Basic Science and Structure of the Skin Flashcards
1- This wound is in the first phase of healing. What is the best term to describe this initial phase?
A. Proliferative
B. Regenerative
C. Inflammatory
D. Vascularization
E. Remodeling
Correct choice: C. Inflammatory
Explanation: Wound healing can be described with 3 phases: inflammatory, proliferative, and remodeling. The other options represent different phases or aspects that are critical to wound healing, but inflammation is the initial stage.
2- Eccrine glands are found on the:
A. Labia majora
B. Labia minora
C. Glans
D. Prepuce
E. Vermilion
Correct choice: A. Labia majora
Explanation: Eccrine glands are present all over the body except on the vermilion of lips, glans, labia minora, nail beds, and inner prepuce.
3- This patient has metastatic colon cancer and biopsy was done to rule out cutaneous metastases. Pathology showed abundant granulation tissue. What is the best description of the cellular composition of this healing tissue?
A. macrophages, fibroblasts, endothelial cells
B. neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils
C. keratinocytes, fibroblasts
D. eosinophils, macrophages
E. mast cells, endothelial cells
Correct choice: A. macrophages, fibroblasts, endothelial cells
Explanation: Granulation tissue is composed most correctly of macrophages, fibroblasts, endothelial cells. Eosinophils, keratinocytes, and mast cells are less prominent in the makeup of granulation tissue.
4- Which part of the matrix gives rise to the dorsal nail plate?
A. Distal matrix
B. Proximal matrix
C. Ventral matrix
D. Dorsal matrix
E. Lateral matrix
Correct choice: B. Proximal matrix
Explanation: The proximal matrix gives rise to the dorsal nail plate. The distal matrix gives rise to the ventral nail plate.
5- What is the major determinant of sodium chloride concentration of eccrine sweat that is secreted onto the surface of the skin?
A. Temperature
B. Acetylcholine concentration in nerve endings
C. Sweat rate
D. Dietary salt intake
E. Ph
Correct choice: C. Sweat rate
Explanation: The composition of human eccrine sweat includes inorganic ions (sodium chloride, bicarbonate, potassium), urea, lactate, ammonia, amino acids, proteases, and other proteins. The sweat rate is the major determinant of sodium chloride concentration of eccrine sweat that is secreted onto the surface of the skin. Eccrine sweat is secreted from eccrine glands via merocrine secretion. The substance secreted is initially isotonic but becomes hypotonic as NaCl reabsorption occurs in the eccrine duct. The sweat rate determines how much reabsorption occurs, and thus determines the final concentration of eccrine sweat that reaches the skin surface. Eccrine glands play an important role in the regulation of body temperature. They are distributed over the entire body skin, but are highest in density on the palms and soles. Eccrine glands secrete a salty solution, which reaches the skin pores via an eccrine duct. Eccrine sweat is a sterile electrolyte solution primarily containing sodium chloride, potassium and bicarbonate, with smaller quantities of various other components such as glucose and antimicrobial peptides. Sweat rate differs depending on site on the body, the degree of thermal or physical stress, and between individuals. Under maximal stimulation, the body can produce 3 liters of eccrine sweat per hour.
6- A mother presents to your pediatric dermatology clinic for further evaluation of her daughter, who has red gums, episodic hair loss, and rough perifollicular papules on the arms and thighs. She reports a family history of similar findings. After a thorough assessment of this patient, you conclude the patient has:
A. Pili annulati
B. Pili trianguli et canaliculi
C. Hereditary mucoepithelial dysplasia
D. Wooly hair
E. None of the above
Correct choice: C. Hereditary mucoepithelial dysplasia
Explanation: Defects of the hair shaft include hereditary mucoepithelial dysplasia which is characterized by red gums, episodic hair loss, and keratosis pilaris. Pili annulati is known as banded hair. Uncombable hair syndrome results in triangle-shaped hair. Naxos syndrome is characterized by wooly hair, hyperkeratosis of the palms & soles, and cardiac arrhythmias.
7- Occlusive moisturizers prevent evaporative water loss to the environment by placing an oily substance on the skin surface through which water cannot penetrate. This replenishes the stratum corneum by water movement from the viable epidermal and dermal layers. There are many different classes of chemicals that can function as occlusive moisturizers. What is the most effective occlusive moisturizer?
