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Microbiology Misc > Bacteriology: Gram-Positive Bacteria > Flashcards

Bacteriology: Gram-Positive Bacteria Flashcards

(76 cards)

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1
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters

A

Staphylococcus

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2
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains

A

Streptococcus

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3
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters: catalase (+), coagulase (+)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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4
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters: catalase (+), coagulase (-), novobiocin sensitive

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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5
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters: catalase (+), coagulase (-), novobiocin resistant

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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6
Q

Responsible for gold color of S. aureus

A

staphyloxanthine

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7
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: prevents complement activation

A

protein A

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8
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: builds an insoluble fibrin capsule

A

coagulase

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9
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: specific for WBCs

A

Panton-Valentin leukocidin

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10
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: detoxifies hydrogen peroxide

A

catalase

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11
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: inactivates penicillin derivatives

A

penicillinase

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12
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: causes epidermal separation leading to SSSS

A

exfoliatin

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13
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: superantigen leading to toxic shock syndrome

A

TSST-1

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14
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: causes marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis

A

alpha toxin

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15
Q

In infective endocarditis involving S. aureus, ______ valves are affected, usually the tricuspid and among IV drug abusers.

A

native

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16
Q

Sequestered focus of osteomyelitis arising in the metaphyseal area of a long bone

A

Brodie abscess

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17
Q

In SSSS, exfoliatin cleaves ______ in desmosomes, leading to separation of the epidermis along the stratum granulosum.

A

desmoglein

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18
Q

Two usual scenarios leading to toxic shock syndrome

A

use of tampons among menstruating women + nasal packing for epistaxis

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19
Q

Drug of choice for MRSA

A

vancomycin

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20
Q

Drug of choice for VRSA

A

linezolid

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21
Q

S. epidermidis is the most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis as it is prone to forming a _______ for additional adhesion.

A

biofilm

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22
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), α hemolytic, bile-optochin-sensitive

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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23
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), α hemolytic, bile-optochin-resistant

A

Viridans streptococci

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24
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), β hemolytic, bacitracin sensitive

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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25
Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), β hemolytic, bacitracin resistant
Streptococcus agalactiae
26
Group A streptococci
Streptococcus pyogenes
27
Group B streptococci
Streptococcus agalactiae
28
Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), γ hemolytic
Group D streptococci
29
Two bacteria that will result in a positive PYR test
Streptococcus pyogenes, Group D streptococci
30
S. pyogenes virulence factor: also known as spreading factor; degrades hyaluronic acid
hyaluronidase
31
S. pyogenes virulence factor: also known as fibrinolysin; activates plasminogen
streptokinase
32
S. pyogenes virulence factor: inactivates complement C5A
C5A peptidase
33
S. pyogenes virulence factor: produces scarlet fever
erythrogenic toxin
34
S. pyogenes virulence factor: highly antigenic, causes Ab formation
streptolysin O
35
S. pyogenes virulence factor: superantigen similar to TSST
pyogenic exotoxin A
36
S. pyogenes virulence factor: protease that rapidly destroys tissue, leading to necrotizing fasciitis
exotoxin B
37
In scarlet fever, test for susceptibility
Dick test
38
In acute rheumatic fever, antibodies to _______ in the S. pyogenes cell wall cross-react with antigens of the joint, heart and brain tissue, leading to disease manifestations.
M proteins
39
Drug of choice for S. pyogenes, S. agalactiae infection
Penicillin G
40
Spectrum of disease includes UTI in pregnant women and endometritis (polymicrobial); most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis and meningitis
Streptococcus agalactiae
41
Group D streptococci: Cause of endocarditis in patients who underwent GIT surgery
Enterococcus faecalis
42
Group D streptococci: Cause of marantic endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy
Streptococcus bovis
43
Positive Quellung reaction (capsular swelling)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
44
Gram positive rods: spore-forming, aerobic, nonmotile, boxcar-shaped
Bacillus anthracis
45
Gram positive rods: spore-forming, aerobic, motile, associated with reheated fried rice
Bacillus cereus
46
Gram positive rods: spore-forming, anaerobic, tennis racket shaped
Clostridium tetani
47
Gram positive rods: spore-forming, anaerobic, bulging cans
Clostridium botulinum
48
Gram positive rods: spore-forming, anaerobic, lecithinase positive, gas-forming
Clostridium perfringens
49
Gram positive rods: spore-forming, anaerobic, forms pseudomembranes
Clostridium difficile
50
Gram positive rods: non-spore-forming, aerobic, nonmotile, curved, look like Chinese characters
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
51
Gram positive rods: non-spore-forming, aerobic, curved, with tumbling motility
Listeria monocytogenes
52
Congenital asplenia; need pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines
Ivemark syndrome
53
Drug of choice for cutaneous anthrax
Ciprofloxacin
54
Bacillus cereus: Heat-labile _____-like enterotoxin causes ADP ribosylation, increasing cAMP.
cholera
55
Bacillus cereus: Heat-stable _____-like enterotoxin functions as a superantigen.
staphylococcal
56
Drug of choice for tetanus
Metronidazole
57
Tetanus toxin is a protease that cleaves proteins involved in the release of _____ from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord.
glycine
58
Botulinum toxin blocks ACh release, causing ______ paralysis.
flaccid
59
C. perfringens: lecithinase that cleaves cell membranes; responsible for gas gangrene
alpha toxin
60
Treatment for gas gangrene from C. perfringens infection
Penicillin G
61
As antibiotics suppress growth of normal gut flora, this bacteria is able to grow as exotoxins A and B inhibit GTPases.
Clostridium difficile
62
Cause of pseudomembranous pharyngitis
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
63
Cause of pseudomembranous colitis
Clostridium difficile
64
Cause of pseudomembranous esophagitis
Candida albicans
65
Antibiotic treatment for C. difficile infection
Metronidazole
66
Metachromatic granules in C. diphtheriae
Babes-Ernst granules (volutin granules)
67
Detection of C. diphtheriae toxigenicity
Modified Elek test
68
Corynebacterium diphtheriae exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by adding ADP-ribose to this growth factor.
Elongation factor-2 (EF-2)
69
Encoder of C. diphtheriae exotoxin
β-prophage
70
Antibiotic treatment for C. diphtheriae infection
Penicillin G
71
L. monocytogenes: characteristic paradoxical growth in cold temperature
cold enhancement
72
L. monocytogenes: transmitted through ingestion of unpasteurized _____ products
milk
73
L. monocytogenes virulence factor: interacts with E-cadherin on the cell surface
internalin
74
L. monocytogenes virulence factor: escape from phagosomes
listeriolysin
75
L. monocytogenes virulence factor: propels the bacteria through the membrane of one human cell and into another
actin rockets
76
Antibiotic treatment for L. monocytogenes infection
Ampicillin

Microbiology Misc (3 decks)

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