BEHP 5021 Behavioral Pharmacology Flashcards
(222 cards)
1
Q
Characteristics of EAB include:
- interest in _________ in its own right
- _________ measurement
- _________ ________ of the IV
- _________ measurement
- _________-subject designs
- _________ inspection
- _________ environments
A
- interest in behavior in its own right
- objective measurement
- operational definition of the IV
- repeated measurement
- within subject designs
- visual inspection
- controlled environments
2
Q
Traditional psychology studies use:
- _________-subject designs
- _________ measurement
- summary __________
A
- between subject designs
- statistical measurement
- summary statistics (means)
3
Q
EAB uses __________ or __________ measurement
A
continuous, repeated
4
Q
In EAB, variability is handled by isolating and minimizing _________ _________
A
extraneous variables
5
Q
List 4 factors in the development of behavioral pharmacology:
- development of _________ _________
- concerns about ________ ________
- concerns about __________ __________
- _______ for mental illness
A
- development of behavior analysis
- concerns about drug abuse
- concerns about environmental contamination
- drugs for mental illness
6
Q
Who studied the effects of caffeine on respondent behavior?
A
Zavadski
7
Q
Who studied the effects of caffeine on operant behavior?
A
Skinner and Heron
8
Q
Who developed the pole jumping procedure?
A
Cook and Weidley
9
Q
In the pole jumping experiments, the presence of an antipsychotic drug disrupted ________ but not __________
A
avoidance, escape
10
Q
The _______ ________ procedure was used as a screening process for potential new antipsychotic drugs
A
pole jumping
11
Q
A drug is a _______ that effects ________ _______
A
A drug is a chemical that effects living tissues
12
Q
List 2 categories of drugs:
A
- psychoactive (has some effect on body or behavior)
- psychotropic (is prescribed for a particular reason)
13
Q
This category of drugs has some effect on body or behavior:
A
psychoactive
14
Q
This category of drugs is prescribed for a particular reason:
A
psychotropic
15
Q
List the three ways drugs are named:
A
- trade name
- generic name
- chemical name
16
Q
The name given by the original manufacturer of a drug is the ________ name
A
trade
17
Q
The name for the active ingredient in a drug is the _________ name
A
generic
18
Q
List 4 ways that drugs can be classified:
- ________ structure
- ________ effects
- ________ use
- ________
A
- chemical structure
- behavioral effects
- therapeutic use
- generation
19
Q
Benzodiazepines are an example of which drug classification:
A
chemical structure
20
Q
Stimulants and sedatives are examples of which drug classification:
A
behavioral effects
21
Q
Anti-psychotics and anti-emetics are examples of which drug classification:
A
therapeutic use
22
Q
Typical and atypical antidepressants are examples of which drug classification:
A
generation
23
Q
List 4 basic facts about drugs:
- Drugs are ______ _______
- Drugs are ______ _______
- Drugs have ________ _______
- Drugs have ________ _______
A
- dose dependent
- time dependent
- multiple effects
- toxic effects
24
Q
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the effect on behavior is the _____ _______ ______
A
dose response curve
25
The dose response curve expresses the relationship between the ______ and the _______ _____ _______
the relationship between the dose and the effect on behavior
26
The most common way of classifying drugs is by ________ ________
therapeutic use
27
Identify the two frames for the therapeutic use of behavioral medication:
- ________ use
- ________ use
chronic, acute
28
When drugs are being used long term, the behavior analyst _________ definitions of behavior targeted by medication, provides _______, and creates systems to monitor ______ ________
operationalizes, data, side effects
29
List 4 main reasons for acute drug use:
- _________ ___________ use
- _________ ___________ use
- _______ _______ use
- pre-__________
- emergency behavioral use (chemical restraint)
- emergency medical use (e.g. for side effects)
- short term use (to relieve symptoms)
- pre-medication (to relax/sedate before medical appointments)
30
List the 4 types of drug effects:
- ______ effect
- ______ effects
- _________ effects
- _______ effect
- main effect
- side effects
- secondary effects (effect on behavior)
- toxic effect
31
A ________ effect of a drug is an effect on behavior that is not a particular effect of the drug.
