BACTERIOLOGY Flashcards
1
Q
Capsules can be used for a:
A. Complement fixation
B. Hemagglutination test
C. Serotyping by swelling
D. Precipitation test
A
C. Serotyping by swelling
2
Q
To demonstrate capsules, grow the culture on media containing:
A. Antibiotics
B. Milk
C. Serum
D. B and C
A
D. B and C
3
Q
The Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the:
A. Nucleus
B. Cell wall
C. Flagella
D. Capsule
A
D. Capsule
4
Q
Dark staining granules are called:
A. Spores
B. Capsules
C. Cysts
D. Metachromatic
A
D. Metachromatic
5
Q
Organisms that vary in size and shape are referred to as:
A. Psychrophilic
B. Thermophilic
C. Pallisades
D. Pleomorphic
A
D. Pleomorphic
6
Q
In the bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the:
A. Stationary phase
B. Logarithmic phase
C. Lag phase
D. A and B
A
A. Stationary phase
7
Q
Which genera of bacteria form spores?
A. Corynebactrium
B. Bacillus
C. Clostridium
D. B and C
A
D. B and C
8
Q
Bacteria that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds are called:
A. Anaerobes
B. Aerobes
C. Capnophiles
D. Aerotolerants
A
A. Anaerobes
9
Q
The temperature at which bacteria grow best is known as:
A. Thermophilic
B. Psychrophilic
C. Optimum
D. Mesophilic
A
C. Optimum
10
Q
A slimy colony on blood agar medium indicates which of the following characteristics may be present?
A. Blood agar is too old
B. Organism has a capsule
C. Plate was incubated too long
D. Plate was incubated at too high temperature
A
B. Organism has a capsule
11
Q
On blood agar plates, a small zone of alpha-hemolysis surrounded by zone of beta-hemolysis after refrigeration is known as:
A. Gamma hemolysis
B. Beta hemolysis
C. Alpha hemolysis
D. Alpha prime
A
D. Alpha prime
12
Q
When using fractional sterilization, the sequence is:
A. Heating (kills vegetative bacteria)
B. Incubation (spores germinate)
C. Heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteria)
D. AOTA
A
D. AOTA
13
Q
What is the most effective method of sterilization?
A. Autoclave
B. Dry heat oven
C. Boiling
D. Disinfection
A
A. Autoclave
14
Q
Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Bacillus stearothermophilus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Salmonella typhi
A
A. Bacillus subtilis
15
Q
Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility?
A. Seitz
B. Millipore (0.22 um)
C. Millipore (0.5 um)
D. A and B
A
B. Millipore (0.22 um)
16
Q
Media that cannot be heated can be sterilized by:
A. Filtration
B. Chemical disinfectants
C. Antiseptics
D. Cannot be sterilized
A
A. Filtration
17
Q
Which of the following is not a disinfectant?
A. Phenol
B. 70% alcohol
C. QUATS
D. 2% aqueous glutaraldehyde
A
B. 70% alcohol
18
Q
Iodophors are composed of iodine and:
A. Phenolic compound
B. Detergent
C. 70% alcohol
D. 90-95% alcohol
A
B. Detergent
19
Q
Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by:
A. Heat
B. P. aeruginosa
C. Organic materials
D. Tap water
A
C. Organic materials
20
Q
What is a term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument or environmental surface safe to handle?
A. Decontamination
B. Antisepsis
C. Disinfectant
D. Sterile
A
A. Decontamination
21
Q
What do gram-positive bacteria stain?
A. Purple
B. Green
C. Red
D. Maroon
A
A. Purple
22
Q
The mordant used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain is:
A. Gram’s iodine
B. Auramine
C. Heat
D. Acid-alcohol
A
C. Heat
23
Q
How is smear for an acid-fast stain fixed?
A. Methyl alcohol
B. Acid alcohol
C. Tergitol no. 7
D. Slide warmer at 65C for 2 hours
A
D. Slide warmer at 65C for 2 hours
24
Q
Acid-fast bacteria appear what color microscopically?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Purple
A
A. Red
25
Acid-fast organisms in tissue are best stained by which of the following methods?
A. Hiss
B. Kinyoun
C. Ziehl-Neelsen
D. Negative stain
B. Kinyoun
26
In the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method, the decolorizer is:
A. Heated saline
B. Acetone
C. Acetone + alcohol
D. Alcohol + HCl
D. Alcohol + HCl
27
An example of a negative stain is:
A. Auramine-rhodamine stain
B. Gram stain
C. India ink stain
D. Methylene blue stain
C. India ink stain
28
Which of the following is NOT gram-negative?
A. Peptococcus
B. Salmonella
C. Branhamella
D. Aeromonas
A. Peptococcus
29
Which of the following is NOT an anaerobe?
A. Veillonella
B. Fusobacterium
C. Actinomyces
D. Campylobacter
D. Campylobacter
30
If a patient is taking antimicrobials, which of the following can neutralize the antimicrobials?
A. Tryptic soy broth
B. Antihistamine
C. Thiol broth
D. Brain-hear infusion broth
C. Thiol broth
31
From a bronchial washing, organisms are seen on a Gram stain, but no growth occurs aerobically and anaerobically. This is most likely due to:
A. Anaerobes
B. Inhibition by antibiotic therapy
C. Uncultivable bacteria (e.g., rickettsiae, mycoplasma, M. leprae)
D. The specimen being incubated instead of refrigerated
B. Inhibition by antibiotic therapy
32
Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing?
A. Antimicrobial Removal Device
B. Isolator
C. Septi-check
D. NOTA
A. Antimicrobial Removal Device
33
Sodium polyanethol sulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in blood culture because it:
A. Removes some antimicrobials
B. Prevents phagocytosis
C. Neutralizes the bactericidal effect of human serum
D. B and C
D. B and C
34
What is the most abundant normal flora in throat cultures?
A. Micrococcus
B. Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Legionella pneumophila
B. Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
35
What is the most common pathogen in throat cultures?
