MYCOLOGY Flashcards

(96 cards)

1
Q

Characteristically, fungi:
A. Are members of the plant kingdom
B. Lack roots and stems
C. Lack chlorophyll
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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2
Q

Coenocytic hyphae is a synonym for:
A. Septate hyphae
B. Arthroconidia
C. Pseudohyphae
D. Aseptate hyphae

A

D. Aseptate hyphae

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3
Q

Which type of mycoses produce no cellular response by the host?
A. Deep mycoses
B. Cutaneous
C. Superficial mycoses
D. Systemic mycoses

A

C. Superficial mycoses

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4
Q

Arthroconidia on the outside of the hair as well as hyphae within the hair shaft is called:
A. Ectothrix
B. Endothrix
C. Scutula
D. Dimorphic

A

A. Ectothrix

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5
Q

True yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage?
A. Chlamydospores
B. Favic chandeliers
C. Blastoconidia
D. Arthroconidia

A

C. Blastoconidia

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6
Q

Septate hyphae have:
A. No divisions
B. Divisions
C. Pseudohyphae
D. Vegetative parts

A

B. Divisions

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7
Q

Molds with aseptate hyphae produce a specialized hyphal structure called a:
A. Conidiophore
B. Sporangiophore
C. Thallospore
D. Zygospore

A

B. Sporangiophore

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8
Q

The basic, branching, intertwining structures of molds are referred to as:
A. Mycelium
B. Rhizoids
C. Conidia
D. Spores

A

A. Mycelium

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9
Q

Arthroconidia are formed:
A. Directly from the hyphae by fragmentation
B. By daughter cells piching off from portions of the mother cells
C. By knots of twisted hyphae
D. Within the hyphae

A

A. Directly from the hyphae by fragmentation

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10
Q

Mycelia within the colony that grow into the substrate are called:
A. Aerial hyphae
B. Conidiophores
C. Macroconidia
D. Vegetative hyphae

A

D. Vegetative hyphae

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11
Q

Chlamydospores that grow within the hyphae are referred to as:
A. Spirals
B. Terminal
C. Intercalary
D. Sessile

A

C. Intercalary

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12
Q

Budding forms in which the daughter cell forms as a bud from a single mother cell or forms laterally from a mycelium or pseudomycelium are called:
A. Blastospores
B. Chlamydospores
C. Ascospores
D. Sporangiospores

A

A. Blastospores

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13
Q

Which of the following are the result of asexual reproduction?
A. Arthrospores
B. Ascospores
C. Zygospores
D. B and C

A

B. Ascospores

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14
Q

Conidia are:
A. Asexual spores
B. Sexual spores
C. Vegetative spores
D. Asexual or sexual spores

A

A. Asexual spores

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15
Q

Macroconidia are usually:
A. Multicellular
B. Unicellular
C. Square
D. Rectangular

A

A. Multicellular

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16
Q

The swollen portion of the conidiophore is called the:
A. Spherule
B. Sporangium
C. Sterigmata
D. Vesicle

A

D. Vesicle

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17
Q

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to true yeasts?
A. Ascospores are produced in the sexual phase
B. Blastospores are the sexual reproductive form
C. Saccharomyces is a representative of this group
D. They exhibit thermal dimorphism

A

D. They exhibit thermal dimorphism

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18
Q

Conidia with rough or spiny surfaces are described as:
A. Catenate
B. Echinulate
C. Pedunculate
D. Sessile

A

B. Echinulate

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19
Q

Conidia in chains are said to be:
A. Catenate
B. Echinulate
C. Pedunculate
D. Sessile

A

A. Catenate

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20
Q

When preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements, why is the slide gently heated?
A. Preserves the specimen
B. Increases the rate of clearing
C. Mounts the specimen
D. AOTA

A

B. Increases the rate of clearing

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21
Q

Which of the following acts as a clearing agent to eliminate debris and make fungal elements more prominent in skin, hair, and nails?
A. Lactophenol cotton blue
B. 10% KOH
C. 70% alcohol
D. Ether

A

B. 10% KOH

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22
Q

What is the stain in Aman medium?
A. Cotton blue
B. Methylene blue
C. Prussian blue
D. Bromothymol blue

A

A. Cotton blue

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23
Q

Which of the following is negative stain?
A. Periodic Acid-Schiff stain
B. Giemsa stain
C. Acridine orange stain
D. India ink stain

A

D. India ink stain

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24
Q

In the periodic acid-Schiff stain (PAS), what colors denote the presence of glycogen?
A. Blue to green
B. Red to violet
C. Pink to red
D. Yellow to brown