secondary (e.g., increase in stealing due to increased hunger)
32
List the 4 stages of pharmokinetics:
- Administration and ___________
- D__________
- B__________
- E__________
- Administration and absorption
- Distribution
- Bio-transformation
- Excretion
33
List the 8 routes of drug administration:
- (p.o.) ________
- (i.m.) ________
- (i.v.) _________
- (inh) _________
- (s.l.) _________
- (s.c.) _________
- (top) _________
- (p.r.) __________
- oral
- intra-muscular
- intra-venous
- inhalation
- sub-lingual
- sub-cutaneous
- topical
- rectal
34
In drug administration, b.i.d. means to give the medication:
twice a day
35
In drug administration, t.i.d. means to give the medication:
three times a day
36
In drug administration, q.d. means to give the medication:
four times a day
37
In the distribution stage, the drug goes into the small ______, the _______, and is absorbed into the ______ _________ ______ at the site of action
small arteries > capillaries > extra-cellular fluid at the site of action
38
Occurs when a drug binds with protein molecules in the bloodstream
protein binding
39
Drugs may have an affinity for, and bind with, fat or bone tissue. These are known as ______ _______
silent receptors
40
Psychoactive medications ______ pass the blood brain barrier
can
41
Binding to silent receptors is sometimes called _______ _______
depot binding
42
When a drug molecule is converted to a metabolite, this is known as _______________
bio-transformation
43
A __________ is a drug molecule that has been changed through bio-transformation
metabolite (may be more, less or equally effective)
44
Bio-transformation takes place in the ______ or __________
liver (most common), GI tract
45
List 4 ways that a drug or metabolites can be excreted:
- kidneys (urine)
- breast milk
- saliva
- lungs
46
The liver changes drug molecules into _________
metabolites
47
The most common organ associated with excretion is _____
kidneys
48
Kinetics are related to the _______ of drug effects
length
49
A certain amount of a drug will be metabolized and excreted in a certain period of time. This is the definition of __________
0 order kinetics
50
A certain fraction of a drug will be metabolized and excreted in a certain period of time. This is the definition of _________
1st order kinetics
51
The amount of time it takes for the body to metabolize and excrete half of a drug dose
half-life
52
If a drug has a short half-life, you may need to take it _______ often
more
53
If a drug has a long half-life, you may need to take it _______ often
less
54
Generic drugs have the same active ingredient as the brand name drug, but bioavailability may differ as much as ______%
20%
55
The degree to which a drug or other substance becomes available to the target tissue after administration
bioavailability
56
A change from brand to generic (for the same drug and dosage) should be indicated on graphs with a ______ _______ ________
condition/phase change line
57
Unpredictable adverse drug reactions unrelated to known pharmacological properties of the drug
idiosyncratic reaction
58
An effect opposite to the expected effect of a drug
paradoxical drug reaction
59
An idiosyncratic reaction is an unpredictable adverse drug reaction _________ to the known pharmacological properties of the drug
unrelated (also called Type B or Type 2 reactions)
60
A paradoxical drug reaction is an effect ________ to the expected effect of a drug
opposite
61
A decrease in the effectiveness of a drug with repeated administrations
tolerance
62
List 5 types of drug tolerance:
- M__________
- C__________
- B__________
- C__________
- C__________ __________
- metabolic tolerance
- cell tolerance
- behavioral tolerance
- cross tolerance
- compensatory reaction tolerance
63
This type of drug tolerance occurs when the drug itself creates enzymes to break the drug down
metabolic tolerance
64
This type of drug tolerance occurs when cells become less responsive to a drug over repeated administrations
cell tolerance
65
This type of drug tolerance occurs when the drug effect on learned behavior decreases over repeated administrations
behavioral tolerance
66
This type of drug tolerance occurs when one drug produces tolerance to a different drug
cross tolerance
67
This type of drug tolerance occurs when the environment or other stimuli becomes a conditioned stimulus that elicits a protective/opposite conditioned response
compensatory reaction tolerance
68
Drug interaction in which the combination of the two drugs results in the sum of the two effects
additive
69
Drug interaction in which the combination of the two drugs results in a lower effect than the sum of the two effects
infra-additive
70
Drug interaction in which the combination of the two drugs results in a greater effect than the sum of the two effects
supra-additive
71
The dose at which a drug produces the intended effect
effective dose
72
The median effective dose of a drug, at which half of those who take it receive the intended effect
ED 50
73
A measure of the safety of a drug
therapeutic index
74
State the formula for calculating therapeutic index
median lethal dose / median effective dose
75
The _________ the therapeutic index of a drug, the safer it is
higher
76
The ________ the therapeutic index of a drug, the more dangerous it is
lower
77
The dosage (usually in mgs/kg) of a drug needed to produce a particular effect
potency
78
Potency is not the same as _________
effectiveness
79
The maximum effect (% of people who experience the intended effect) a drug may be expected to produce