A. Glycerin
B. Petrolatum
C. Vegetable oil
D. Dimethicone
E. Ceramide
Correct choice: B. Petrolatum
Explanation: The most effective occlusive moisturizer is petrolatum, since it reduce transepidermal water loss by 99%. Petrolatum allows barrier repair while permeating throughout the interstices of the stratum corneum.
a- Glycerin: Humectants are substances that attract moisture; they include: glycerin, honey, sodium lactate, urea, propylene glycol, sorbitol, pyrrolidone carboxylic acid, gelatin, hyaluronic acid, and some vitamins and proteins. Some astringents designed for dry skin contain a humectant liquid moisturizer, such as propylene glycol or glycerin, and skin soothing agents, such as allantoin, guaiazulene or quaternium-19. Glycerin is not the most effective occlusive moisturizer.
c- Vegetable oil: There are many different classes of chemicals that can function as occlusive moisturizers, such as vegetable oils (castor oil, corn oil, grape seed oil, soybean oil). Vegetable oil and wax is a moisturizer type that composes castor oil, corn oil, ozokerite, beeswax, paraffin and carnauba wax. There are many different classes of chemicals that can function as occlusive moisturizers such as vegetable oil. Vegetable oil is not the most effective occlusive moisturizer.
d - Dimethicone: There are many different classes of chemicals that can function as occlusive moisturizers such as silicones (dimethicone, cyclomethicone). Dimethicone and ceramides are moisturizer types that compose water, petrolatum, dimethicone, and ceramics. Dimethicone is not the most effective occlusive moisturizer.
e - Ceramide: There are many different classes of chemicals that can function as occlusive moisturizers such as sterols (cholesterol and ceramides). Dimethicone and ceramides are moisturizer types that compose water, petrolatum,dimethicone, and ceramics. Ceramides are not the most effective occlusive moisturizers.
8- What structure is indicated by the arrow in this Mohs frozen section?
A. Erector pili muscle
B. Nerve
C. Hair shaft
D. Sebaceous gland
E. Vein
correct choice: A. Erector pili muscle
Explanation: A collection of elongated smooth muscle cells at a 45 degree angle in associated with a hair follicle is consistent erector pili muscle. Nerves are a bundle of spindled cells and are typically not seen in the upper dermis, and are not at a 45 degree angle, nor in connection with a hair follicle. Veins consistent of endothelial cells that would be lining a lumen; the lumen may appear collapsed. A hair shaft should be surrounded by various layers and sheaths, and is not made up of spindle cells. Sebaceous glands a a round collection of lobulated cells, not spindled cells, and are seen in association with a hair follicle.
9- The desmosomal connections of the epidermis are dependent on which of the following ions?
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. Selenium
D. Calcium
E. Sodium
correct choice: D. Calcium
Explanation: The desmosomal connections in the epidermis are calcium dependent. The other options are not required for these connections. Desmogleins and desmocollins are cadherins (calcium-dependent adherence molecules)
10- A patient presents with a chronic pruritic papular eruption in both axillae. You suspect she may have Fox-Fordyce disease, due to an occlusion of apocrine ducts. Which of the following is also true of apocrine glands?
A. Parasympathetic innervation
B. Not present at birth
C. Stains with S100 and keratin
D. Denervation abolishes response to emotive stimuli
E. Distributed over the entire cutaneous surface
Correct choice: C. Stains with S100 and keratin
Explanation: Apocrine glands are innervated by sympathetic fibers. They are present at birth but do not enlarge until hormonal stimulation from puberty. Apocrine glands stain positive for S100, keratin, CEA, and lysozyme. Secretion is in response to emotive stimuli through action of epinephrine/norepinephrine. Denervation does not abolish this response although apocrine sweating requires intact nerve supply. Apocrine sweat glands are confined to certain anatomic locations (axillae, anogenital region, periumbilical region, areolae, nipples, vermilion border of the lip).
11- As the shown wound heals and matures, which cell type is most important for wound contraction?
A. Macrophages
B. Neutrophils
C. Fibroblasts
D. Myofibroblasts E.Endothelialcells
correct choice: D. Myofibroblasts
Explanation: Myofibroblasts are modified fibroblast with smooth muscle like features. Myofibroblasts play the important role in the contraction of the wound that occurs during the proliferation phase. The contraction is considered one of the important events in wound healing because it results in the closure of the wound. The correct balance between too little contraction, which leads to non-healing wounds, and too much contraction, which leads to contractures, is important for optimal healing. The other cell types do not play a large role in wound contraction.