A. Group A Streptococcus
B. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
A. Group A Streptococcus
36
Why must blood agar plates for throat cultures be incubated aerobically and anaerobically when beta-hemolytic streptococci are suspected?
A. Some may produce beta hemolysis under aerobic conditions
B. Streptococci only grow under aerobic conditions
C. Streptococci only grow under anaerobic conditions
D. Neither A nor B
A. Some may produce beta hemolysis under aerobic conditions
37
Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as:
A. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis
B. Neisseria, Vibrio, Bordetella pertussis
C. Haemophilus influenzae, Erysipelothrix Vibrio
D. Erysipelothrix, Neisseria, Listeria
A. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis
38
Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for:
A. Determination of mycobacterial growth rate
B. Primary culture for anaerobes
C. Stool enrichment for Salmonella but not for Shigella
D. Culture of beta hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy
D. Culture of beta hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy
39
Phenylethyl alcohol is used in media to:
A. Inhibit gram-positive bacteria
B. Inhibit gram-negative bacteria
C. Stimulate gram-positive bacteria
D. Stimulate gram-negative bacteria
B. Inhibit gram-negative bacteria
40
Why is a first morning urine specimen preferred for urine cultures?
A. Specimen is diluted
B. Bacteria are all motile
C. Specimen is more concentrated
D. A and B
C. Specimen is more concentrated
41
What indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of urine?
A. Many squamous epithelial cells
B. Few white blood cells
C. 1-2 RBCs/hpf
D. Amorphous urates
A. Many squamous epithelial cells
42
In the pour-plate method for colony counts, how does the amount of agar added affect the dilution?
A. Dilution is increased
B. Dilution is decreased
C. Dilution is increased 20%
D. Dilution is not affected
D. Dilution is not affected
43
Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are prepared from:
A. Cerebrospinal fluid sediment
B. Uncentrifuged cerebrospinal fluid
C. Heated cerebrospinal fluid
D. Frozen cerebrospinal fluid
A. Cerebrospinal fluid sediment
44
Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are usually stained with:
A. Acid-fast stain
B. Gram stain
C. India ink stain
D. B and C
D. B and C
45
Which of the following tests for bacterial antigen on cultures isolated from cerebrospinal fluid is more sensitive and faster?
A. Coagglutination tests
B. Latex agglutination tests
C. Counter immunoelectrophoresis
D. Coagulase test
B. Latex agglutination tests
46
Staphylococcal protein A coated with antiserum is used in which of the following serological tests on cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Coagglutination test
B. Latex agglutination test
C. Counter immunoelectrophoreiss
D. ELISA
A. Coagglutination test
47
Which of the following is not the cause of a venereal disease?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
48
Using sheep blood for blood agar plate eliminates beta hemolytic:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Neisseria
C. Streptococcus
D. Haemophilus
D. Haemophilus
49
A positive tube coagulase test is observed to:
A. Bubbling
B. Agglutination
C. Liquefaction
D. Clotting of plasma
D. Clotting of plasma
50
What type of plasma is used for the tube coagulase test?
A. Rabbit
B. Human
C. Sheep
D. Horse
A. Rabbit
51
Some citrate-positive organisms cause a false-positive tube coagulase test because the organism uses the citrate
A. And releases calcium
B. As a source of calcium
C. As a beta-lactamase
D. And releases oxygen
A. And releases calcium
52
A non-hemolytic, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, gram-positive coccus is most likely to be:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Alpha hemolytic streptococci
D. Streptococcus faecalis
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
53
The preferred method of differentiating S. aureus from S. epidermidis is:
A. Catalase test
B. Coagulase test
C. DNAse/mannitol fermentation
D. Phage typing
B. Coagulase test
54
Which of the following staphylococci is the cause of urinary tract infection in young females?
A. S. epidermidis
B. S. saprophyticus
C. S. aureus
D. S. hominis
B. S. saprophyticus
55
Staphylococcus aureus can be isolated from stool cultures by the use:
A. Potassium tellurite medium
B. MacConkey agar
C. Medium with 7.5% salt concentration
D. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
C. Medium with 7.5% salt concentration
56
The most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the United States is:
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Shigella dysenteriae type 1
B. Staphylococcus aureus
57
Which of the following gram-positive cocci ferment glucose?
A. Staphylococci
B. Micrococci
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
A. Staphylococci
58
Which hemolysin, produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci is oxygen stable and nonantigenic?
A. Streptolysin A
B. Streptolysin S
C. Streptolysin G
D. Streptolysin O
B. Streptolysin S
59
Culture for beta-hemolytic streptococci must include:
A. Incubation at 25C to ensure growth of all strains
B. Anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains
C. Incubation with carbon dioxide
D. Media with glucose to show typical hemolysis
B. Anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains
60
Which of the following is destroyed by oxygen?
A. Botulism toxin
B. Streptolysin O
C. Catalase
D. Coagulase
B. Streptolysin O
61
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococci
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
C. Bacitracin susceptible
62
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
E. Optochin disk susceptible
63
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Alpha-hemolytic streptococci
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
F. Optochin disk resistant
64
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
65
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Enterococcus
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
D. Bile-esculin positive
66
Whenever is biochemical test is substituted for a serological test, it is reported:
A. By the genus and species name
B. As “presumptive” with the name of the biochemical test
C. By its common name
D. NOTA
B. As “presumptive” with the name of the biochemical test
67
CAMP is a factor produced by group B beta-hemolytic streptococci that:
A. Reduces the zone of lysis formed by the streptococci
B. Hydrolyzes the B factor
C. Causes a change in color
D. Enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin
D. Enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin
68
A positive Quellung test is:
A. Oxidation but not fermentation
B. Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen
C. Visible only by fluorescent light
D. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody production
D. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody production
69
Which of the following serological tests is used for a confirmatory test of streptococci:
A. Phadebac test
B. Fluorescent antibody test
C. Lancefield precipitin test
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
70
When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, use disks that have how many units?