peak efficacy (expressed as a %)
80
If drug X is more potent than drug Y, then _______ of drug X is needed to achieve the same effect
less
81
When termination of a drug produces a physiological withdrawal syndrome in the opposite direction of the drug effect
physical dependence
82
Occurs when a drug functions as a reinforcer, and as a result the person spends a lot of time taking or seeking the drug
psychological dependence
83
A drug that elicits vomiting or increase in heart rate is functioning as an __________ __________
unconditioned stimulus
84
If a drug that elicits immune suppression is paired with a sweet substance, the sweet substance may begin to elicit immune suppression. The sweet substance has become a ___________ ____________
conditioned stimulus
85
If the effects of a drug signal the availability of reinforcement for engaging in certain behaviors, the drug is functioning as a _________ _________
discriminative stimulus
86
A drug with the side effect of increased thirst may function as an __________ __________
establishing operation
87
A drug with the effect of appetite suppression may function as an __________ __________
abolishing operation
88
Another name for a nerve cell is a ________
neuron
89
A neuron is made up of a _______ or cell body, _________, an ______, and a ________ _______
A neuron is made up of a soma or cell body, dendrites, an axon, and a terminal button
90
_________ react to stimulation from other neurons
Dendrites
91
When a neuron is stimulated, it releases ____________ into the __________
neurotransmitters, synapse
92
The space between neurons is called the _________
synapse
93
Communication within a neuron is __________
electrical
94
Communication between neurons is __________
chemical (via neurotransmitters)
95
Chemicals released by the pre-synaptic neuron into the synapse
neurotransmitters
96
List 6 examples of neurotransmitters:
- d_________
- n__________
- e__________
- _______
- _______
- s_________
- dopamine
- norepinephrine
- epinephrine
- ACH
- GABA
- serotonin
97
Neurotransmitters may be a perfect fit for receptors and “unlock” them - this is known as the _________
lock and key analogy
98
List 3 potential actions of drugs at the receptor:
agonist
partial agonist
antagonist
99
When a drug occupies and activates a receptor site, enhancing neurotransmission, it is described as an _______
agonist
100
When a drug occupies but does not activate a receptor site, blocking neurotransmission, it is described as an _________
antagonist
101
When a drug occupies a receptor site but has only a weak effect, it is described as a _______ _______
partial agonist
102
_________ travels down the neuron’s axon, but ________ fill the synaptic cleft
Electricity, chemicals
103
________ operating in the _______ define most of behavioral pharmacology
Chemicals, synapse
104
Psychotropic means __________ __________
behavior changing
105
Respondent and operant conditioning are useful in the evaluation of drug effects because they provide a ______ ________
predictable baseline
106
Chlorpromazine is a _______ name, while Thorazine is a ______ name for the same drug
generic, trade
107
Metabolic drug tolerance may also be called _________ tolerance
enzymatic
108
Caffeine, theobromine and theophylline are members of which class of drugs?
Methylxanthines
109
Caffeine
Site of distribution: _________
Site of biotransformation: _________
Site of excretion: _________
Distribution: Brain
Biotransformation: Liver
Excretion: Kidneys
110
The half-life of caffeine is about _____ hours
3 hours
111
Caffeine stimulates the release of __________ and blocks receptor sites for _________
releases epinephrine, blocks adenosine
112
Caffeine's effects include:
- increased ______ _______
- increased __________
- increased __________
- decreased ___________
- vaso____________
- increased heart rate
- increased alertness
- increased endurance
- decreased sleepiness
- vasoconstriction
113
Caffeine withdrawal may cause a headache due to ___________
vasodilation
114
Symptoms of caffeinism include a low grade _____, m______, and agitation. Too much caffeine can also cause ________
fever, malaise, anxiety
115
The type of tolerance related to caffeine is _______ tolerance
cell - body creates additional receptors for adenosine
116
In schizophrenia, hallucinations and delusions are referred to as ________ symptoms
positive
117
In schizophrenia, flat affect, loss of pleasure and decrease in goal-directed bx are referred to as ______ symptoms
negative
118
One theory of schizophrenia is that the brain has too much _________
dopamine
119
The route of administration for anti-psychotics is ______ or _______
oral or IM
120
Anti-psychotics
Site of distribution: _________ and _____ _______
Site of biotransformation: _________
Site of excretion: _________
Distribution: brain and fat cells
Biotransformation: liver
Excretion: kidneys
121
The half-life of anti-psychotics ranges from _____ to _____ hours
11 to 60
122
Typical anti-psychotics function as dopamine __________ while atypicals function as _________ _________
antagonists, partial agonists
123
Anti-psychotic effects include:
- decrease in _________
- impairments in ________ function
- impairments in ________ regulation
- c___________
- _________ effects
- decrease in dopamine
- impairments in sexual function
- impairments in temperature regulation
- constipation
- motor effects (EPS)
124
Typical anti-psychotics can cause motor effects also called...
