Basic Pharm Topics Flashcards

1
Q

Identify the three basic characteristics of drugs.

A
  • Effectiveness,
  • Safety,
  • Selectivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How to visually discriminate between generic and trade drug names?

A

generic = lowercase,
Trade = Uppercase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the important naming rules for OTC medications?

A

OTCs must clearly list the generic name of the drug contained within the product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Identify the primary goals of medical administration.

A
  • reduce medical errors,
  • increase patient adherence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the goal of pharm?

A

To provide maximum benefit with minimum harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe pharmacologic Assessment (ADPIE).

A

establish a baseline, then ongoing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe pharmacologic Diagnose (ADPIE).

A

identifying health problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe pharmacologic Planning (ADPIE).

A
  • identifying interventions,
  • the 10 rights,
  • minimize adverse effects, interactions
  • risks, signs for toxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe pharmacologic Implementation (ADPIE).

A

intervention, collaboration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe pharmacologic Evaluation (ADPIE).

A

determine success/effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Landmark drug legislation in response to Thalidomide tragedy.

A

1962 Harris-Kefauver Amendments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Landmark drug legislation for scheduling of drugs.

A

1970 Controlled Substances Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the Thalidomide tragedy.

A

Thalidomide given to pregnant women, infants born with malformations of arms, legs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the scheduling of drugs.

A

Ranks drugs according to abuse potential and medicinal use.
* Schedule I is the highest,
* Schedule 5 is the lowest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Briefly describe pharmacokinetics.

A

movement of drugs through the body (what the body does to the drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Briefly describe pharmacodynamics.

A

what the drug does to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the components of pharmacokinetics.

A

There are four.
* Absorption
* Distribution
* Metabolism
* Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Identify the factors affecting drug absorption.

A

There are five.
* Rate of dissolution (gradient movement)
* Surface area (think of a patch)
* Blood flow (delivery driver)
* Lipid solubility (friendly environment)
* pH (working conditions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe some advantages of the enteral route.

A

easy, convenient, safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe some advantages of the intravenous route.

A

rapid onset, precise control of drug levels, possible dilution in large volume of fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe some advantages of the IM/Subcut routes.

A

deliver meds with poor water solubility,
fast & slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe some disadvantages of the enteral route.

A

Highly variable absorption,
requires patient cooperation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe some disadvantages of the intravenous route.

A

expensive, inconvenient,
immediate/irreversible,
risks for: infection, fluid overload, embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe some disadvantages of the IM/Subcut routes.

A

discomfort, inconvenient, infection, nerve damage, requires tissue perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Identify the factors affecting distribution.

A

There are three.
* Blood flow
* Flow out of vascular system
* Ability to enter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Identify a pathologic blood flow issue related to pharmacologic distribution.

A

exemplar: abscesses/tumors cause poor/abnormal blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Identify a natural feature of the body that prevents drugs from exiting the vascular system.

A

exemplar: blood brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Identify the main factors of metabolism that affect pharmacology.

A

There are three main ones.
* First pass effect
* Nutritional status
* Competition between drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Briefly describe the first pass effect.

A

A rapid reduction of oral medication as they must first pass through the liver before reaching the rest of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Briefly describe how nutrition affects pharmacology.

A

adequate nutrition provides the required cofactors for hepatic enzymes that break down drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Briefly describe competition between two drugs.

A

Drugs that compete for the same metabolic pathway may cause a decrease in metabolism in 1 or more of the drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Identify some of the many non-renal routes of drug excretion.

A

breastmilk, bile, lungs, sweat, saliva

32
Q

Briefly define half-life of a drug.

A

the time until the amount of a drug in the body is reduced by half

33
Q

What is the effect of half-life on drug dosing?

A

The length of the half-life determines the frequency of dosing (the shorter the HL, the more frequent the dosing).

34
Q

Briefly define the peak of a drug.

A

The highest level of a drug after a dose.

35
Q

When is the peak tested?

A

30m-1hr after infusion completed

36
Q

Briefly describe the trough of a drug.

A

The lowest level of a drug between doses.

37
Q

When is the trough tested?

A

30m before the next scheduled dose

38
Q

What is the word or phrase that identifies the goal of serum drug levels?

A

Therapeutic concentration

39
Q

What word or phrase identifies the least useful amount of serum drug level?