A. 10.00 units
B. 5.00 units
C. 0.02-0.04 units
D. 1.00-2.00 units
C. 0.02-0.04 units
71
Match the disease with the corresponding organism. Organisms may be used more than once.
Scarlet fever
A. Group B Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
72
Match the disease with the corresponding organism. Organisms may be used more than once.
Major pathogen of the newborn
A. Group B Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
A. Group B Streptococci
73
Match the disease with the corresponding organism. Organisms may be used more than once.
“Strep throat”
A. Group B Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
74
Match the disease with the corresponding organism. Organisms may be used more than once.
Subacute bacteria endocarditis
A. Group B Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
75
What do optochin and bacitracin tests have in common?
A. Autolysis is a negative result
B. Growth inhibition is a positive result
C. They should not be done on blood agar
D. Either one will differentiate enterococci from viridans streptococci
B. Growth inhibition is a positive result
76
The bile-esculin test is used to differentiate:
A. Enterococci from other group D streptococci
B. Streptococcus faecalis from Listeria
C. Group D Streptococci from other strep
D. Group A from group B streptococci
C. Group D Streptococci from other strep
77
Hippurate hydrolysis is used to differentiate:
A. Group A from group B streptococci
B. Group B streptococci from enterococci
C. Listeria from streptococci
D. Pneumococci from other viridans
A. Group A from group B streptococci
78
A bacitracin-resistant, hippurate-hydrolysis positive, bile-esculin positive, beta-hemolytic Streptococcus that grows in 6.5% NaCl is probably a/an:
A. Pneumococcus
B. Enterococcus
C. Group D Strep
D. Diphtheroid
B. Enterococcus
79
Pneumococci that are resistant to penicillin should be tested for:
A. Production of beta-lactamase
B. Bile solubility
C. Growth in NaCl
D. Resistance to bacitracin
A. Production of beta-lactamase
80
Gram-negative, coffee bean-shaped diplococci with adjacent sides flattened is descriptive of which of the following?
A. Neisseria
B. Staphylococcus
C. Listeria
D. Chlamydia
A. Neisseria
81
The diagnosis of gonorrhoeae in males can be made from:
A. Positive urethral smear
B. Symptoms
C. History
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
82
Which of the following specimens may be appropriate for culturing Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A. Eyes
B. Rectum
C. Oral cavity
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
83
What is the medium of choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci?
A. Lowenstein-Jensen
B. Modified Thayer Martin
C. Sheep blood agar
D. Potassium tellurite
B. Modified Thayer Martin
84
Which of the following differentiates Thayer-Martin medium from modified Thayer-Martin medium?
A. Nystatin
B. Vancomycin
C. Colistin
D. Trimethoprim lactate
D. Trimethoprim lactate
85
Thayer-Martin medium is basically a/an:
A. Blood agar
B. Enriched MacConkey agar
C. Enriched chocolate agar
D. Potassium tellurite agar
C. Enriched chocolate agar
86
What color is positive oxidase test?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Dark purple
D. Dark purple
87
Which of the following genera are oxidase positive?
A. Moraxella
B. Aeromonas
C. Neisseria
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
88
When performing the oxidase test, which of the following techniques can be used?
A. Put a drop of reagent on the colony
B. Rub colony on a filter paper strip and add a drop of reagent
C. Rub the colony on a piece of filter paper containing the reagent
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
89
What do “PPNG” gonococci produce?
A. Penicillin-producing gonococci
B. Penicillinase-producing gonococci
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
B. Penicillinase-producing gonococci
90
Which of the following are methods for testing for the production of beta-lactamase?
A. Chromogenic cephalosporin method
B. Acidometric method
C. Iodometric method
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
91
Which of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method?
A. Production of acid
B. Color change
C. Reduction of nitrates
D. Decolorization of starch-iodine mixture
B. Color change
92
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus from a throat culture might be:
A. Staphylococcus
B. An “EEC”
C. Fusobacterium
D. Neisseria
D. Neisseria
93
A fastidious, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus from a rectal swab might be?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Listeria
D. Branhamella catarrhalis
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
94
Neisseria meningitidis degrades which of the following sugars?
A. Glucose
B. Maltose
C. Lactose
D. A and B
D. A and B
95
Which of the following tests can give a presumptive identification of Branhamella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram-negative diplococcus that is oxidase-positive and isolated from middle-ear fluid?
A. Nitrate test
B. Urease test
C. Indole tets
D. Beta-lactamase test
D. Beta-lactamase test
96
Why should beta-lactamase test be performed with growth from primary isolation media?
A. Plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing
B. May react with chemicals in the medium
C. Because of the absorbance of oxygen from the medium
D. NOTA
A. Plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing
97
What is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium?
A. Inhibits the normal flora
B. Enriches the medium
C. Enriches pleomorphism
D. Enhances granule production
A. Inhibits the normal flora
98
Potassium tellurite medium produced what color of colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Gray-black
D. Gray-black
99
When culturing Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production?
A. Loeffler serum agar
B. Pai coagulated egg medium
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. A and B
100
What is the morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Gram-negative, motile cocci
B. Gram-positive motile cocci
C. Gram-positive, nonmotile rods
D. Gram-negative, nonmotile rods
C. Gram-positive, nonmotile rods
101
The term “palisading,” “picket fence,” and “Chinese letter” describe the common arrangement of cells of:
A. Corynebacterium
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not other mycobacteria
C. Actinomyces but not Nocardia
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not other corynebacterial
A. Corynebacterium
102
Babes-Ernst granules are characteristic of:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
103
Which of the following are considered diphtheroids?
A. Corynebacterium xerosis
B. Corynebacterium diphthera
C. Corynebacterium JK
D. A and C
D. A and C
104
Which of the following diphtheroids is found in the normal throat?