extra-pyramidal side effects
125
List 5 examples of extra-pyramidal side effects:
- P___________
- t_________ __________
- a_________
- d_________
- n_________ _________ __________
- Parkinsonism
- tardive dyskinesia
- akathesia
- dystonia
- neuroleptic malignant syndrome
126
Symptoms such as a shuffling gate, tremors, and a mask like expression while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of ____________
Parkinsonism
127
Symptoms such as lip-smacking, tongue-thrusting or grimacing while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of _______ _______
tardive dyskinesia
128
Symptoms such as restlessness, pacing or movement of arms and legs while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of _________
akathesia
129
Symptoms of muscle clenching while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of __________
dystonia
130
Symptoms such as stiffness, fever, and flu-like signs while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of __________ __________ __________
neuroleptic malignant syndrome
131
Anti-psychotics _________ typically cause withdrawal syndromes
do not
132
Tolerance in anti-psychotics usually only relates to ______ ________
side effects
133
The therapeutic index for anti-psychotics ranges from ______ to _______
100 to 1000
134
Risks of anti-psychotics include ______ and _______
EPS and diabetes
135
Some anti-psychotics have the behavioral effect of a strong ________ operation for ______ or _______
EO, food or fluids
136
Stealing food or fluids may be a _________ effect of anti-psychotics
secondary
137
In addition to treating psychosis, other uses of anti-psychotics include:
- anti-_______
- ________ syndrome
- ________ problems in autism
- ________ withdrawal
- anti-emetics
- Tourettes
- behavior problems
- alcohol withdrawal
138
Anti-psychotics may cause dry mouth, blurred vision, sedation, memory problems, constipation, difficulty urinating and anorgasmia. These symptoms are known as ______-__________ symptoms
anti-cholinergic
139
The anti-cholinergic side effects of anti-psychotics may lead to __________ (fluid seeking)
polydipsia
140
Neurolepsis is characterized by:
- _________ slowing
- _________ quieting
- _________ indifference
- psychomotor slowing
- emotional quieting
- affective indifference
141
Most typical anti-psychotics are ___________ (chemical structure)
phenothiazines
142
Anti-cholinergic side effects of anti-psychotics include:
- dry _______
- _______ vision
- s________
- ________ problems
- c________
- difficulty _________
- a__________
- dry mouth
- blurry vision
- sedation
- memory problems
- constipation
- difficulty urinating
- anorgasmia
143
When discriminating between dyskinesia and akathesia, remember that with dyskinesia you cannot sit ______, while with akathesia you cannot sit ______
Dyskinesia - can't sit still
| Akathesia - can't sit down
144
The anti-psychotic drug with the strongest anti-cholinergic side effects is ________
Mellaril
145
The primary action of typical anti-psychotics in the brain is to _______ ________
block dopamine
146
List 3 anxiolytic (longer-acting) drugs:
- V______
- L______
- X______
- Valium
- Librium
- Xanax
147
List 3 sedative/hypnotic (shorter-acting) drugs:
- H______
- R______
- _______ (such as Ambien)
- Halcion
- Restoril
- Z drugs
148
List 2 routes of administration for anxiolytic/sedative drugs:
- oral (absorbed in GI tract)
| - IV (absorbed in bloodstream)
149
Anxiolytics/Sedatives
Site of distribution: _________ and _____ _______
Site of biotransformation: _________ or ______ ______ metabolism
Site of excretion: _________
Distribution: Brain and fat cells
Biotransformation: Liver enzymes or first-pass metabolism (starts in GI)
Excretion: Kidneys
150
Barbituates at low doses and benzodiazepines facilitate _______ binding
GABA
151
GABA is a neurotransmitter that helps __________ ______ _________
stabilize brain activity
152
Barbituates at high doses will open the _____ _______
ion channel
153
List effects of benzodiazepines:
- mild effect on ______ ______ and ______ ______
- decreased ________ and ________ ________
- decreased ________ ________
- heart rate/blood pressure
- anxiety and muscle tension
- seizure activity
154
List symptoms of withdrawal from benzodiazepines:
- increased _________
- increased _________ ________
- can cause _________
- increased anxiety
- increased muscle tension
- can cause seizures
155
Tolerance to benzodiazepines develops _________, therefore these drugs have a ______ potential for abuse
