Bacteriology Flashcards
(174 cards)
1
Q
most common bacterial STD in US
A
chlamydia trachomatis
2
Q
exaggerated reflexes
A
neisseria meningitidis
3
Q
inclusion body
A
chlamydia trachomatis
4
Q
Reiter syndrome
A
chlamydia trachomatis
5
Q
Reiter syndrome: who gets it and what are the symptoms
A
young Caucasian males; urethritis, conjunctivitis, polyarthritis
6
Q
cervical and thoracolumbar rigidity
A
neisseria meningitidis
7
Q
purulent discharge and dysuria in men
A
neisseria gonorrhoeae
8
Q
eyelashes turn inward, abrading the cornea
A
inclusion conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia trachomatis
9
Q
variable expression of antigens and pili to escape immune system
A
neisseria gonorrhoeae
10
Q
Opa proteins
A
neisseria gonorrhoeae
11
Q
ophthalmia neonatorum
A
neisseria gonorrhoeae
12
Q
why is there no vaccine for neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A
no polysaccharide capsule and highly variable surface proteins
13
Q
use host tranferrin
A
neisseria meningitidis and neisseria gonorrhoeae
14
Q
do not synthesize peptidoglycan but have highly crosslinked disulfide bonds in outer membrane
A
chlamydia trachomatis
15
Q
petechiae that coalesce into purpura
A
neisseria meningitidis
16
Q
neisseria meningitidis: gram _____, oxidase ______ _____
A
gram negative, oxidase positive diplococci
17
Q
how does bacteriodes fragilis become pathogenic?
A
by becoming more aerotolerant by expressing catalase and superoxide distmutase
18
Q
staphylococcus: gram _____, catalase _____ _____
A
gram positive, catalase positive cocci
19
Q
staphylococcus aureus: gram _____, coagulase _____
A
gram positive coagulase positive
20
Q
catalase test
A
differentiates between gram positive cocci (strep vs. staph)
21
Q
catalase test: streptococcus
A
negative
22
Q
catalase test: staphylococcus
A
positive
23
Q
coagulase test
A
differentiates staphylococcus aureus from other staph (staph aureus is coagulase positive)
24
Q
Protein A: unique to what bacterium and what does it do?
A
staphylococcus aureus; binds Fc portion of host IgG
25
staph hemolysins are __-hemolytic
beta
26
staphylococcus toxins: exo- or entero-toxin?
enterotoxin
27
Scalded Skin Syndrome is caused by what toxin from what bacteria?
exfoliative toxin of staphylococcus aureus
28
where in the body is staphylococcus usually found?
anterior nares
29
where is the primary site of staphylococcus infection?
skin
30
what is impetigo?
highly infectious mixed (staph/strep) infection of skin
31
penicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus
treat with methicillin
32
methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus
treat with vancomycin
33
what is the mechanism behind MRSA?
selection of staphylococcus aureus with mutations in PBPs that have low affinity for penicillin
34
oxygen usage in strep and staph?
facultatively anaerobic
35
which streptococcus strains are beta-hemolytic?
pyogenes, agalactiae, dysgalactiae
36
what bacteria is associated with colon cancer?
streptococcus bovis
37
streptococcus pyogenes is a transient colonizer of the ______
oropharynx
38
streptococcus pyogenes toxins: exo- or endo-toxin?
exotoxins
39
bacteria responsible for Scarlet fever and what toxin is responsible for the rash?
streptococcus pyogenes, Spe toxin
40
what streptococcus pyogenes surface protein binds to Fc portion of antibodies?
M-like proteins
41
M proteins on streptococcus pyogenes: function
block C3b binding
42
what streptococcus pyogenes surface proteins mediate adherence to host cells? (3)
M protein, F protein, lipoteichoic acid
43
infection of mucous membranes, fever, purulent exudate, tonsilitis 2-4 days
streptococcoal pharyngitis caused by streptococcus pyogenes
44
necrotizing fasciitis is caused by what bacteria?
streptococcus pyogenes
45
Rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis are late sequelae of what bacteria?
streptococcus pyogenes
46
Rheumatic fever: symptoms
fever, polyarthritis, carditis
47
glomerunonephritis caused by streptococcus pyogenes: symptoms
fever, blood in urine, edema
48
treatment for streptococcus pyogenes
penicillin
49
streptococcus pneumoniae: components of unique cell wall (2)
C polysaccharide and F antigen
50
all streptococci possess ______
capsules
51
optochin sensitive
streptococcus pneumoniae
52
streptococcus pneumoniae: __-hemolytic
alpha
53
strep throat
streptococcus pyogenes
54
lobar pneumonia
streptococcus pneumoniae
55
which streptococcus causes otitis media?
