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Microbiology > Bacteriology Exam 8 (Legionella, Campy, Pasturella, Bartonella, HACEK) > Flashcards

Bacteriology Exam 8 (Legionella, Campy, Pasturella, Bartonella, HACEK) Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the causative agent of Pontiac Fever/Legionnaire’s Disease?

A

Legionella pneumophila

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2
Q

What is required for Legionella to grow?

A

Iron, L-cysteine, branched-chain fatty acids, and ubiquinones that is buffered to pH 6.9

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3
Q

Legionella: motile or non motile?

A

Motile

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4
Q

Legionella: temperature requirements

A

mesophilic (will grow at 20 to 42 C)

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5
Q

Legionella: oxygen requirements

A

obligate aerobe

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6
Q

T/F: Legionella will grow on routine media

A

false

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7
Q

Which bacteria discussed from this unit is associated with running, free-flowing water at warmer temperatures?

A

Legionella

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8
Q

What is the primary means of transmission for Legionella?

A

Inhalation and aspiration of infectious aerosols (does not transmit from person to person)

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9
Q

What is the difference between Legionnaire’s disease and pontiac fever?

A

Pontiac fever is a febrile disease without pulmonary involvement, unlike legionnaire’s disease, which causes pneumonia. Pontiac fever is not as big of a deal , but can lead to legionnaire’s disease.

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10
Q

What media is required for Legionnaire to grow? What growth conditions?

A

BCYE at 35-37C with increased humidity

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11
Q

What will Legionella look like on BCYE agar?

A

BCYE agar is black and Legionella will be gray-white with ground glass appearance in 3-4 days

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12
Q

How can you identify L. pneumophila versus other Legionella species?

A

L. pneumophila will NOT fluoresce under UV light, while other species WILL.

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13
Q

Legionella gram stain

A

Small, GNCB or GNR with weak staining and may require extended safranin counterstain

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14
Q

Legionella: catalase, oxidase, beta lactamase

A

Weakly cat pos
Weakly ox pos
B lactamase pos

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15
Q

How are patients diagnosed with Legionellosis?

A

A fourfold (4X) rise in anti-Legionella antibody with an IFA; serum specimens should be tested no closer than 2 weeks apart

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16
Q

Helicobacter are strongly _______ positive. What color is this reaction?

A

Urease; HOT PINK

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17
Q

Gram stain for Helicobacter

A

Curved/Helical/Spiral/Fusiform GNR

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18
Q

Where is helicobacter pylori’s primary habitat?

A

Human gastric mucosa

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19
Q

H. pylori motility

A

Motile

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20
Q

How does H. pylori survive the low stomach pH?

A

Produces urease that hydrolyzes ammonia to significantly increase the stomach pH to protect it from acidic environment

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21
Q

H. pylori infections predispose infected patients to develop ____________ and _____________.

A

peptic ulcer disease and gastric carcinoma

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22
Q

What protein does H. pylori produce that enables it to invade the gastric epithelium?

A

CagA

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23
Q

T/F: Fecal specimens can be used for routine culture of gastric helicobacters

A

FALSE; fecal specimens can only be used for stool antigen tests. For culture, we need gastric acid or tissue biopsy of the stomach

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24
Q

What can be used for the presumptive ID of H. pylori?

A

Typical gram stain morphology, positive results for ox and cat, rapidly urease positive