quickly, high
156
Behavioral functions of benzos include being an EO for ______ and sometimes for ______
sleep, food
157
Benzos have a ______ lethality risk
low
158
Anxiolytics can pass through the _______ _______
placental barrier
159
The Geller procedure is a screening tool for ________
anxiolytics
160
The Geller procedure uses a ________ schedule
multiple
161
When an anxiolytic is administered, responding on the FR1 food + shock condition of the Geller procedure _______
increases
162
Based on the Geller procedure, we see that anxiolytics may function as an ______ for punishment
AO
163
Likely functional relations inherent in anxiety related behavior are ________ and _________ _________
escape, respondent conditioning
164
List 3 kinds of antidepressants:
- first generation (t_______ and ______ inhibitors)
- second generation (______)
- third generation (_______)
1st gen - tricyclics and MAO inhibitors
2nd gen - SSRIs
3rd gen - SNRI and others
165
Anti-depressants
Route of administration: _______
Sites of distribution: ______, _______, ________ ______
Site of biotransformation: ________ and _____ _____
Site of excretion: _________ and _______ _______
Administration: oral
Distribution: brain, liver, breast milk
Biotransformation: liver, first pass in GI
Excretion: kidneys, breast milk
166
The half-life of anti-depressants varies from ____ to _____ hours
3 to 24 hours
167
Side effects of SSRIs include:
- n_______
- weight ______ or ______
- h________
- i________
- nausea
- weight gain or loss
- headaches
- insomnia
168
Withdrawal effects of anti-depressants include general ________ and _______
malaise and anxiety
169
Anti-depressants are at _____ risk of abuse
low
170
Anti-depressants may function as an AO for ______and either an AO or EO for ______
sleep, food
171
Depression is not a ______ of behavior, but a _______ of behavioral _______ that can be operationalized
cause, category, responses
172
The two main categories of seizures are ________ and _________
partial and generalized
173
Generalized seizures affect both __________ of the brain and cause _______
hemispheres, loss of consciousness
174
Name 3 sub-types of generalized seizures:
- tonic/clonic
- atonic
- partial
175
In an atonic seizure, the individual loses _______ ______
muscle control
176
Partial seizures affect one hemisphere of the brain and may cause ________ _________. Complex partial seizures may cause _________ __________ and __________
sensory phenomena, impaired consciousness, automatisms
177
Name 2 sub-types of partial seizures:
- simple
| - complex
178
List 4 first generation anti-convulsants:
- P_________
- D_________
- T_________
- D_________
- Phenobarbital
- Dilantin
- Tegretol
- Depakote
179
List 4 second generation anti-convulsants:
- N________
- L________
- T________
- T________
- Neurontin
- Lyrica
- Trileptal
- Topamax
180
The first anti-convulsant, introduced in 1857, was _______
Bromide
181
```
Anti-convulsants
Route of administration: ______ or ______
Site of distribution: _______
Site of biotransformation: ________
Site of excretion: _________
```
Administration: oral or IV
Distribution: brain
Biotransformation: liver
Excretion: kidneys
182
The half-life of anti-convulsants ranges from _____ to _____ hours
4 to 24 hours
183
Anti-convulsants work by enhancing _______ or reducing the activity of ________
GABA, neurons
184
List side effects of anti-convulsants:
- s________
- difficulty _________
- s_______ problems
- m_______ problems
- sleepiness
- difficulty concentrating
- speech problems
- memory problems
185
Anti-convulsants are teratogenic, meaning that they can cross the ________ ________
placental barrier
186
The three main symptoms of ADHD are:
inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity
187
List 3 characteristics of the inattentive form of ADHD:
- changing _______ frequently
- not ________ ________
- highly __________
- changing tasks frequently
- not following directions
- highly distractible
188
Characteristics of hyperactivity in ADHD include _______ and quick __________
restlessness, movements
189
Characteristics of impulsivity in ADHD include high ________ to immediate consequences, poor _______ ________, and a disregard for ________ or delayed _________
sensitivity, decision making, danger, consequences
190
List the three kinds of drugs used to treat ADHD:
- _________ __________ stimulants
- non- ___________ stimulants