A. Propionibacterium acnes
B. Corynebacterium pseudodiphthericum
C. Corynebacterium xerosis
D. Rhodococcus equi
B. Corynebacterium pseudodiphthericum
105
The Elek test is for the detection of:
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vivo
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro
C. Bacillus anthracis toxin, in vitro
D. Clostridium botulinum toxin, in vitro
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro
106
The morphological cycle of Rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form tales:
A. 5 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
C. 24 hours
107
Which of the following is gram-positive to gram-variable coccobacillus?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Listeria monocytogenes
108
Listeria monocytogenes produces a positive in which of the following biochemical tests?
A. Coagulase test
B. Lactose fermentation test
C. Catalase
D. A and C
C. Catalase
109
Which of the following is a virulence test for Listeria monocytogenes?
A. Elek test
B. Anton test
C. ELISA test
D. Feeley-Gorman
B. Anton test
110
Refrigeration of the specimen for several months may enhance isolation of:
A. Psychrophilic blood bank contaminants
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Actinomyces
B. Listeria monocytogenes
111
Which of the following will differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from the Corynebacteria?
A. Nonmotile and salicin-negative
B. Motile and salicin-positive
C. Nitrate-positive and sucrose-negative
D. Motile and urease negative
A. Nonmotile and salicin-negative
Listeria spp.: motile, salicin (+)
Corynebacterium spp: nonmotile, salicin (-)
112
Spore-forming cells in bamboo pole arrangement of Bacillus anthracis can be found in:
A. Specimen from patient
B. Guinea pigs
C. Cultures
D. NOTA
C. Cultures
113
Which aerobic, gram-positive, sporulating rods can cause food poisoning?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Mycobacterium phlei
D. Clostridium ramosum
B. Bacillus cereus
114
Very large gram-negative rods with spores are seen in a non-turbid thioglycolate broth culture of spinal fluid, but there is no growth anaerobically or aerobically. This is most likely due to:
A. Too small an amount of inoculum that caused the organisms to die
B. Exchange of genetic material between Bacillus spp. And Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus spp. In the dehydrated medium are killed and made gram-negative by autoclaving the medium
D. A very high spinal fluid glucose allows the E. coli to multiply in broth but not on solid medium
C. Bacillus spp. In the dehydrated medium are killed and made gram-negative by autoclaving the medium
115
Match the following dyes or reagents used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast staining procedure with their purpose.
Mordant
A. Acid (3% HCl alcohol)
B. Dilute methylene blue
C. Carbolfuchsin
D. Heat to speed staining
D. Heat to speed staining
116
Match the following dyes or reagents used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast staining procedure with their purpose.
Primary dye
A. Acid (3% HCl alcohol)
B. Dilute methylene blue
C. Carbolfuchsin
D. Heat to speed staining
C. Carbolfuchsin
117
Match the following dyes or reagents used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast staining procedure with their purpose.
Counterstain
A. Acid (3% HCl alcohol)
B. Dilute methylene blue
C. Carbolfuchsin
D. Heat to speed staining
B. Dilute methylene blue
118
Match the following dyes or reagents used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast staining procedure with their purpose.
Decolorizer
A. Acid (3% HCl alcohol)
B. Dilute methylene blue
C. Carbolfuchsin
D. Heat to speed staining
A. Acid (3% HCl alcohol)
119
Non-acid-fast bacilli stain what color?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Orange
B. Blue
120
Acid-fast bacilli retain which dye?
A. Methylene blue
B. Malachite green
C. Gentian violet
D. Carbolfuchsin
D. Carbolfuchsin
121
An acid-fast stain that does not use heat as the mordant is which of the following?
A. Truant fluorochrome stain
B. Ponder stain
C. Kinyoun stain
D. Gomori stain
C. Kinyoun stain
122
Which of the following media is clear so that the colonies of mycobacteria can be examined microscopically?
A. Mueller-Hinton
B. Lowenstein-Jensen
C. Blood agar
D. Middlebrook 7H11
D. Middlebrook 7H11
123
What color is a negative enzymatic hydrolysis of Tween 80 test?
A. Red
B. Amber
C. Green
D. Blue
B. Amber
124
Mycobacterial cultures should be incubated:
A. In 5% carbon dioxide
B. In increased humidity
C. At 25C
D. Under anaerobic conditions
A. In 5% carbon dioxide
125
A slow-growing, unbalanced, acid-fast rod that is nitrate reduction-negative and niacin-negative is most likely to be:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium bovis
C. Mycobacterium kansasii
D. Actinomyces israelli
B. Mycobacterium bovis
126
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis by:
A. Growth rate
B. Niacin and nitrate-reduction tests
C. Hydrolysis of Tween 80
D. Catalase test at 68C
B. Niacin and nitrate-reduction tests
127
Which of the following are slow growers?
A. Mycobacterium kansasii
B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulase complex
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
128
Which differential test used for identifying the sepsis of mycobacterium splits phenolphthalein from tripotassium phenolphthalein-sulfate within 2-3 days?
A. Catalase test
B. Tween 80 hydrolysis
C. Arylsulfatase test
D. Nitrate reduction test
C. Arylsulfatase test
129
Which of the following is used for the identification of Mycobacteria?
A. Biochemical reactions
B. Pigment production
C. Growth rate
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
130
One tube of Lowenstein-Jensen medium is incubated covered with foil and one tube is incubated uncovered. When is the covered tube observed?
A. When growth appears on the uncovered tube
B. After 1 week of incubation
C. After 2 weeks of incubation
D. At any time
A. When growth appears on the uncovered tube
131
Which of the following belong to Group IV (rapid growers)?
A. Mycobacterium gordonae
B. Mycobacterium smegmatis
C. Mycobacterium phlei
D. B and C
D. B and C
132
What are “lepra” cells?
A. Neutrophils containing gram-negative cocci?
B. Basophils containing gram-positive diplococci
C. Macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli
D. Red blood cells containing acid-fast bacilli
C. Macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli
133
Acid-fast rods in a specimen from nasal mucosa?