A

B. Red to violet

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25
Which of the following stains is used for sharp delineation of fungal elements by fluorescent microscopy? A. Gomori methenamine silver B. Calcofluor white C. Hematoxylin D. Eosin
B. Calcofluor white
26
When the fungus wall is invisible with the hematoxylin and eosin stain, which of the following may be used to re-stain the slide? A. Acid-fast stain B. Periodic Acid-Schiff stain C. Gram stain (Hucker modification) D. Gomori methenamine silver stain
B. Periodic Acid-Schiff stain
27
Fungal elements in the acridine orange staining procedure: A. Stain red B. Do not stain C. Stain purple D. Fluoresces a green color
D. Fluoresces a green color
28
How does MYCOSEL medium differ from Sabouraud dextrose agar? A. Contains chloramphenicol and cycloheximide B. Does not contain dextrose C. Contains an indicator D. Stimulates the production of chlamydospores
A. Contains chloramphenicol and cycloheximide
29
Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal cultures? A. Sabouraud dextrose agar B. Cornmeal agar C. Staib’s medium D. Rice agar
A. Sabouraud dextrose agar
30
What is the indicator in Dermatophyte Test Medium? A. Methyl red B. Phenol red C. Bromocresol purple D. Methyl orange
B. Phenol red
31
If 1% glucose is added to cornmeal agar, Trichophyton rubrum can be differentiated from Trichophyton mentagrophytes by the production of: A. Hyphae B. Ascospores C. Pigment D. Sporangia
C. Pigment
32
Fungi should be incubated at: A. 25-30 C B. 10-15 C C. 35-37 C D. 50-56 C
A. 25-30 C
33
How long should fungus cultures be held before reporting as negative? A. 5 days B. 14 days C. 48 hours D. 30 days
D. 30 days
34
Which of the following antibiotics can be added to media for the isolation of pathogenic fungi from contaminated material? A. Penicillin and streptomycin B. Vancomycin and nystatin C. Cycloheximide and chloramphenicol D. Streptomycin and nystatin
C. Cycloheximide and chloramphenicol
35
Which of the following media stimulates the production of chlamydospores? A. Brain-heart infusion blood agar B. Czapek’s agar C. Cornmeal agar D. Urease test medium
C. Cornmeal agar
36
Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus? A. Urease medium B. Rice agar C. Czapek’s agar D. Ascospore agar
C. Czapek’s agar
37
A positive result for the hair-baiting test is: A. V-shaped penetration of the hair shaft B. The production of germ tubes C. The production of red pigment D. The production of brown pigment
A. V-shaped penetration of the hair shaft
38
A tinea infection is commonly referred to as: A. Taeniasis B. Ringworm C. Pityriasis D. Piedra
B. Ringworm
39
Which of these organisms is the usual cause of white piedra? A. Trichosporon beigelii B. Microsporum canis C. Piedraia horate D. Malasseizia furfur
A. Trichosporon beigelii
40
Tinea unguium is a dermatophyte infection of the: A. Nail plates B. Beard C. Palm of hand D. Feet
A. Nail plates
41
The favus type of tinea capitis is caused by which of the following? A. Trichophyton violaceum B. Microsporum audouinii C. Trichophyton schoenleinii D. Candida albicans
C. Trichophyton schoenleinii
42
Which of the following is/are anthrophilic? A. Microsporum audouinii B. Microsporum canis C. Microsporum gypseum D. All of these organisms
A. Microsporum audouinii
43
Hairs infected with which of these dermatophytes fluoresce under Wood’s lamp? A. Trichophyton rubrum B. Trichophyton tonsurans C. Microsporum canis D. Epidermophyton floccosum
C. Microsporum canis
44
Colonization by dermatophytic fungi of the hair, nails, and skin is called: A. Mycetoma B. Chromoblastomycosis C. Phaeohyphomycosis D. Dermatophytoses
D. Dermatophytoses
45
Which of the following fungi is/are cause of dermatophytosis? A. Epidermophyton B. Trichophyton C. Microsporum D. AOTA
D. AOTA
46
Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with smooth walls? A. Fonsecaea pedrosoi B. Microsporum audouinii C. Epidermophyton floccosum D. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
47
Which statement is NOT true? A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes is urease positive B. Trichophyton mentagrophytes penetrates the hair shaft C. Trichophyton rubrum is noted for its “balloon” forms D. Trichophyton rubrum produces a red pigment on some media
C. Trichophyton rubrum is noted for its “balloon” forms
48
Which of the following produces small, very slow growing colonies and has favic chandeliers? A. Trichophyton tonsurans B. Microsporum canis C. Trichophyton schoenleinii D. Epidermophyton floccosum