12- Which type of collagen is the first to be deposited in a healing wound?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V
Correct choice: C. Type III
Explanation: During the proliferative phase of wound healing, granulation tissue is formed, which relies on presence of fibronectin. Fibronectin is then replaced by collagen type III, and ultimately by
collagen type I. Wound contraction then ensues during the second week of wound healing, a process that is mediated by myofibroblasts. The remaining answer choices are incorrect.
13- Which of the options below, per high concentrations noted in recent studies, is the most important factor in the pathogenesis of SJS/TEN?
A. Granzyme B
B. TNF-β
C. IL-8
D. Caspase
E. IL-3
Correct choice: A. Granzyme B
Explanation: While the pathogenesis of SJS and TEN is not exactly understood, Granzyme B has been shown to be a key factor due to high concentrations present in affected skin. TNF-alpha, perforin and FasL have also been shown to be key to the development of the adverse drug dermatosis. The other cytokines listed are not as critical in the development of SJS/TEN.
14- This patient presents with chronic swelling of the lower extremities, and circumferential lesions on both lower legs as shown in this image. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic venous stasis
B. Elephantiasis nostras verrucosa
C. Deep fungal infection
D. Peripheral arterial disease
E. Pigmented purpura dermatosis (Schamberg’s disease)
Correct choice: B. Elephantiasis nostras verrucosa
Explanation: Elephantiasis nostras verrucosa is complication from chronic ymphedema. It commonly affects distal feet and lower extremities leading to verrucous changes with papillomatosis and hyperkeratosis. The other options would not lead to circumferential verrucous lesions on both lower extremities.
15- A child with a stahylococcal infection has an exfoliative dermatitis. The pathogenesis of this eruption is similar to what disease?
A. Paraneoplastic pemphigus
B. Epidermolysis bulls simplex
C. Scarlet fever
D. Pemphigus foliaceous
E. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Correct choice: D. Pemphigus foliaceous
Explanation: Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) is descibed, a staphylococcal infection that has exfoliative properties, and the pathogenesis involves serine proteases binding desmoglein 1. This explains the clinical similarities between pemphigus foliaceous and SSSS. The other answer choices are not similar in pathogenesis to that of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.
16- Botulinum toxin acts by reducing the amount of acetylcholine release from nerve endings and can be targeted for use on sweat glands for hyperhidrosis. Which of the following sites has the greatest density of these sweat glands?
A. Nipple
B. Clitoris
C. Labia minora
D. External auditory canal
E. Vermilion lips
correct choice: A. Nipple
Explanation: A is correct. The question refers to eccrine glands, which are innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibers and use acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter. They are targeted by botulinum toxin for hyperhidrosis (in contrast to apocrine glands; innervation of these glands is less clear). All of the following sites except for the nipple (A) lack eccrine glands.
17- An 80-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease developed a new pruritic eruption with these cutaneous findings. What is the antigenic target of the autoantibodies generated in this condition?
A. NC16A domain of BPAg1
B. NC16A domain of BPAg2
C. C-terminal of BPAg1
D. C-terminal of BPAg2
E. alpha-6-beta-4 integrin
Correct choice: B. NC16A domain of BPAg2
Explanation: Bullous pemphigoid is the most common immunobullous disorder and presents with tense vesicles and bullae and pruritus. There has been as association of neurologic disorders, such as Parkinson’s disease and dementia, with bullous pemphigoid. Autoantibodies are most commonly directed against the NC16A domain of BPAg2, also known as BP180 or collagen XVII.
18- Which of the following absorbs ultraviolet radiation?
A. Filaggrin
B. Loricrin
C. Involucrin
D. Urocanic acid
E. Laminin 332
Correct choice: D. Urocanic acid
Explanation: Urocanic acid is a chromophore that absorbs ultraviolet radiation (UVR) in the stratum corneum.This question assesses the examinee’s basic science knowledge of the function of skin proteins and their breakdown products. In the stratum corneum, urocanic acid (choice 4) functions as a chromophore that absorbs UVR and also mediates UV-induced immunosuppression. None of the remaining answer choices absorbs UVR. Urocanic acid is a degradation product of filaggrin (choice 1). Filaggrin cements the keratin filaments composing the stratum corneum; it is mutated in atopic dermatitis and ichthyosis vulgaris. Loricrin (choice 2) is the most plentiful component of the cornified envelope. Involucrin (choice 3), another component of the cornified envelope, is cross- linked to loricrin by transglutaminase 1. Laminin 332 (choice 5), found within the lamina lucida and densa, connects anchoring filaments to collagen VII.