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25
What is the urea breath test and what organism can it help to identify?
Person drinks C14 or C13 labeled drink and then their exhaled breath is tested for C14/C13 labeled CO2 indicating the presence of H pylori
26
T/F: H. pylori antibodies are formed during infection
True; but they are not protective
27
Can H. pylori grow on routine culture?
only on CHOC and it must be incubated in increased humidity; may take up to 7 days to grow
28
T/F: Helicobacter does not cause diarrhea.
TRUE
29
H. pylori oxygen requirements
microaerophilic
30
What parts of the body is H. pylori associated with versus Campy?
H. pylori --> stomach and duodenum Campy --> small and large intestines
31
Helicobacter colonies
small, translucent, circular colonies or swarming phenotypes
32
Bartonella gram stain
Short GN pleomorphic CB or R
33
Bartonella ox and cat
ox neg cat neg
34
Bartonella will grow on?
BAP and CHOC
35
What can Bartonella sp. cause?
bacterial endocarditis
36
What does Bartonella henselae cause?
Cat Scratch Fever
37
What does Bartonella bacilliformis cause?
Oroya Fever / Carion Disease
38
What does Bartonella quintana cause?
Trench Fever
39
What organism is a facultative intracellular bacterium?
Bartonella
40
What is the disease progression of a Bartonella infection?
Proliferation of microvascular endothelial cells and angiogenesis (forming new capillaries from preexisting ones)
41
What vectors are associated with B. henselae?
cat, flea
42
What vectors are associated with B. quintana?
louse
43
What vectors are associated with B. clarridgeiae?
cat, flea
44
What vectors are associated with B. vinsonii ssp. vinsonii?
voles, ear mites
45
What vectors are associated with B. vinsonii ssp. arupensis?
ticks
46
What vectors are associated with B. bacilliformis?
sand fly
47
B. bacilliformis causes Oroya fever/Carion disease. What does this disease cause?
Acute hemolytic bacteremia (oroya fever) causing febrile anemia with intravascular hemolysis. Chronic vasoproliferative disease (carrion disease) causing verruga development on the body
48
B. quintana causes trench fever. What does this disease cause?
Mild influenza-like headache and bone pain to splenomegaly and a short-lived maculopapular rash
49
B. henselae causes Cat Scratch Fever. What does this disease cause?
Papule/pustule at primary inoculation site and progresses into regional lymphadenopathy within 3 weeks
50
Where is Bartonella typically recovered from?
Tissue (cutaneous lesions or lymph nodes) or blood
51
Anthroponotic bartonellosis vs zoonotic
anthroponotic - humans as reservoirs zoonotic - animals as reservoirs
52
Pasteurella spp: motility and oxidase?
non-motile, ox pos
53
Does Pasteurella spp grow on MAC?
No
54
Pasteurella epidemiology
Zoonotic disease that is normal flora in domestic and wild animals -- transmission to humans occurs via animal bites
55
What is the most relevant sp of Pasteurella?
P. multicoda
56
What disease can P. multicoda cause?
Respiratory diseases and systemic diseases such as endocarditis and septicemia
57
What are some suggestive clues that you might have Pasteurella infection?
GNR, no growth on MAC, wound from dog/cat bite
58
How can Pasteurella be differentiated from Haemophilus species?
Pasteurella has CO2 independence and growth on BAP
59
How can P. multicoda be differentiated from other Pasteurella species?
P. multicoda is negative for urease and positive for indole and ornithine decarboxylase
60
P. multicoda normal flora found?
respiratory flora of birds and mammals. zoonotic to humans through bites from cat/dog
61
P. multicoda: hemolysis, oxidase, indole, catalase, grows on, motility, smell
Nonhemolytic Oxidase pos Indole pos Catalase pos Grows on BAP nonmotile smells musty
62
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in the US?
Campylobacter
63
Does Campy have a low or high ID50?
Low ID50; small amount to cause disease
64
How do you typically get infected with Campy? (what is it associated with?)
Eating raw or undercooked chicken and seafood
65
What 3 main diseases does Campy cause in humans?
Febrile systemic disease Periodontal disease Gastroenteritis (most common)
66
Campy normal flora?
Normal flora in poultry, cats, dogs, sheep/cattle
67
Gram stain of Campy?
Curved, GNR resembling seagull wings/S shaped
68
Growing conditions for Campy
Microaerophilic and capnophilic environment (5-10%O2, 10% CO2, 85%N2) at 42C
69
Campy: motility, oxidase, catalase and sugar fermenting
darting motility non-fermenting ox pos catalase pos
70
What Campy species are associated with gastroenteritis? Sepsis?
Gastroenteritis: C. jejuni (most common), C. coli, C. lari Sepsis: C. fetus