A. Are diagnostic for leprosy
B. Must be cultured on Hansen’s agar for definitive identification
C. Are called “lepra cells”
D. Are not a diagnostic point
D. Are not a diagnostic point
134
The Fite-Faraco acid fast stain is different from other acid-fast stains because it uses:
A. Hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a counterstain
B. Carbol gential violet rather than safranin as a counterstain
C. Malachite green rather than hematoxylin as counterstain
D. India ink with no counterstain
A. Hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a counterstain
135
The specimen is usually used for the diagnosis of Hansen’s disease?
A. Tissue juice
B. Blood
C. Sputum
D. Urine
A. Tissue juice
136
“Lumpy jaw” is caused by:
A. Nocardia brasiliensis
B. Tricophyton rubrum
C. Actinomyces israelii
D. Microsporum canis
C. Actinomyces israelii
137
Which of the following is anaerobic?
A. Actinomyces
B. Nocardia
C. Mycobacterium
D. Bordetella
A. Actinomyces
138
Which of the following is urease-positive?
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. Nocardia
D. Chlamydia
C. Nocardia
139
Nocardia will grow on any media that does not contain:
A. Antibiotics
B. Blood serum
C. Peptone
D. Agar
A. Antibiotics
140
Match the organism with its disease:
H. influenzae
A. Normal flora in respiratory tract
B. Pink eye
C. Ulcerative chancroid
D. Meningitis
D. Meningitis
141
Match the organism with its disease:
H. ducreyi
A. Normal flora in respiratory tract
B. Pink eye
C. Ulcerative chancroid
D. Meningitis
C. Ulcerative chancroid
142
Match the organism with its disease:
H. aegypticus
A. Normal flora in respiratory tract
B. Pink eye
C. Ulcerative chancroid
D. Meningitis
B. Pink eye
143
Match the organism with its disease:
H. haemolyticus
A. Normal flora in respiratory tract
B. Pink eye
C. Ulcerative chancroid
D. Meningitis
A. Normal flora in respiratory tract
144
Which medium is preferred for the culture of most Haemophilus?
A. Nutrient agar
B. Tryptic soy agar
C. Bordet-Gengou plates
D. Enriched chocolate agar
D. Enriched chocolate agar
145
A fastidious, small to filamentous, gram-negative rod from a nasopharyngeal swab is most likely to be:
A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Branhamella catarrhalis
D. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Haemophilus influenzae
146
Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies which of the following for culture of Haemophilus?
A. Factor I
B. Factor III
C. X factor
D. V factor
D. V factor
147
What type of blood is used in blood agar plates for better production of beta hemolysis of Haemophilus?
A. Horse
B. Sheep
C. Human
D. Rabbit
A. Horse
148
Which of the following organisms causes whooping cough?
A. Haemophilus haemolyticus
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Bordetella pertussis
149
Which of the following species of Bordetella are urease and oxidase-positive?
A. Parapertussis
B. Bronchiseptica
C. Pertussis
D. NOTA
B. Bronchiseptica
150
The preferred medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is:
A. Bordet-Gengou medium
B. Chocolate agar
C. Charcoal-cephalexin agar
D. Clotted rabbit blood
C. Charcoal-cephalexin agar
151
A Brucella isolate that does not produce H2S, does not require CO2, and is not inhibited by thionin or basic fuchsin is probably which species of Brucella?
A. Brucella canis
B. Brucella abortus, biotype 1
C. Brucella suis, biotype 1
D. Brucella melitensis, biotype 1
D. Brucella melitensis, biotype 1
152
A gram-negative, fastidious bacillus that has been isolated from air-conditioning towers is:
A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Brucella abortus
C. Edwardsiella tarda
D. Legionella pneumophila
D. Legionella pneumophila
153
A gram-negative, fastidious bacillus that is difficult to stain by the gram stain is:
A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Brucella abortus
C. Edwardsiella tarda
D. Legionella pneumophila
D. Legionella pneumophila
154
A relatively slow growing and fastidious, gram-negative rod that produces a characteristic brown pigment on Feeley-Gorman agar is:
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Brucella melitensis
B. Legionella pneumophila
155
At the present time, which of the following is most sensitive for the diagnosis of infections with Legionella pneumophila?
A. Demonstration of a significant rise in antibody titer
B. Isolation of organism by culture
C. Direct visualization of the organism in tissue
D. Detection of soluble microbial products in body fluids
B. Isolation of organism by culture
156
The best medium for the isolation of Legionella is:
A. Iron-cystine agar
B. Campy-thio agar
C. V agar
D. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
D. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
157
What does the campy gas mixture consist of?
A. 10% CO2
B. 5% O2
C. 85% nitrogen
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
158
“Rice water” stools often contain:
A. A pure culture of Vibrio cholerae
B. Toxigenic Clostridium botulinum
C. Toxigenic Staphylococcus aureus
D. Undigested aflatoxin-contaminated rice kernels
A. A pure culture of Vibrio cholerae
159
A curve, gram-negative rod that is nonfermentive, nitrate-positive and microaerophilic is:
A. Flavobacterium
B. Spirillum minus
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Leptospira
C. Campylobacter jejuni
160
Campylobacter is a/an:
A. Obligate microaerophile
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Obligate anaerobe
A. Obligate microaerophile
161
A gram-negative, slender, curved rod with a single polar flagellum is the cause of gastroenteritis and best isolated on:
A. Sheep blood agar
B. Human blood Tween agar
C. Campy blood agar
D. XLD agar
C. Campy blood agar
162
“Clue cells” may be found in infections with:
A. Campylobacter coli
B. Gardnerella vaginalis
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Brucella canis
B. Gardnerella vaginalis
163
Mycoplasmas are not true bacteria because they:
A. Have 4 nuclei
B. Grow rapidly
C. Are anaerobic
D. Have no cell wall
D. Have no cell wall
164
Which of the following microorganism form colonies that are embedded in the agar giving a fried egg appearance?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
165
What is the best method for the identification of Mycoplasma species?