C. Trichophyton schoenleinii
49
Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis? A. Flowerette conidia B. Asteroid body C. Sclerotic body D. Germ tube
C. Sclerotic body
50
Which of the following are found in the yeast phase of Sporothrix schenckii on culture medium at 37C? A. Sclerotic bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Cigar-shaped yeast cells D. Germ tube
C. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
51
Which of the following is the result of an antigen-antibody reaction in cases of sporotrichosis? A. Sclerotic body B. Flowerette conidia C. Sleeve conidia D. Asteroid body
D. Asteroid body
52
In older mold cultures of Sporothrix schenckii, single conidia borne along the sides of the hyphae are referred as: A. Cigar-shaped B. Flowerette C. Asteroid body D. Sleeve
D. Sleeve
53
Which of the following infections is caused by dematiaceous saprobes that invade organs of immunosuppressed hosts? A. Phaeohyphomycosis B. Chromoblastomycosis C. Hyalohyphomycosis D. Dermatophytoses
A. Phaeohyphomycosis
54
The most common cause of mycetoma (maduramycosis) in the US is: A. Pseudoallescheria boydii B. Nocardia asteroides C. Rhinosporidium seeberi D. Actinomadura madurae
A. Pseudoallescheria boydii
55
Dematiaceous fungi have colonies with: A. Surface and reverse side light B. Surface and reverse side dark C. Surface light and reverse side dark D. Surface dark and reverse side light
B. Surface and reverse side dark
56
Which of the following are dematiaceous fungi? A. Sporotrichum and Aspergillus B. Phialophora and Cladosporium C. Penicillium and Acremonium D. Fusarium and Paecilomyces
B. Phialophora and Cladosporium
57
Sclerotic bodies are found in tissue in an infection with: A. Candida B. Cladosporium C. Chrysosporium D. Coccidioides
B. Cladosporium
58
Infection of chromoblastomycosis is NOT caused by which of the following fungi? A. Exophiala B. Cladosporium C. Phialophora D. Fonsecaea
A. Exophiala
59
A fungus that grows as a mold at 35-37C and a mold at 25C is described as: A. Monomorphic B. Mycelial C. Dimorphic D. Eumycotic
A. Monomorphic
60
True fungi that produce hyphae and spore forms are known as: A. Eumycotic B. Monomorphic C. Dimorphic D. Yeasts
A. Eumycotic
61
Which of the following causes an infection by hyaline saprobes that invade most tissues or body fluids of immunosuppressed hosts? A. Aspergillus B. Penicillium marneffei C. Fusarium moniliforme D. AOTA
D. AOTA
62
If you observe cleistothecia containing ascospores, report the organism as: A. Scedosporidium apiospermum B. Actinomyces israelii C. Nocardia asteroides D. Pseudoallescheria boydii
D. Pseudoallescheria boydii
63
The actinomycetes are best classified as: A. Acid-fast bacteria B. Eumycetes C. Fungus-like bacteria D. Opportunistic fungi
C. Fungus-like bacteria
64
Which of the following is anaerobic, gram-positive but not acid-fast, and does not stain with fungal stains? A. Nocardia asteroides B. Nocardia brasiliensis C. Actinomyces israelii D. Actinomadura madurae
C. Actinomyces israelii
65
Which of the following has a capsule? A. Candida albicans B. Geotrichum candidum C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
66
When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud dextrose agar, which of the following antibiotics should not be in the medium? A. Trimethoprim B. Vancomycin C. Aminoglycoside D. Cycloheximide
D. Cycloheximide
67
In the direct microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid, which of the following can be mistaken for a lymphocyte? A. Candida B. Cryptococcus C. Geotrichum D. Blastomyces
B. Cryptococcus
68
Why does Cryptococcus neoformans produce a brown color on Birdseed or staib agar? A. Assimilates creatinine B. Assimilates niacin C. Ferments glucose D. Ferments trehalose
A. Assimilates creatinine
69
Cryptococcus neoformans has the following biochemical reaction/s: A. Urease positive B. Inositol positive C. Nitrate negative D. AOTA
D. AOTA
70
Cryptococcus neoformans latex agglutination test on spinal fluid detects cryptococcal: A. Creatinine B. Antibody C. Carbohydrate D. Antigen
D. Antigen
71
Candida albicans produces: A. Blastospores B. Chlamydospores C. Pseudohyphae D. AOTA
D. AOTA
72
Which of the following is another name for oral candidiasis? A. Ringworm B. Thrush C. Barber’s itch D. Favus
B. Thrush
73
A presumptive identification of Candida albicans can be made by checking the ability of the organism to produce what structure with serum? A. Blastospores B. Chlamydospores C. Germ tube D. Pseudohyphae
C. Germ tube
74