A

Minimum effective concentration

40
Q

What is a loading dose?

A

Starting with a larger dose or series of doses before moving to a maintenance dose.

41
Q

What is the purpose of a loading dose?

A

to quickly achieve a therapeutic concentration.

42
Q

What is a maintenance dose?

A

The ongoing dose required to maintain therapeutic concentration.

43
Q

Briefly describe agonist.

A

Binds to, ACTIVATES receptors.

44
Q

Briefly describe antagonists.

A

Binds to receptors, PREVENTS activation.

45
Q

Compare the affinity of agonists and antagonists.

A

Both have high affinity for the receptors.

46
Q

Compare the intrinsic activity of agonists and antagonists.

A
  • agonists have high intrinsic activity (activation).
  • antagonists have no intrinsic activity (inactivation).
47
Q

Briefly describe maximal efficacy.

A

largest effect a drug can produce

48
Q

Briefly describe drug potency.

A

The strength of the effect from an amount of the drug. (A potent drug produces effects at low doses.)

49
Q

Describe how potency relates to drug effectiveness.

A

Potency does not make a drug effective, two drugs of different potency can be equally effective.

50
Q

Identify the 10 rights of administration.

A
  • patient, dose, route, medication, time
  • assessment
  • patient education
  • patient refusal
  • documentation
  • evaluation
51
Q

Briefly describe the adverse effects on the CNS.

A

stimulation or depression

52
Q

Briefly identify the adverse effects of anticholinergic medications.

A
  • dry mouth,
  • difficulty urinating
    (eyes, smooth muscle, exocrine glands, heart)
53
Q

Briefly identify some adverse effects related to the cardiovascular system.

A

postural hypotension,
lightheadedness/dizziness,
(vessels of the heart)

54
Q

Briefly identify the adverse effects on the GI tract.

A

vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bleeding (irritation of the GI tract)

55
Q

Briefly identify the adverse hematologic effects.

A

bleeding, infection (common, potentially life-threatening)

56
Q

Briefly describe hypersensitivity/allergy as an adverse medication effect.

A

when someone develops an immune response to a med

57
Q

Identify MILD signs of medication hypersensitivy/allergy.

A

itching, rash, sneezing

58
Q

Identify SEVERE signs of medication hypersensitivity/allergy.

A

angioedema, anaphylaxis

59
Q

Name medications given for angioedema.

A

Benadryl

60
Q

Name medications given for anaphylaxis.

A

Epinephrine

61
Q

Briefly describe adverse effects of immunosuppression.

A

decreased or absent immune response, can mask signs of infection

62
Q

Identify some meds that cause immunosuppression effects.

A

steroids, transplant meds

63
Q

Briefly define contraindication.

A

Reasons to avoid use with an individual patient.

64
Q

Briefly define precaution.

A

Reasons for increased caution when used in patients that meet certain criteria.

65
Q

What is a Category X drug?

A

evidence of risk to fetus outweighs benefits

66
Q

Identify differences in drug distribution in children.

A
  • higher water concentration, lower fat
  • immature blood brain barrier
  • limited protein binding capacity
67
Q

Identify differences in drug metabolism in children.

A
  • different liver function,
  • different respiratory rate
68
Q

Identify differences in drug excretion in children.

A
  • immature renal development
69
Q

Identify Pharmacotherapeutic concerns in geriatric patients.

A

polypharmacy, chronic comorbidities

70
Q

Identify cardiovascular considerations for geriatric pharmacology.

A

decreased cardiac output, decreased body water, increased body fat

71
Q

Identify GI considerations for geriatric pharmacology.

A

poor absorption and distribution

72
Q

Identify test for renal function in geriatric patients before considering certain medications.

A

Creatinine clearance should be assessed in the elderly.

73
Q

Define cardiac preload.

A

Volume of blood in the ventricles at end of diastole (ending diastolic pressure).

74
Q

Define cardiac afterload.

A

Resistance left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood.

75
Q

Common reasons for increased preload.

A

Increased in:
* hypervolemia
* regurgitation (of valves)
* heart failure

76
Q

Common reasons for increased afterload.

A

Increased in:
* hypertension
* vasoconstriction

77
Q

Briefly describe the effect of afterload on cardiac workload.

A

When afterload increases, cardiac workload increases.