streptococcus pneumoniae
56
abrupt onset, severe chill, fever, productive cough, blood-tinged sputum, chest pain
streptococcus pneumoniae
57
C polysaccharide
streptococcus pneumoniae
58
gut bacteria that can cause systemic disease
listeria monocytogenes and salmonella
59
can grow in refrigeration and high salt concentrations
listeria monocytogenes
60
listeria monocytogenes: gram _____ ______
gram positive rod
61
listeria monocytogenes: oxygen usage
aerobic
62
listeria monocytogenes: pathogenesis mechanisms (2)
1. able to get out of the phagosome and replicate freely in the cytoplasm
2. polymerize host actin
63
salmonella: gram _____ ______
gram negative rods
64
salmonella replicates within ______
endocytic vacuoles
65
type III secretion system, spacious vacuole
salmonella
66
pet turtles
salmonella
67
gradual fever, headache, anorexia, rose spots
Enteric/Typhoid fever caused by salmonella
68
fever, abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, headache, non-bloody diarrhea
salmonella gastroenteritis
69
makes hydrogen sulfide
salmonella
70
shigella: gram ______
negative
71
Ipa proteins
shigella
72
Ipa proteins: function
instructs cells to engulf shigella
73
shigella: mechanisms of pathogenesis (2)
1. inject Ipa proteins via type III secretion system, gets engulfed by the host cell, lyses vacuole, and replicates free in the cytoplasm
2. polymerizes host actin
74
Shiga toxin is exported by what type secretory pathway?
type II
75
Shiga toxin: mechanism of action
cleaves ribosomal RNA and inhibits protein synthesis
76
produce Shiga toxin (2)
shigella and EHEC
77
undercooked beef, cattle feces
EHEC
78
severe abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, no fever
hemorrhagic colitis caused by EHEC
79
hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS): bacteria
EHEC
80
hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS): symptoms (3)
acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
81
unable to ferment sorbitol
EHEC
82
severe abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, fever
campylobacter
83
Guillain-Barre syndrome
campylobacter
84
symmetric weakness
Guillain-Barre syndrome caused by campylobacter
85
campylobacter: gram ______
negative
86
can grow at 42 degrees (2)
campylobacter and pseudomonas aeruginosa
87
helicobacter: gram ______
negative
88
urease: function, what bacteria possess this enzyme?
allows helicobacter to survive in gastric juice
89
helicobacter: mechanisms of pathogenesis (2)
1. injects CagA by type IV secretion system, induce IL-8 release
2. releases toxin VacA to cause gastric epithelial erosion and alter tight junctions
90
helicobacter toxin
VacA
91
helicobacter: what type secretion system does it use?
type IV
92
gastric ulcers
helicobacter pylori
93
how to test for helicobacter infection
urea breath test
94
urea breath test
helicobacter
95
vibrio: oxidase _____
positive
96
mechanism of cholera toxin
'A' subunit ADP-ribosylates a Gs protein causing cAMP production from adenylyl cyclase --> water efflux
97
uncooked shellfish
vibrios
98
name the 5 gram positive bacterial strains
```
mnemonic: 2C's+2S's+L
clostridium
corynebacteria diphtheriae
staphylococcus
streptococcus
listeria
```
99
cord-like phenotype
mycobacterium tuberculosis
100
mycolic acids: what bacterium and what are they
mycobacterium tuberculosis; long chain fatty acids
101
acid-fast staining
mycobacterium
102
dense lesions in lung visible by X-ray
mycobacterium tuberculosis
103
malaise, weight loss, productive cough, night sweats
mycobacterium tuberculosis
104
what are the characteristics of latent TB?
granulomas, no symptoms, no lesions on X-ray
105
problem with PPD test
does not indicate which species of mycobacterium patient was exposed to
106
quantiferon test: how it works
ELISA that detects IFN-gamma released from blood cells following their incubation with M. tuberculosis-specific proteins
107
what is MDR TB resistant to?
isoniazid and rifampicin
108
which kind of leprosy causes extensive peripheral nerve damage and sensory loss?
tuberculoidal leprosy
109
which kind of leprosy displays many erythematous plaques?
lepromatous leprosy
110
which kind of leprosy is highly infectious?
lepromatous leprosy
111
legionella: gram _____ ______
gram negative rods
112
legionella: oxygen usage
obligate aerobes
113
legionella pneumophila: host in environment
amoeba
114
legionella pneumophila: host in humans
macrophages
115
legionella pneumophila: mechanism of pathogenesis
injects virulence factors into macrophage cyotosol via type IV secretion system, prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion
116
difference between Legionaire's disease and Pontiac fever
Legionaire's symptoms include pneumonia, more fatal
117
pseudomonas: gram _____ ______
gram negative rods
118
pseudomonas: in environment
lives ubiquitously in water and soil
119
biofilms on inanimate objects
pseudomonas
120
oxidize various carbohydrates
pseudomonas aeruginosa
121
produce green pigments
pseudomonas aeruginosa
122
alginate capsule
pseudomonas aeruginosa
123
common cause of death in cystic fibrosis patients
pseudomonas aeruginosa
124
"mucoid" phenotype when present in the lungs
pseudomonas aeruginosa
125
pseudomonas aeruginosa: __-hemolytic
beta
126
pseudomonas aeruginosa: exo- or endo-toxin?
