positive

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2
Q

S. Aureus diseases that is caused by directed invasion

A

1) Pneumonia (after previous viral infection)
2) Superficial skin and soft tissue
3) Septic osteomyelitis
4) Endocarditis (acute)

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3
Q

Staphylococcus Epidermidis

A

Catalase Positive
Coagulase Negative
Gram Positive

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4
Q

Toxin Mediated Diseases of S. Aureus

A

1) Gastroenteritis
2) Scalded Skin Syndrome
3) Toxic Shock Syndrome

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5
Q

Who is at risk for Endocarditis w/ S. Aureus infection

A

IV Drug Abuse

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6
Q

What Toxin is associated with S. Aureus and causes Gastroenteritis

A

Preformed Enterotoxin

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7
Q

Scalded Skin Syndrome Etiology

Organism

A

Exfoliative Toxin A and B

S. Aureus

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8
Q

Signs of Scaled Skin Syndrome

A

Peeling of skin

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9
Q

Symptoms of Toxic Shock syndrome that is caused from S. Aureus

A

1) Gastroenteritis Symptoms
2) Diffuse Rash: Palms and Soles
3) Shock, Hypotension, and Death

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10
Q

What toxin causes toxic shock syndrome?

A

TSST-1 Toxin

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11
Q

S. Epidermidis Virulence Factor

A

Biofilms

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12
Q

What does S. Epidermidis cause?

A

Subacute endocarditis

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13
Q

What is honeymoon cystitis?

What causes it?

A

1) UTI

2) Staphylococcus Saprophyticus

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14
Q

What type of Hemolysis is Beta?

What Bacteria are associated with it?

A

Complete

Strep. Pyogenes and S. Agalactiae

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15
Q

What organisms are alpha hemolysis?

A

** Partial Hemolysis
S.Pneumoniae
S. Viridans

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16
Q

S. Pyogenes virulence factor

A

M Protein

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17
Q

Function of M Protein?

What organism is it associated with?

A

Inhibits Complement Activation

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18
Q

Signs of Streptococcal Pharyngitis

A

1) Exudate and pus of the palatine tonsils and pharynx

2) High Fever

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19
Q

What Diseases does S. Pyogenes (6)

A

1) Scarlet Fever
2) Streptococcal Pharyngitis
3) Necrotizing Faciitis
4) Erysipelas
5) Rheumatic Fever
6) Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

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20
Q

Symptoms of Scarlet Fever

What Organism causes it?

A

1) S. Pyogenes

2) Symptoms
- Fever, Rash on Trunk, and Neck (spares face)
- Erythematous “Strawberry” Tongue
- Pharyngitis