A. Nitrate reduction test
B. Inhibition of growth by specific antisera
C. Radial immunodiffusion test
D. Production of acetoin
B. Inhibition of growth by specific antisera
166
What is the purpose of enrichment fluid media when culturing Enterobacteriaceae?
A. Extends lag phase of normal flora
B. Decreases lag phase of pathogens
C. Extends lag phase of pathogens
D. A and B
D. A and B
167
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
eosin Y and methylene blue
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
168
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
lactose and sucrose
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
B. Holt-Harris medium
169
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
lactose only
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
C. Levine’s EMB agar
170
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
crystal violet
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
A. MacConkey medium
171
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
bile salts
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
A. MacConkey medium
172
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
neutral red
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
A. MacConkey medium
173
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
lactose
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
A. MacConkey medium
174
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
black or purple colonies
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
175
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
brick red colonies
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
A. MacConkey medium
176
Match the items with one or more of the media from the choices:
colorless colonies
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
A. MacConkey medium
B. Holt-Harris medium
C. Levine’s EMB agar
177
Non-fermenters produce what reaction in triple sugar iron agar (TSI)?
A. Alkaline slant, alkaline or neutral butt
B. Acid slant, acid butt
C. Alkaline slant, alkaline butt
D. Alkaline slant, acid butt
A. Alkaline slant, alkaline or neutral butt
178
What is the hydrogen sulfide indicator in triple sugar iron agar?
A. Tryptophan
B. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Ferric ammonium citrate
D. Alpha-naphthol
B. Sodium thiosulfate
179
IMViC is a series of which of the following tests?
A. Indole, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, citrate
B. Indole, motility, Voges-Proskauer, carbohydrate
C. Inositol, mannitol, Voges-Proskauer, citrate
D. Inositol, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, carbohydrate
A. Indole, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, citrate
180
What is the indicator in the methyl red test?
A. Bromthymol blue
B. Phenol red
C. Bromcresol purple
D. Methyl red
D. Methyl red
181
Most Enterobacteriaceae give what type of methyl red and Voges-Proskauer reactions?
A. Opposite
B. Similar
C. Identical
D. NOTA
A. Opposite
182
What is the indicator in Simmons citrate agar?
A. Phenol red
B. Bromthymol blue
C. Bromcresol purple
D. Neutral red
B. Bromthymol blue
183
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
glucose (dextrose)
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
184
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
lactose only
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
185
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
lactose, sucrose, salicin
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
D. Hektoen enteric agar
186
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
ferrous sulfate
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
187
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
phenol red
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
E. Brilliant green agar
188
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
brilliant green only; inhibitor for gram-positive organisms and coliforms
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
E. Brilliant green agar
189
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
bile salts and brilliant green
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
190
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
ferric (ammonium) citrate+ sodium thiosulfate
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
191
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
xylose, lactose, sucrose
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
192
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
D. Hektoen enteric agar
193
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
neutral red
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
194
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
red colonies
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
195
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
colorless colonies
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
196
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
red colonies with black centers
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
197
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
black colonies surrounded by black zone with metallic sheen
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
198
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
green colonies
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
D. Hektoen enteric agar
199
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
blue green colonies with black centers
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
D. Hektoen enteric agar
200
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
orange-salmon pink colonies
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
D. Hektoen enteric agar
201
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
citrate to inhibit coliforms and Proteus
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
202
Match the items with one or more media from the choices:
whitish “snowflake” colony surrounded by brilliant red agar
A. Salmonella-Shigella (SS)
B. Bismuth-sulfite agar (BS)
C. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
D. Hektoen enteric agar
E. Brilliant green agar
E. Brilliant green agar
203
Which of the following amino acids are used in the test for decarboxylase?
A. Cadaverine, putrescine, ornithine
B. Ornithine, arginine, cadaverine
C. Lysine, arginine, omithine
D. Arginine, putrescine, cadaverine
C. Lysine, arginine, omithine
204
Testing 3 amino acids would require 4 tubes. Why?
A. 2 tubes are needed for testing lysine
B. 2 tubes are needed for testing arginine
C. 1 tube is needed for a control
D. Only 3 tubes are needed
C. 1 tube is needed for a control
205
Which of the following is an enzyme that removes the amino group (NH2) from an amino acid?
A. Decarboxylase
B. Urease
C. Gelatinase
D. Deaminase
D. Deaminase
206
Organisms that produce urease do what to the medium?
A. Produce phenylpyruvic acid
B. Liquefy the medium
C. Hydrolyze urea to NH4OH
D. Produce hydrogen sulfide
C. Hydrolyze urea to NH4OH
207
Hydrogen sulfide production, other than in triple sugar iron agar, requires:
A. An organic source of sulfur
B. A source of metal
C. A buffer
D. A and B
D. A and B
208
What color indicates a negative result in the malonate utilization test?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. A and B
D. A and B
209
Gelatinase breaks down gelatin to:
A. Sodium malonate
B. Amino acids
C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. Acetoin
B. Amino acids
210
What indicates a positive DNAse result after 0.1N HCl is added to the plate?
A. Gels on refrigeration
B. Green slant
C. Agar becomes cloudy
D. Agar clears around the colony
D. Agar clears around the colony
211
The DNAse test is based on:
A. Color
B. Turbidity indicating growth in a medium containing DNA
C. Destruction of sugars in the culture medium
D. Product detection of DNA degradation by DNAse
C. Destruction of sugars in the culture medium
D. Product detection of DNA degradation by DNAse
212
If the negative nitrate reduction test does not change color after the powdered zinc is added, how is it reported?
A. Positive
B. Doubtful
C. Negative
D. Do not report
A. Positive
213
Salmonella, Shigella, Escherichia coli, and Serratia are all:
A. Dextrose – negative
B. Lactose – negative
C. Common hospital-acquired urinary tract infectious agents
D. Members of enterobacteriaceae
D. Members of enterobacteriaceae
214
What is the purpose of the ONPG test?