BOTH
127
pseudomonas aeruginosa: endotoxin function, exotoxin function
endotoxin: bioactive component of lipid A, can cause septic shock
exotoxin: directly injected into host cells and result in extensive tissue damage
128
pseudomonas aeruginosa: what does it require for infection?
a breach or underlying deficiency
129
frequently causes disease in burn victims
pseudomonas aeruginosa
130
pseudomonas aeruginosa: unusual aspect of its pathogenesis
it remains outside cells
131
pseudomonas aeruginosa: treatment
a combination of antibiotics is usually given
132
bacteria of the respiratory tract (3)
mycobacterium, legionella, pseudomonas
133
legionella vs. pseudomonas: treatment difference
pseudomonas is generally more problematic given its inherent resistance to multiple antibiotics
134
most prevalent vector-borne multisystem bacterial infections in US (4)
anaplasmosis, ehrlichiosis, rocky mountain spotted fever rickettsiosis, lyme disease
135
most prevalent NON vector-borne multisystem bacterial infection in US
syphilis
136
what does transstadial transmission mean?
when a pathogen is transmitted or maintained in different life stages of the same individual vector
137
which bacteria undergo transstadial transmission? (3)
lyme disease, anaplasmosis, ehrlichiosis
138
what does transovarial transmission mean?
when a pathogen is transmitted from one vector generation to the next
139
which bacterium undergoes transovarial transmission?
rocky mountain spotted fever rickettsiosis
140
anaplasmosis: replication in ______
vacuoles
141
ehrlichiosis: replication in ______
vacuoles
142
rocky mountain spotted fever rickettsiosis: replication in ______
cytoplasm
143
lyme disease: replication in ______
outside of host cells
144
ixodes scapularis: vectors of which bacteria? (3)
mnemonic: LAB
| lyme disease, anaplasmosis babesiosis
145
anaplasma: transmitted by?
ixodes scapularis
146
ehrlichiosis: transmitted by?
amblyomma americanum (lone star tick)
147
unique properties of anaplasma/ehrlichiosis cell wall
no LPS or peptidoglycan even though they are gram negative
148
anaplasma/ehrlichiosis: type ? secretion
IV
149
anaplasma/ehrlichiosis: mechanism of pathogenesis
invade cells of innate defenses and disrupt vesicle trafficking
150
anaplasma/ehrlichiosis: diagnosis
morulae (intracellular colonies) in neutrophils/monocytes in blood smear
151
anaplasma/ehrlichiosis: treatment
oral doxycycline
152
rickettsia rickettsii: type ? secretion
IV
153
rickettsia rickettsii: mechanism of pathogenesis (2)
1. invades and replicates in cytoplasm of endothelial cells
| 2. moves intercellularly and intracellularly by polymerizing actin
154
rash that starts on ankles, wrist, forehead
rickettsia rickettsii
155
rickettsia rickettsii: treatment
oral doxycycline
156
spirochete
borrelia burgdorferi (lyme disease)
157
borrelia burgdorferi: gram ____ ____
gram negative spirochete
158
borrelia burgdorferi: unique general properties
no LPS, toxins, or special secretion systems, extracellular
159
arthralgia on one side, fever, polyradiculopathy, facial palsy, AV block
lyme disease (borrelia burgdorferi)
160
lyme disease treatment: early
oral doxycycline
161
lyme disease treatment: CNS involvement
IV ceftriaxone
162
vector-borne infections: 2 key commonalities
1. few virulence factors
| 2. difficult to grow in culture, so culture is not a useful way to diagnose
163
lyme disease is caused by what bacteria?
borrelia burgdorferi
164
syphilis is caused by what bacteria?
treponema pallidum
165
painless lesion at site of inoculation with regional lymphadenopathy
syphilis (tryponema pallidum)
166
non-itchy rash all over, fever, arthralgias, myalgias
syphilis (tryponema pallidum)
167
tabes dorsalis
syphilis (tryponema pallidum)
168
loss of sensory and motor function, intense pain, loss of proprioception, urinary incontinence, degeneration of joints (name the condition and the bacterium)
tabes dorsalis, syphilis (tryponema pallidum)
169
syphilis (tryponema pallidum): diagnostics (2 steps)
1. anti-cardiolipin test
| 2. fluorescent antibody absorbed test or hemagglutination assay
170
syphilis (tryponema pallidum): treatment (primary and secondary vs. tertiary)
primary/secondary: long-acting penicillin; tertiary: IV penicillin
171
clostridia perfringens: mechanism of pathogenesis
1. wound reduces tissue redox potential
2. puruvate is converted to lactate and lowers pH
3. Clostridia grow and release alpha toxin (degrades cells to get more nutrients)
172
LOS
neisseria meningitidis and gonorrhoeae
173
not sensitive to beta lactams
chlamydia trachomatis
174
in neonates: early and late onset of meningitis, pneumonia bacteremia
streptococcus agalactiae