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21
Q

What Toxin causes Scarlet Fever

A

Pyrogenic (Erythrogenic) Exotoxin

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22
Q

What population normally gets Scarlet Fever

A

School Age Children

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23
Q

Erysipelas is caused by ___

A

S. Pyogenes

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24
Q

Appearance of Erysipelas

A

1) Sunburn Type appearance on Face

2) Warm to Touch

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25
What is the peak age of incidence of Erysipelas that is caused by Erysipelas
60-80
26
What is Necrotizing Faciitis
1) Rapidly Progressive Infection | 2) Purplish discoloration and very painful
27
What does Rheumatic Fever Follow?
Group A Streptococcus Pharyngitis
28
Signs and Symptoms of Acute Rheumatic Fever: JONES
1) Migratory Polyarthritis (large joints) 2) Pancarditis (pericarditis, mitral valvulitis) 3) Subcutaneous Nodules 4) Erythema Marginatum 5) Sydenham Chorea
29
Signs of Migratory Polyarthritis
Pain spreads to different joints
30
Sings of Erythema MArginatum
Curved, ring shaped macular rash
31
Syndham Chorea signs
``` Hopping Halting Gait Asymmetric Jerking Grimacing ```
32
What causes Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
1) Pharyngitis | 2) Skin Infection
33
Presentation of Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis in children
Edema Hypertension Hematuria Proteinuria
34
What tests confirms Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
1) Detection of Antibodies to: - Streptolysin O - DNase B
35
Streptococcus Agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus) Diseases
1) Neonatal Meningitis 2) Pneumonia 3) Sepsis
36
___ is a ascending infection from vagina
Streptococcus Agalactiae
37
What are the most common causes of Neonatal Meningitis
1) Strep Agalactiae 2) Listeria Monocytogenes 3) E. Coli
38
Virulence factor of S. Pneumoniae
IgA Protease
39
Streptococcus Pneumoniae is ___ reaction positive
Quellung
40
S. Pneumoniae is ___ sensitive
Optochin
41
What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia
S. Pneumoniae
42
Signs of Pneumonia caused by S, Pneumoniae
1) Lobar Consolidative Pattern 2) High Fever 3) Cough and COB
43
S. Pneumonia commonly infects who?
Elderly (Older than 65)
44
Classic Triad of S. Pneumoniae Meningitis
1) High Fever 2) Nuchal ridgidity 3) Abnormal Mental status changes
45
#1 cause of meningitis in young children
S. Pneumoniae
46
Most common bacterial causes of otitis media
1) S. Pneumoniae 2) Herophilus Influenzae (non-typeable) 3) Moraxella Catarrhalis
47
Presentation of Streptococcus Pneumoniae
- Ear Pain - Tugging/pulling at ear - Bulging tympanic membrane - Hyperemia
48
Which bacteria causes severe disease in asplenic pts
1) S. Pneumoniae 2) Haemophilus Influenzae (Type B) 3) Neisseria Meningitis
49
Diseases caused By Viridans
1) Dental Caries (Cavities) - S. Mutans | 2) Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
50
Which bacterium causes subacute endocarditis after dental procedures
S. Viridans
51
Bacillus Cereus Toxins
1) Heat Stabile Toxin | 2) Heat Labile Toxin
52
Which Bacillus Cereus Toxin causes Emetic Diseas
Heat Stabile
53
Which Bacillus Cereus Toxin causes watery diarrhea
Heat Labile
54
Despite Cooking (ex: reheated rice) what bacteria typically infects pts? Gram positive
Bacillus Cereus
55
What diseases does Bacillus Cereus cause
1) Emetic Disease | 2) Watery Diarrheal Disease
56
What Diseases cause Bacillus Anthracis
1) Cutaneous Anthrax "Malignant Pustule" | 2) Inhalational Anthrax
57
Mechanism of Inhalational Anthrax
1) Pulm. Spores --> | Mediastinal Hemorrhage --> Death
58
Which Gram Positive Bacteria is an agent of bioterrorism
Bacillus Anthracis
59
Discribe all clostridium species?
1) Gram Positive | 2) Anaerobic Spore Forming Bacteria
60
What is the cause of antibiotic associated colitis
C. Difficile
61
Virulence Factors of C. Difficile
1) Toxin A | 2) Toxin B
62
C. Difficile: Toxin A and B function
Toxin A: Increased inflammation, increased fluid secretion (diarrhea) Toxin B: Cytotoxic to colonic epithelial cells
63
Pathologic findings of C. Difficile
Pseudomembranous Colitis
64
What is Pseudomembranous Colitis
Mucopurulent Exudative Plaques
65