19- Which of the following is NOT a degranulating stimulus for the largest cells seen in the image?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Fentanyl
C. Captopril
D. Vancomycin
E. Polymyxin B
Correct choice: C. Captopril
Explanation: The largest cells in the image are mast cells, which can be identified based on their size and presence of many intracellular granules. Captopril, and ACE-inhibitor, is not a degranulating stimulus for mast cells. The remaining answer choices are all mast cell degranulating stimuli, thus patients with mastocytosis should be counseled to avoid these medications if possible.
20- Which of the following medications is not concentrated in the eccrine glands?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Doxycycline
C. Cephalexin
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Cytarabine
Correct choice: B. Doxycycline
Explanation: The above listed drugs, as well as beta-lactam antibiotics, antifungals such as ketoconazole and griseofulvin, are known to be secreted into eccrine sweat ducts. This feature may explain the development of neutrophilic eccrine hidradenitis and eccrine squamous syringometaplasia in the context of chemotherapy. Doxycycline does not accumulate in eccrine glands.
21- Which of the following is a conservative and effective treatment for chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis?
A. Mohs micrographic surgery
B. Aggressive cryodestruction with liquid nitrogen
C. TCA peel
D. Cushion pillow support on either side of the lesion to reduce focal pressure
E. Cantharidin application
Correct choice: D. Cushion pillow support on either side of the lesion to reduce focal pressure
Explanation: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helices presents as a tender nodule usually on the helix or antihelix of the ear. It is thought to be a result of pressure to the local, affected area. Multiple treatment modalities have been noted with conservative, effective treatment seen with cushion pillow application to reduce the focal pressure. The other options listed are either too invasive (Mohs, aggressive liquid nitrogen) or are less effective (TCA peels and cantharidin).
22- At any one time, the approximate proportion of hair follicles in anagen phase is:
A. 9%
B. 90%
C. 1%
D. 60%
E. 95%
Correct choice: B. 90%
Explanation: Most (~90%) hair follicles are in anagen (growth) phase. The longer a hair follicle is in anagen phase, the longer the hair can grow. Hairs of the scalp grow approximately 0.4 mm per day, and thus the date of one’s next hair cut can be accurately calculated. Approximately 1% of hairs are in catagen (transitional) phase, whereas ~9% of hairs are in telogen (resting) phase. The remaining answer choices (60% and 95%) are distractors.
23- All of the following are increased in psoriasis EXCEPT:
A. Ornithine decarboxylase
B. Keratin 6
C. Loricrin
D. Involucrin
E. Keratin 16
Correct choice: C. Loricrin
Explanation: Loricrin is the major protein component of the cell envelope. It is decreased in psoriasis. The remaining answer choices are increased in psoriasis.
24- Detection of immunoglobulins, complement, or both at the basement membrane zone in lesional skin by direct immunofluorescence occurs in approximately half of cases of which dermatologic condition?
A. Neonatal lupus erythematosus
B. SLE
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Mixed connective tissue disease
E. Lichen planus
Correct choice: A. Neonatal lupus erythematosus
Explanation: The key diagnostic sign of neonatal lupus erythematosus (NLE) is the erythematous and annular clinical appearance of lesions. The histopathologic findings may be subtle in NLE compared with discoid or subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus. Direct immunofluorescence testing may be useful in supplementing the histopathologic evaluation. Detection of immunoglobulins, complement, or both at the basement membrane zone in lesional skin by immunofluorescence occurs in approximately half of cases; a negative study does not preclude the diagnosis of NLE syndrome. Clinical and serologic evaluation of both the infant and the mother are important in establishing a diagnosis of NLE syndrome, particularly when histopathologic findings are subtle.
DIF (direct immunofluorescence) of lichen planus is positive in the vast majority, with granular DEJ (dermal-epidermal junction) deposition and IgM and fibrinogen staining within cytoid bodies in the superficial dermis. In MCTD DIF shows IgG deposits within epidermal cell nuclei, and rarely along the DEJ. In SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus), while serology is more reliable, DIF can show DEJ deposition in the lupus band test. DIF of erythema multiforme shows immunoglobulin within superficial vessel walls, DEJ, and cytoid bodies.