71
Signs/Symptoms of Campy infection
Non bloody diarrhea Symptoms occurring 2-10 days after ingestion Fever N/V
72
What two medias are used to culture Campy?
Campy-BA -- blood containing media with antibiotics that suppress the growth of normal fecal flora, used to isolate C. jejunie CCDA -- blood free media supporting growth of most Campy species
73
How can C. jejuni be differentiated from other Campy species?
Positive sodium hippurate hydrolysis, while others are negative
74
How can C. fetus be differentiated from other Campy species?
C. fetus is incapable of 42C growth, it will grow at 25C
75
C. jejuni and C. coli: Resistant or susceptible to NA and Cephalothin?
C. jejuni: S to NA and R to Cephalothin
76
C. fetus: Resistant or susceptible to NA and Cephalothin?
R to NA and S to Cephalothin
77
C. lari: Resistant or susceptible to NA and Cephalothin?
R to both
78
Differentiating Campy species: which will grow at 42C?
All except C. fetus
79
Presumptive ID of Campy?
- Curved seagull wing GNR - Ox pos - Cat pos - Darting motility - Growth temps
80
Where are you most likely to isolate Campy?
Stool or blood
81
Where are you most likely to isolate Pasteurella?
Wound
82
HACEK organism growth requirements and what they will grow on
Capnophiles (require CO2 for growth) and facultative anaerobes at 35C Will NOT grow on MAC, grow on CHOC and BAP
83
HACEK general epidemiology?
Normal flora of nasopharynx and oral cavity and GI tract of humans and other animals
84
What HACEK organisms are associated with bacterial endocarditis and soft tissue infections?
Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterium, Kingella
85
What HACEK organisms are associated with sepsis and patients with neutropenia?
Capnocytophaga
86
What HACEK organisms are associated with dog/cat/animal bites causing DIC, renal failure, shock, and HUS?
Capnocytophaga
87
What HACEK organisms are associated with endocarditis from periodontal disease complication?
Cardiobacterium
88
What HACEK organism is associated with Osteoarthritis in children?
Kingella
89
What antibiotics are HACEK patients normally treated with?
Beta lactams
90
Gram stain of Actinobacillus?
Bipolar staining resembling dots and dashes of morse code
91
What does Actinobacillus cause?
granulomatous disease in animals
92
What organism has a distinctive four to six pointed star formation in the center of the colonies when cultured?
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
93
T/F: Actinobacillus is part of HACEK
False
94
What does actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans cause?
subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)
95
How to differentiate Aggregatibacter aphrophilus from Haemophilus?
A. aphrophilus does not require X or V factors for growth
96
How do you differentiate actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans from aggregatibacter aphropholus?
Actinobacillus is catalase positive and negative for lactose and indole
97
What HACEK organism may cause pitting of the agar but does NOT smell like bleach (such as Eikenella)?
Cardiobacterium hominis
98
Cardiobacterium hominis gram stain?
GNR with a rounded end and tapered end, resembling a tear drop in the formations of rosettes
99
Cardiobacterium hominis indole, catalase, oxidase?
Indole positive Oxidase positive Catalase negative
100
What disease can Kingella cause in immunocompromised and children?
Osteomyelitis Septic arthritis Endocarditis
101
How can Kingella kingae be differentiated from other Kingella sp.?
Kingella kingae is beta hemolytic, others are not
102
What agar can be used to selectively isolate Kingella ap?
MTM
103
Kingella gram stain
Short coccobacilli with squared off ends and may appear gram variable
104
How can we differentiate Kingella from Neisseria?
Kingella is catalase negative
105
How can we differentiate K. denitrificans and N. gonorrhoeae?
Body site - mouth vs genitals Nitrate reduction + for K. denitrificans
106
What is Capnocytophagia associated with?
Dog bites
107
Capnocytophagia motility
GLIDING motility
108
Capnocytophagia gram stain
GN fusiform shaped
109
Presumptive ID Capnocytophagia
Fusiform GNR Gliding motility Yellow-orange pigment
110
C. canimorsus oxidase
pos; other species are neg
111
How is Klebsiella granulomatis diagnosed clinically and what does it cause?
Giemsa or Wright staining of infected tissue - will reveal groups of organisms seen inside macrophages (Donovan bodies) Causes granuloma inguinale or Donovanosis
112
What is the most common cause of genital ulcers in India, New Guinea, South America, and the Caribbean?
Klebsiella granulomatis

Microbiology (24 decks)

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