What organism inhibits acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction
C. Botulinum
66
Which gram positive bacteria is associated with deep puncture wounds but rusty needles
C. Tetani
67
What bacteria causes arching of head, neck and spine/body
C. tetani
68
Neurotoxin of C. Tetani inactivates
Glycine | GABA
69
What results in severe muscle spasms, lock jaw and opisthotonos?
C. Tetani
70
What causes gas gangrene
C. Perfringens
71
What disease causes Myonecrosis
C. Perfringens
72
What toxin does C. Perfringens have?
alpha toxin (lecithinase)
73
What is the C. Perfringens disease manifestations?
Cellulitis/Wound infections --> Myonecrosis and crepitus
74
Virulence factor of Corynebacterium
AB Exotoxin
75
MOA of AB Exotoxin
Inactivates EF2 preventing mRNA translation
76
What bacteria appears black on potassium tellurite agar
Corynebacterium Diptheriae
77
What is the shape of Corynebacterium
Pleomorphic and Club Shaped
78
What bacteria is grown on Loeffler's medium?
Corynebacterium Diptheriae
79
Diseases caused by C. Diptheriae
1) Pharyngitis w/ pseudomembrane formation
80
If C. Diptheriae is scraped off what is a consequence
Systemic absorption of toxin
81
what are some systemic affects of the toxin - C. Diptheriae
Myocarditis | Neural Involvement
82
C. Diptheriae: Systemic Toxin 1) Myocarditis 2) Neural Involvement
1) Myocarditis: Dysrhythmias and AV conduction block | 2) Neural involvement: Cranial and Peripheral Nerve Palsies
83
Clinical findings of Rhodococcus Equi?
Cavities with air-fluid levels ** Immunocompromised causes pulmonary disease
84
Which gram positive organism moves via tumbling motility
Listeria Monocytogenes
85
At what temperatures does Listeria Monocytogenes grow
Cooler Temoperatures
86
What foods are associated with Listeria Monocytogenes
1) Dairy Products: Milk and cheese | 2) Meat: Deli and hot dogs
87
Due to a gram positive bacteria What population should avoid milk, cheese, deli, and hot dogs? Why?
1) Pregnant Women | 2) Listeria Monocytogenes
88
Diseases caused by Listeria Monocytogenes
1) Granulomatous Infantiseptica | 2) Neonatal Meningitis (2-3wks after birth)
89
What is granulomatous infantiseptica
Widespread granulomas and often fatal
90
Listeria Monocytogenes can cause ____ in pregnant women
Sepsis
91
Lsit the gram - diplococci
1) Neisseria Meningitis 2) Neisseria Gonorrhea 3) Moraxella Catarrhalis
92
Neisseria Species are ___ gram negative diplococci
Intracellular
93
What do neisseia species grow on?
Chocolate Agar (Heated blood agar) - Thayer-MArtin Agar
94
Where does Neisseria Meningitis colonize
Nasopharynx
95
Major Virulence factors of Neisseria Meningitis
Capsule IgA1 protease Pili Contains LPS (Endotoxin)
96
Susceptible populations of Neisseria Meningitis
1) Neonates, 1/2 to 2 yrs 2) Military Recruits 3) College Students (Dorms) 4) Asplenia/Hyposplenia
97
What diseases is caused by Neisseria Meningitis
1) Meningitis: Fever stiff neck, nausea/vomiting, rash 2) Meningococcemia - Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
98
What is Whaterhous Friderichsen syndrome
1) Bilateral Adrenal Hemorrhage w/ insufficiency 2) Severe Hypotension 3) Disseminated intravascular thrombosis 4) Death
99
What bacteria causes Meningococcemia with dermal vascular thrombosis purpura fulminans
Neisseria Meningitis
100
What diseases does Neisseria gonorrhoeae cause
1) Urethritis - Male and Female 2) Acute Epidiymitis - male 3) Cervicitis and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease - Male 4) Perihepatitis (Fits-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome 5) Ophthalmia Neonatorum (Neonatal Conjunctivits)
101
Moraxella Catarrhalis grows on ____
Chocolate Agar
102
E Coli is a ___ Fermenter
Lactose
103
On a ____ agar lactose fermenters show a pink color change with ___ pH
1) MAcConkey | 2) Decrease
104
On _____ Lactose fermenters show color change of black with metallic sheen.
Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB)
105
How does E. Coli (apart of normal flora)adhere to host cells
Pili
106
Diseases caused by E. Coli
Diarrhea Meningitis (Esp. Neonatal) Urinary Tact Infection Pneumnia
107
Which E. Coli results in water diarrhea and abdominal cramps
ETEC
108
How is ETEC transmitted
Fecally contaminated food or water
109
ETEC toxins
``` Heat Labile (cholera-like) Heat Stabile (ST) Toxins ```
110