Cornmeal agar plus Tween 80 is used to identify Candida albicans through the organism’s production of: A. Capsules B. Chlamydospores C. Germ tubes D. Sporangia
B. Chlamydospores
75
Geotrichum candidum colonies appear as: A. Slow growing, dematiaceous growth B. Rapid, yeastlike growth C. Slow growing, violet, waxy growth D. Rapid growing, suede-like growth
B. Rapid, yeastlike growth
76
Laboratory workers are in no danger when handling which form of dimorphic fungi? A. Yeast form (tissue) B. Hyphal form (culture) C. A and B D. Neither A and B
A. Yeast form (tissue)
77
Sepedonium produces spiny, tuberculate macroconidia but is a: A. Dimorphic fungus B. Yeastlike fungus C. Monomorphic mold D. A and B
C. Monomorphic mold
78
Which of the following are produced by Geotrichum candidum? A. Rectangular, evenly staining arthroconidia B. Small, budding yeast cells C. Cigar-shaped yeast cells D. Tuberculate macroconidia
A. Rectangular, evenly staining arthroconidia
79
Which of the following is/are dimorphic fungi? A. Histoplasma capsulatum B. Blastomyces dermatitidis C. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis D. AOTA
D. AOTA
80
The tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum, characteristically shows: A. Pseudohyphae with blastospores B. Yeast forms with multiple buds C. Yeast cells within macrophages D. Tuberculate chlamydospores
C. Yeast cells within macrophages
81
The characteristic structures of the mycelial phase of Histoplasma capsulatum are: A. Blastospores B. Arthrospores with a germ tube in one corner C. Tuberculate chlamydospores D. Yeast cells usually in monocytes
C. Tuberculate chlamydospores
82
Leishmania can be differentiated from Histoplasma because Leishmania has: A. A different size B. A different shape C. Central nuclear material D. NOTA
C. Central nuclear material
83
Which of the following tests may be used instead of conversion when identifying dimorphic fungi? A. Exoantigen test B. String test C. Immunofluorescence test D. ELISA
A. Exoantigen test
84
In the mycelia form, Blastomyces dermatitidis produces: A. Conidiophores that resemble lollipops B. Wide, septate hyphae C. Broad, nonseptate hyphae D. Delicate, branching acid-fast hyphae
A. Conidiophores that resemble lollipops
85
A yeast form with a single broad-based bud would identify an organism as: A. Blastomyces B. Coccidioides C. Histoplasma D. Sporothrix
A. Blastomyces
86
The characteristic structures of the mycelia phase of blastomycosis are: A. Clusters of blastospores B. Small pear-shaped conidia called lollipops C. Numerous intercalary or terminal chlamydospores D. Spherules filled with endospores
B. Small pear-shaped conidia called lollipops
87
Yeastlike forms with multiple buds are characteristic forms associated with: A. Blastomyces dermatitidis B. Candida albicans C. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis D. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
88
Immature spherules of Coccidioides are differentiated from yeast forms of Blastomyces because: A. They produce buds B. Their buds have a wide base C. Their buds have a narrow base D. They never bud
D. They never bud
89
Which of the following fungi is a major biohazard laboratory personnel? A. Coccidioides immitis B. Cryptococcus neoformans C. Fonsecaea pedrosol D. Histoplasma capsulatum
A. Coccidioides immitis
90
The exoantigen test is a/an: A. Indirect passive agglutination test B. Microscopic immunodiffusion test C. Neutralization test D. Rocket electrophoresis technique
B. Microscopic immunodiffusion test
91
In the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsulatum, which bands are present in a positive result? A. H and/or M B. J and/or L C. A and/or D D. O and/or P
A. H and/or M
92
When differentiating Histoplasma capsulatum from Leishmania using special fungus stains, Leishmania stains: A. Green B. Red C. Blue D. Will not stain
D. Will not stain
93
Which of the bands in the exoantigen test for Blastomyces dermatitidis is present in a positive result? A. A B. G C. H D. M
A. A
94
Which of the following fungi produces a spherule that is filled with endospores? A. Histoplasma capsulatum B. Coccidioides immitis C. Blastomyces immitis D. Rhisopus arrhizus
B. Coccidioides immitis
95
Zygomycosis is caused by which of the following genera? A. Aspergillus and Rhizopus B. Rhizopus and Aureobasidium C. Mucor and Aspergillus D. Mucor and Rhizopus
D. Mucor and Rhizopus
96
Fungal elements in zygomycosis show hyphae that are: A. Broad and nonseptate B. Broad and septate C. Narrow and septate D. Regular and dichotomous branching
A. Broad and nonseptate