A. Determines the amount of glucose
B. Determines the fermentation of sucrose
C. Determines the amount of sucrose
D. Detects slow lactose fermenters
D. Detects slow lactose fermenters
215
An organism isolated from a urine culture has the following reactions?
Gram-negative rod
TSI = A/AG + G; IMViC ++--; motile; urease-negative
A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Serratia marcescens
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Escherichia coli
D. Escherichia coli
216
An organism isolated from a blood culture has the following reactions:
Gram-negative rod
TSI = A/A + G; IMViC --++; motile; lysine decarboxylase – negative; no capsule
Which of the following organisms is it?
A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Serratia marcescens
A. Enterobacter cloacae
217
following reactions:
Gram-negative rod, urease and phenylalanine deaminase positive
TSI = K/A + G, -H2S; lysine decarboxylase negative and ornithine decarboxylase positive; motility positive or negative
Which of the following organisms is it?
A. Proteus mirabilis
B. Providencia alcalifaciens
C. Morganella morganii
D. Proteus vulgaris
C. Morganella morganii
218
An organism isolated from a stool culture has the following reactions:
Gram negative rod; urease and phenylalanine deaminase negative
TSI = K/A-G, -H2S; lysine decarboxylase negative; nonmotile
Which of the following organisms is it?
A. Salmonella subgroup 3 (Arizona)
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Shigella spp.
D. Citrobacter freundil
C. Shigella spp.
219
Which of the following allows viability of acid production by oxidization-fermentation (O-F) medium?
A. Carbohydrate content is high
B. Sodium chloride content is low
C. Peptone content is low
D. Peptone content is high
C. Peptone content is low
220
An organism isolated from a stool culture has the following reactions:
Gram-negative rod; urease and phenylalanine deaminase negative
TSI = K/A + G, +H2S; motile; lysine decarboxylase positive, indole positive
Which of the following organisms is it?
A. Salmonella spp.
B. Edwardsiella tarda
C. Citrobacter fruendii
D. Salmonella subgroup 3 (Arizona)
B. Edwardsiella tarda
221
Which of the following is oxidase-positive?
A. Yersinia enterocolitica
B. Aeromonas hydrophila
C. Vibrio cholera
D. B and C
D. B and C
222
Which of the following is the reagent used for the String test?
A. Methyl red
B. Bromthymol blue
C. Carbohydrate
D. 0.5% sodium deoxycholate
D. 0.5% sodium deoxycholate
223
Any organism that is indole-positive and nitrate reduction positive is also:
A. ONPG positive
B. Cholera red-positive
C. Ornithine decarboxylase-negative
D. Phenylalanine deaminase-positive
B. Cholera red-positive
224
How many tubes of Oxidation-Fermentation media is (are) inoculated and what precautions should be taken?
A. 1 tube, under aerobic conditions
B. 2 tubes, one covered with oil so air is excluded
C. 3 tubes, under anaerobic conditions
D. 2 tubes, under aerobic conditions
B. 2 tubes, one covered with oil so air is excluded
225
Which of the following is oxidase-positive?
A. Moraxella osloensis
B. Xanthomonas maltophilia
C. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype anitratus
D. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype iwoffi
A. Moraxella osloensis
226
Which of the following is part of the normal flora of the skin?
A. Alcaligenes faecalis
B. Xanthomonas maltophilia
C. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype iwoffi
D. Moraxella osloensis
C. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype iwoffi
227
What does PRAS mean?
A. prereduced, aerobically sterilized
B. prereduced, anaerobically sterilized
C. phosphate, rifampin, aerobically sterilized
D. penicillin, rifampin, anaerobically sterilized
B. prereduced, anaerobically sterilized
228
Why should thioglycollate broth be boiled for 10 minutes before being used?
A. to drive off oxygen
B. to drive off hydrogen
C. to activate the thioglycolate
D. to deactivate the thioglycolate
A. to drive off oxygen
229
Nagler agar is as selective medium for
A. Bacteroides
B. Propionibacterium
C. Clostridium
D. Arachnia
C. Clostridium
230
Peptococcus and Peptostreptococcus are both:
A. Anaerobic, gram-positive cocci
B. Microaerophilic
C. Aerobic, gram-negative rods
D. Anaerobic, gram-positive rods
A. Anaerobic, gram-positive cocci
231
Propionibacteria are:
A. Anaerobic, gram-positive rods
B. Anaerobic, gram-negative rods
C. Aerobic, gram-negative rods
D. Anaerobic, gram-positive rods
A. Anaerobic, gram-positive rods
232
A gram-negative, anaerobic coccus that produces a red fluorescence under ultraviolet light is:
A. Peptococcus
B. Veilonella
C. Neisseria
D. Fusobacterium
B. Veilonella
233
Which anaerobic, gram-positive rods produce terminal "lollipop" spores?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Eubacterium lentum
C. Clostridium butytiricum
D. Bacteroides ureolyticus
A. Clostridium tetani
234
Which of the following anaerobes causes an antimicrobial-associated diarrhea?
A. Clostridium ramosum
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Clostridium butyricum
D. Eubacterium alactolyticum
B. Clostridium difficile
235
Which of the following clostridia produce a double zone of hemolysis around colonies on blood agar?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Clostridium sphenoides
D. Clostridium difficile
A. Clostridium perfringens
236
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is incubated:
A. Aerobically, in a sealed container, in carbon dioxide
B. Anaerobically in a GASPAK
C. Aerobically
D. None of the above
A. Aerobically, in a sealed container, in carbon dioxide
237
A positive urease test for ureaplasmas is indicated by a:
A. Clear zone surrounding the colonies
B. Green zone surrounding the colonies
C. Brown halo surrounding the colonies
D. Red halo surrounding the colonies
C. Brown halo surrounding the colonies
238
Which of the following organisms produces no haze in a broth culture?