Which ecoli causes bloody diarrhea and fever and has the smae invasive plasmid as Shigella
EIEC
111
Which Ecoli produces Shiga-like toxin 1 or 2? What disease does it cause
1) EHEC | 2) Bloody Diarrhea and abdominal cramps
112
What causes Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) Symptoms and Toxin
1) EHEC E. Coli 0157 | 2) Anemia, Thrombocytopenia, Renal Damage/Failure (Uremia); Stx2
113
What is the most common cause of UTI
E. Coli
114
MOA of Shiga Toixin
1) Inhibits protein synthesis via 60S ribosomal subunit --> Cell Death
115
Sz of Shigella
1) High Fever | 2) Bloody diarrhea
116
List common places for Shigella outbreak
1) Preschool Daycare centers | 2) Nursing homes
117
What bacteria is associated with gallbladder adenocarcinoma
Salmonella Typhi
118
What bacteria produces H2S
Salmonella
119
Salmonella is motile via ____
Flagella
120
_____ causes a chronically inflamed gallbladder epithelium
Salmonella
121
Transmission of salmonella
1) Contaiminated Foods -Chicken Eggs Spinach
122
What two bacteria mimic appendicitis
Yersinia Enterocolitica | Campylobacter Jejuna
123
What cause Typhoid fever
Salmonella Typhi
124
List symptoms of Typhoid fever
1) Stepwise Fever 2) Diffuse and Colicky right upper quadrant abdominal pain 3) Delirium "Typhoid Encephalopathy"; Fever Peaks (104) 4) ROSE SPOTS = Bacterial Emboli
125
What dose non-typhoidal salmonella cause
1) Watery Diarrhea with N/V
126
Transmission of Yersinia Enteroclitica
Contaminated Milk Products
127
What bacteria has a swarming growth pattern and is a common cause of UTI in nosocomial setting
Proteus Mirabilis
128
Proteus Mirabilis is ___ Positive
Urease
129
Klebsiella Pneumoniae is a _____ Gran negative rod and is common in ___ and ___ pts
1_ Encapsulated 2) Alcoholics 3) Hospitalized
130
What causes necrotizing, cavitary pneumonia with currant jelly sputum?
Klebsiella Pneumoniae
131
Which bacteria has a distinctive grape-like scent
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
132
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa is (anaerobic/aerobic)
Aerobic
133
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa produces a __-___ pigament
Green-Blue
134
Which pts are at risk for Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
1) Cf pts 2) Burn victums 3) Debilitated, hospitalized pts 4) Swimmers
135
What type of diseases doe pseudomonas cause
1) Pulnonary infections (mild bronchitis to pneumonia) - CF patients 2) Primary Skin/wound infections - Burn Wound pts - Swimmers : Otitis Externa and Hot Tub Folliculitis
136
Bacteroides Fragilis is a ___ anaerobe
obligate
137
What bacteria compromises 99% of normal gut flora
B. Fragilis
138
What dose Bacteroides Fragilis cause?
Abscess after Bowel injuries' or perforations
139
Vibrio cholerae is __ shaped
Comma
140
Disease caused by Vibrio Cholerae
Profuse watery diarrhea
141
MOA of Vibrio Cholerae
1) Cholera Toxin - Activates cAMP - Osmotic Pull of water into lumen
142
Transmission of Vibrio Cholerae
Fecal-oral transmission in brackish and marine waters
143
Transmission of Vibrio parahaemolyticus and vulnificus
1) Raw Seafood (Oysters)
144
Symptoms of Vibrio Parahaemolyticus
Water Diarrhea | N/V
145
Sx of Vibrio Vulnificus
1) Consumption: Septicemia - Fever, Hypotension, N/V/D 2) Direct Handling: Progressive wound infection - Hemorrhagic skin lesion
146
What organisms cause Reiter's Syndrome/Reactive Arthritis (Many of the Enteric Bacteria)
1) Salmonella 2) Shigella 3) Campylobacter Jejuni 4) Yersinia Enterocolitica 5) C. Difficile
147
Triad of Reiter's Syndrome
1) Conjunctivitis 2) Urethritis 3) Arthritis
148
What gene is associated with Reactive Arthritis
HLA-B27
149
What causes Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Campylobacter Jejuni
150
What is the shape of Campylobacter Jejuni
Comma
151
Transmission of Campylobacter Jejuni
1) Uncooked meat (chicken) | 2) Unpasteurized Milk
152
Sx of Campylobacter Jejuni
1) Fever 2) Severe Abdominal Pain 3) Diarrhea (+/- blood) 4) can mimic acute appendicitis 5) Guillian-Barre Syndrome
153
Sx of Yersinia Enterocolitica
1) Fever 2) Abdominal Pain 3) Diarrhea 4) Pseudoappendicitis (ileitis and mesenteric lymphadenitis)H
154
What is Guillain Barre Syndrome
Ascending Flaccid Paralysis
155
What is the shape of H. Pylori?
Curvilinear Rod (Spirilla)
156
H. Pylori is ___ Positive and can be tested via CLO test.