- non-stimulants
- amphetamine-related stimulants
- non-amphetamine stimulants
- non-stimulants
191
Name 2 amphetamine-related stimulants used to treat ADHD:
- Adderall
| - Dexedrine
192
Name 2 non-amphetamine stimulants used to treat ADHD:
- Ritalin
| - Concerta
193
Name 3 non-stimulants used to treat ADHD:
- Clonidine
| - Tenex/Intuniv
194
Stimulants may work by increasing the ______ to ______ ratio or by increasing _________ for certain kinds of tasks
signal : noise
| motivation
195
List effects of stimulants:
- decreased _______ and _________
- increased _________
- increased ______ _________
- decreased sleep and appetite
- increased alertness
- increased task completion
196
List effects of non-stimulant drugs for ADHD:
- increased _________
- decrease in ________
- decrease in ________
- increased sleepiness
- decrease in alertness
- decrease in activity
197
```
Stimulants
Routes of administration: ______ or _________
Site of distribution: _______
Site of biotransformation: _________
Site of excretion: ________
```
Administration: oral or transdermal
Distribution: brain
Biotransformation: liver
Excretion: kidneys
198
Stimulants work by triggering release of _________ and ___________, and blocking reuptake of __________
dopamine, norepinephrine
| norepinephrine
199
Stimulants may have the following behavioral effects:
- _______ for sleep
- _______ for food
- _______ for certain activities/tasks
AO, AO, EO
200
Stimulants do not cause significant problems with tolerance, but could effect _______ or cause _____ in certain individuals. They can also exacerbate ______ problems.
growth, tics, heart
201
Name two types of designs for drug experiments:
- correlational studies
| - true experiments
202
In a correlational study, participants are assigned to groups based on _______, while in a true experiment, participants are assigned _________
based on IV, randomly
203
A _________ __________ introduces biases and makes it harder to draw conclusions
correlational study
204
Systematic bias is controlled for through _______ _______
random assignment
205
A ________ condition helps to isolate drug effects vs extraneous variable better than the baseline condition in drug evaluation
placebo
206
A ______ ______ is demonstrated when behavior changes in the direction of the drug effect during the placebo condition
placebo effect
207
The appearance of negative symptoms (side effects) as a result of drug administration minus the active ingredient is the ______ _______
nocebo effect
208
This drug stimulates release of epinephrine and blocks adenosine:
caffeine
209
This therapeutic group of drugs cause a decrease in dopamine:
antipsychotics
210
This therapeutic group of drugs facilitate GABA binding at low doses:
anxiolytics
211
This therapeutic group of drugs enhance GABA or reduce neuron activity:
anticonvulsants
212
Name 2 groups of drugs that cross the placental barrier:
- anxiolytics
| - anticonvulsants
213
This therapeutic group of drugs cause release of dopamine and norepinephrine:
ADHD drugs
214
List 7 elements of a medication evaluation:
- i_______ ________
- p_______ _________
- b________ ________
- s________ _________
- d______ _________
- what to ________
- d________
- informed consent
- prescriber cooperation
- behavioral targets
- sensitive measures
- drug protocol
- what to study
- design
215
The three elements of informed consent are _________, __________ and ____________
information, capacity, voluntariness
216
When choosing a med evaluation design, it is critical to consider the _________ of the drug
kinetics (half-life)
217
List 3 designs commonly used in medication evaluation:
- w__________
- m________ __________
- a________ __________
- withdrawal
- multiple baseline
- alternating treatments
218
In a med eval study, a multiple baseline design can be used across __________ but not across ________
individuals, behaviors
219
Drugs with a very short half life can be evaluated using a multiple baseline across _________
settings
220
A study looking at the effects of different values (doses) of the IV is called a ________ ________
parametric analysis
221
A study looking at the effects of various combinations of IVs is called a _________ _________
component analysis
222
List 3 areas for BA participation in drug evaluation:
- s__________
- a__________
- d__________ of a professional relationship
- selection of a prescriber
- assessment of the prescriber's history/expertise
- development