A. Mycoplasma hominis
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Ureaplasma urealyticum
D. Chlamydia psittaci
C. Ureaplasma urealyticum
239
What is the cause of primary atypical pneumonia?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
240
Which of the following has both ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
A. Rickettsia
B. Chlamydia
C. Viruses
D. A and B
D. A and B
241
Rickettsias are transmitted by:
A. Mosquitoes
B. Aerosol
C. Contamination
D. Arthropod vectors
D. Arthropod vectors
242
Which of the following is not caused by Rickettsia?
A. Typhus
B. Q fever
C. Typhoid fever
D. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
C. Typhoid fever
243
Which of the following have a bacterial type cell wall?
A. Viruses and Chlamydia
B. Mycoplasmas and Chlamydia
C. Rickettsias and Chlamydia
D. Rickettsias and viruses
C. Rickettsias and Chlamydia
244
Which of the following is a small, nonmotile, coccobacillus that is cultured in the yolk sac of a chick embryo?
A. Chlamydia
B. Mycoplasma
C. Rickettsia
D. Bifidobacterium
C. Rickettsia
245
Chlamydia are cultured in:
A. Yolk sac of chick embryo
B. McCoy cells
C. Blood agar
D. Tissue culture
B. McCoy cells
246
Genital cultures for sexually transmitted diseases include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Herpes Simplex Virus
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Campylobacter jejuni
247
"TRIC" conjunctivitis includes which of the following?
A. Inclusion conjunctivitis
B. Trachoma
C. Trench fever
D. A and B
D. A and B
248
Which serological test is done for Chlamydia trachomatis on genital smears?
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
B. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
C. Direct FA using monoclonal antibodies
D. Indirect FA using Chlamydia antigens
C. Direct FA using monoclonal antibodies
249
What is the most common tick-borne disease in the U.S.?
A. Botulism
B. Cholera
C. Lyme disease
D. Legionnaires disease
C. Lyme disease
250
What is erythema chronicum migrans (ECM)?
A. Cardinal sign of Lyme disease at site of tick bite
B. Detects the entry of hookworm larvae
C. Initial stage of psittacosis
D. Rash in rickettsial infections
A. Cardinal sign of Lyme disease at site of tick bite
251
What are broad spectrum antibiotics?
A. Act against gram-negative bacteria
B. Act against gram-positive bacteria
C. Act against bacterial and non-bacterial organisms
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
252
Substances, produced by microorganism, that in very small amounts inhibit other microorganisms are called:
A. Antibiotics
B. Antibody
C. Antiseptic
D. A and B
A. Antibiotics
253
Bacteriostatic agents do which of the following?
A. Cause death of microorganisms
B. Inhibit the growth of the organism
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
B. Inhibit the growth of the organism
254
The time it takes half a dose of antibiotic to disappear from the blood is called the:
A. Full-life
B. Absorption time
C. Half-life
D. Real-life
C. Half-life
255
Resistance to an antibiotic can be transferred from a resistant to a susceptible organism by:
A. Selective pressure
B. Mutation
C. Innate passage
D. Extrachromosomal plasmid
D. Extrachromosomal plasmid
256
In the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the 0.5 McFarland nephelometer standard is used to:
A. Measure the thickness of the media in the petri plate
B. Determine how close the antibiotic disks should be placed
C. Adjust turbidity of the inoculum
D. All of the above
C. Adjust turbidity of the inoculum
257
After inoculating the Mueller-Hinton plates for the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, how long should the plates dry before adding the disk?
A. 3 to 5 minutes
B. Not more than 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. A and B
D. A and B
258
How does one measure the zone of growth inhibition for the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test?
A. On the underside of the plate
B. With the unaided eye
C. Using a ruler, caliper or template
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
259
What does the size of the zone of growth inhibition correlate with if the correct procedure has been used?
A. Maximum inhibitory concentration
B. Minimum inhibitory concentration
C. Minimum lethal concentration
D. Minimum bactericidal concentration
B. Minimum inhibitory concentration
260
If there is too much moisture on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton plate when performing a Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, what will happen to the growth?
A. Larger zone
B. Smaller zone
C. Confluent zone
D. B and C
B. Smaller zone
261
Which of the following are the best indicators of poor storage?
A. Chloramphenicol and cephalosporins
B. Lincomycin and penicillin
C. Penicillin and methicillin
D. Methicillin and lincomycin
C. Penicillin and methicillin
262
In Mueller-Hinton agar, what can cause increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to aminoglycosides?
A. Decreased peptone
B. Decreased sodium chloride
C. Increased calcium and magnesium
D. Decreased calcium and magnesium
C. Increased calcium and magnesium
263
When doing a susceptibility test with sulfonamides, there are two concentric zones around the disk. How should the zone be measured?
A. Measure the diameter of the inner zoner
B. Measure the diameter of the outer zone
C. Measure both zones and take an average size
D. Zone cannot be measured
B. Measure the diameter of the outer zone
264
The lowest concentration of drug that will kill all but the minimum defined proportion of viable organisms after incubation for a fixed time under a given set of conditions is the definition of the:
A. Minimum lethal concentration
B. Minimum bactericidal concentration
C. Maximum lethal concentration
D. A and B
D. A and B
265
For quality control when monitoring reagents, how often should reagent disks be checked?
A. When container is first opened
B. Once each week of use
C. Once each month
D. A and B
D. A and B
266
How often should catalase, oxidase, and coagulase reagents be tested?
A. Once each day of use
B. Once each week of use
C. When vial is first opened
D. A and C
D. A and C
267
Record temperatures of incubators, water baths, heating blocks, refrigerators, freezers, and thermometers:
A. At each time of use
B. At the beginning of each day
C. At the end of each day
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
268
Check the face velocity of safety cabinets each:
A. Day
B. Week
C. Month
D. Year
C. Month
269
Settings of rpms marked on the face of the rheostat control on the centrifuge should be checked once:
A. Weekly
B. Daily
C. Monthly
D. Every other week
C. Monthly