Urease
157
Diseases caused by H. Pylori
1) Chronic Gastritis (N/V) | 2) Gastric and Duodenal Ulcers (pain)
158
Long term risks of H. Pylori
1) Gastric B Cell Lymphoma | 2) Gastric Adenocarcinoma
159
Pt presents with hacking cough followed by a high pitched inspiratory whoop. what is the moa of the bacteria.
1) Pertussis Toxin --> Increased cAMP: - Increased Histamine effect - Decreased phagocytosis and Lymphocytosis
160
What bacteria causes whooping cough
Bordetella pertussis
161
Diseases caused by Legionella Pneumophila
1) Pontiac Fever -self-limited fever illness | 2) Legionnaires Disease: Severe multilobular pneumonia w. abscess
162
H. Influenzae grows on ___
chocolate agar
163
Haemophilus species require
1) Hemin and NAD (X and V factors) | - Found in blood
164
Haemophilus Influenzae is ___ which protects it against phagocytosis
Encapsulated | -Polysaccharide
165
Hib vaccination of H. Influenzae is given when?
1 1/2 years
166
Encapsulated (Typeable) H. influenzae causes:
1) Early Childhood Meningitis | 2) Acute Epiglottitis: Fever, sore throat --> wheezing and drooling
167
Unencapsulated Hib causes
Otitis Media
168
H. Ducreyi "chancroid" causes
1) Painful genital ulcer "chancroid" = STD | - Painful unilateral suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy
169
Which bacteria causes a school of fish arrangement on gram stain
H. Ducreyi
170
Where is H. Ducreyi seen?
Endemic Developing Regions: Asia, Africa, Caribbean
171
What bacteria causes Syphilis
Treponema Pallidum
172
What bacteria cause a painless ulcer? Which on also causes painful suppurative lymphadenopathy
1) Treponema Pallidum; Klebsiella Granulomatis; Chlamydia Trachomatis 2) Chlamydia Trachomatis
173
Cause of bacteria vaginitis
Gardnerella Vaginalis
174
How is Gardnerella Vaginalis detected
Pap Smear w/ Clue Cells
175
Symptoms of Gardnerella Vaginalis
Fishy Smelling Discharge Pruritus Dysuria
176
What are the 4 zoonotic bacilli
Yersinia pestis Francisella tularensis Brucella species Pasteurella Multocida
177
Diseases caused by Yersinia Pestis
1) Bubonic Plague | 2) Pneumonic Plague
178
What is the shape of yersinia Pestis
Safety pin bipolar shape
179
Symptoms of bubonic plague
1) Hemorrhage under skin "black death" 2) Lymp nodes - hot painful "buboes" 3) Fever 4) Headache
180
Vector and Reservoir of Yersinia Pestis
1) Fleas | 2) Prairie Dogs
181
How is Francisella Tularensis transmitted
1) Rabbits | 2) Tick/Deerfly Bite
182
Diseases caused by Francisella Tularensis
1) Ulceroglandular Tularemia - Bubonic plague w/ painful skin ulcer 2) Pneumonic Tularemia
183
Which zoonotic bacteria can be used as potential agents of bioterrorism
Yersina Pestis | Francisella Tularensis
184
How is Brucella Species transmitted?
1) Milk 2) infected milk 3) placenta
185
Sx of Brucella infection
1) Undulant Fever and night sweats | 2) Anemia and Leukopenia
186
What is pasteruella multocida caused by
cats and dogs bite/scratch
187
What dose Pasteurella Multocida cause
Wound infection - Cellulitis
188
Pasteurella Multocida is a ___ anaerobe
Facultative
189
What causes cat scratch disease
Bartonella Henselae
190
Sx of cat scratch disease
1) low grade fever 2) malaise lymphadenopathy 3) Bacillary angiomatosis
191
What is bacillary angiomatosis
1) Red papules or nodules | - proliferation of vessels in edematous stroma
192
List the Obligate Intracellular Bacteria
1) Chalmydia Species 2) Rickettsia Species 3) Coxiella Burnetti (Q fever) 4) Ehrlichia Chaffeensis
193
Two forms of Chlamydia Species
1) Elementary Body - Infectious Particle | 2) Reticulate Body - Mature particle that steals energy
194
How do the Chlamydia species steal energy from host
1) ATP/ADP Translocase
195
Diseases cause by Chlamydia Trachomatis
1) Most common bacterial STI 2) Neonatal Blindness 3) Non-Gonococcal Urethritis 4) Epididymitis 5) PID and Cervicitis 6) Trachoma 7) Neonatal Inclusion Conjunctivitis 8) Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome) 9) Lymphogranuloma Venereum
196
Serotypes for Lymphogranuloma Venereum What causes it
1) L Serotypes (L1, L2, L3) | 2) Chlamydia Trachomatis
197
What disease does Chlamydia Psittaci "Psittacosis" cause?
1) Atypical Pneumonia (Dry Cough w/ low grade fever and patchy interstitial changes)
198
How is Chlamydia psittaci transmitted
1) Bird Exposure (Feces, and dried out feathers)
199
How does Rickettsia species get their energy?
1) ATP/ADP Translocase
200
+ Weil-Felix test shows ____
Agglutination by OX antibodies
201
What species have a + Weil-Felix Test?
1) Rickettsia Except R. Akari (Rickettsialpox) | 2) Proteus
202
General symptoms of Rickettsia spp.
1) Fever 2) Rash 3) Thrombocytopenia
203
R. Rickettsii causes what disease?
Rocky mountain spotted fever
204
Sx of Rocky mountain spotted fever/? What causes it?
1) Fever, Centripetal Rash on palms and soles | 2) R. Rickettsii
205
Where is Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Prevalent
1) Central, Southeast USA
206
What rickettsia spp. causes blister/eschar that is self limited. What is the disease called?
R. Akari 2) Rickettsialpox
207
What is the vector of R. Akari
Mite
208
What is important about R. Akari
1) Weil-Felix Negative
209
What causes Scrub Typhus
R. Tsutsugamushi
210
What is the vector for Scrub Typhus? What causes Scrub Typhuus?
Mite R. Tsutsugamushi
211
What a Rickettsia Spp. have mites as a vector?
1) R. Akari | 2) R. Tsutsugamushi
212
Symptoms of Scrub Typhus? Where is it found
1) High fever w/ maculopapular rash | 2) Southeastern Asia, Pacific
213
What causes epidemic Typhus
R. Prowazekii
214
Vector for R. ProwazekIi
Louse
215
Unsanitary, Crowded Conditions and Flying squirrels are characteristics of which Rickettsiia Spp.' What disease does it cause?
R. Prowazekii Epidemic Typhus: Fever and Rash
216
What causes Murine Endemic Typhus
R. Typhi
217
Vector for R. Typhi
Flea
218
Transmission of Coxiella Burnetti (Q Fever)
1) Cattle, Sheep, Goats | 2) Hide and Birth Products
219
Sx of Q fever:
1) Fever | 2) Atypical Pneumonia
220
What is Erlichia Chaffeensis
Tick born illness similar to RMSF but no rash
221
Where is Ehrlichia Chaffeensis found?
Southeast and Central US
222
List the Spirochetes
1) Treponema 2) Borrelia 3) Leptospira
223
What is Treponema Pallidum
Syphilis
224
Discribe Primary Syphilis
1) Painless Chancre develops after 3-6 wks of contact
225
How long does it take for secondary syphilis to present
6 wks
226
Sx of Secondaary Syphilis
1) Condyloma Lata | 2) Red rash: Palms and Soles w/ patchy hair loss
227
How long does it take for tertiary syphilis to present
1) 6-40 yrs
228
Sx of Tertiary Syphilis
1) Gummatous Lesion (skin and bone involvement) 2) Cardiovascular Syphilis: Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm 3) Neurosyphilis: Meningitis and Tabes Doralis 4) Argyll Robinson Pupils
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What is Tabes Doralis? What causes it?
1) Posterior Columns - Loss of pain and temperature w/ decreased coordination
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What is Argyll Robinson Pupils
1) Syphilitic lesion in midbrain 2) Pupils constrict to focus on near object - Dont react to light
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When does Treponema Pallidum cross the placental barrier
4th month of pregancy
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When does congenital syphilis present
1) 2yrs of birth
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Presentation of Congenital Syphilis
1) Mucous Membrane (Rhinitis) " Snuffles" | 2) Develops Secondary Syphilis: Rash on palms and soles
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Late Congenital Syphilis presentation time
> 2 yrs
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Presentation of Late Congenital Syphilis
1) Neurosyphilis (deafness) and Bone/Teeth Envolvement
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Hutchinson's Teeth ( Central Tooth notching) is Characteristic of ___
Late Congenital Syphilis
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what are Saber Shins What does it indicate
Bowing of the Tibia Late Congenital Syphilis
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Screening Tests for Syphilis
1) VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Lab | 2) RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin)
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Diagnostic Test for Syphilis
FTA-ABS | - Indirect immunofluorescent Treponemal Antibody-Absorption
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What is the vector for Borrelia Burgdorferi
1) Ixodes Tick (Backlegged Tick)
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Reservoir for Borrelia Burgodorferi
Deer
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What does Borrelia Burgdorferi cause
Lyme Disease
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What causes Lyme Disease
Borrelia Burgdorferi
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Where is Lyme Disease common
1) Northwest USA | 2) Upper Midwest
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What is the # 1 tick borne-illness
Borrelia Burgdorferi - Lyme Disease
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Stages of Lyme Disease
1) Early Localized Disease: Erythema MIGRANS (at bite site) 2) Early Disseminated Disease: Nervous Sys. Heart and Joints - Bell's Palsy - Carditis - Knee Problems 3) Late Disease: Chronic Arthritis and Encephalopathy
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What is the vector for Borrelia Recurrentis
Body Louse
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Disease causaed by Borrelia Recurrentis
Relapsing Fever
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Where is Borrelia Recurrentis found
Western USA
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List the Acid Fast Bacilli
1) M. Tuberculosis 2) M. Leprae 3) M. Avium Complex (MAC)
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What morphology is seen in both tuberculosis and leprosy?
Necrotizing Granulomata and Giant Cells | - due to cell mediated immunity
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How is Tb Diagnosed
1) Tuberculin Skin Test and Interferon-gamma release assay
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What carries Leprosy (Hansen's Disease)
Armadillos in Southern USA
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@ what temperatures does Leprosy grown at
Cooler temperatures
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Where does Primary Tb infection begin>
Lungs
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Who does primary tb affect>
1) Immunocompromised 2) Elderly 3) Young
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Sx of primary Tb
1) Fever 2) Chest Pain 3) Hilar Lymphadenopathy
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Secondary Tb occurs when? Sx:
1) Months to years later 2) Low grade fever and night sweats and hemoptysis - Upper lobes
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What causes Miliary Tb? What is it>
1) Secondary Tb | 2) Innumerable lesions throughout organs
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Vertebral Miliary Tuberculosis is known as ...
Pott's Disease
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Diseases caused by Mycobacterium leprae
1) Tuberculoid Leprosy | 2) Lepromatous Leprosy
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Which leprosy Dz s caused by a strong cell mediated response and localized skin lesions w/ granulomatous inflammation
Tuberculoid Leprosy
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Whic leprosy causes unilateral skin/nerve sensation loss
Tuberculoid Leprosy
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Lepromatous Leprosy is _____ cell mediated
No/minimal
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____ causes a disseminated disease where there are skin lesions that cover body and organ involvement. Mycobacterium
Lepromatous leprosy
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Sx of Mycobacterium Avium Complex: in immunocompetent individuals
1) Low grade pneumonia
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What does MAC cause in AIDs pts When>
1) Unexplained Weight loss, fever, diarrhea | 2) CD4 T cell count <50
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List bacteria w/o cell walls
Mycoplasma Pneumoniae Mycoplasma Genitalium Ureaplasma Urealyticum
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What causes walking pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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Sx of walking pneumonia
1) Mild, self limited bronchitis and pneumonia
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Diadnostic tests for mycoplasma pneumoniae
Cold agglutinins (nonspecific)
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What type of rash is M. Pneumoniae associated with
Erythema Multiforme: Multiple target lesion spread from Hands --> Trunk