BFEBLK1 Flashcards
(157 cards)
1
Q
As a FE, you are designated as the crew’s ____ and performance expert and play a vital role in the ___ of the aircraft
A
acft sys / operation
2
Q
During acft preparation, your ____ is to ensure the acft is ready the _______
A
primary duty / assigned mission
3
Q
The flight engineer’s _____ include assisting the pilot’s in starting engines, taxing the acft, computing ____ and checkout ____before takeoff
A
basic flight duties / takeoff performance / sys ops
4
Q
Which of the following is not one of the 7 major engines sections
A
Differential
5
Q
What are the two basic parts of the turbine assembly
A
the rotator and the stator
6
Q
The ____ absorbs pressure energy from the exhaust gases and transforms it into energy?
A
Turbine
7
Q
T/F The extension shaft assembly transmits power from the engine to the reduction gear assembly.
A
True
8
Q
Thrust is used to overcome what force
A
Drag
9
Q
How many cycles are there in a gas turbine engine
A
4
10
Q
T/F An advantage of the turboprop is that its efficiency drops off as airspeed and altitude increase.
A
False
11
Q
What are the 3 basic conditions that influence engine power output
A
Temp, pressure, and bleed air extracted
12
Q
What is a primary indication of power output on the turboprop engine
A
Torque
13
Q
What are the two sections of the propeller systems called
A
rotating and stationary
14
Q
Which propeller component retains the blades within the prop assembly
A
Barrell
15
Q
T/F A propeller works the same as a wing in theory, but produces thrust?
A
True
16
Q
Negative blade angle allows for _____ thrust?
A
Reverse
17
Q
What is the most important function of the APU
A
Provides ground operation to the aircraft without ground support equipment
18
Q
The APU operates on principles similar to a ___
A
Jet Engine
19
Q
T/F The APU is self-monitoring for most malfunctions
A
True
20
Q
What is the item that supplies fuel to the APU
A
Main fuel tanks
21
Q
APU compartments are designed to isolate and prevent the spread of ___
A
Fire
22
Q
What pub develops the classification system that identifies required quals for every specialty in the AF
A
AFI 36-2101
23
Q
What is the 5 positions of the AFSC Breakdown in 1A111
A
1 - Operation 2 - Aircrew 3 - Flight Engineer 4 - Skill Level 5 - specific AF Code (always "1" f/aircrew)
24
Q
What do the prefixes for CEAs designate
A
X - Basic aircrew member
K - Instructor qual’d aircrew member
T - Formal training instructor at a flying/non-flying schoolhouse unit
Q - Flight examiner
25
What is the document that identifies the life cycle education and training requirements, training spt resources, and min core tsk requirements?
CFETP
26
What are the 2 parts of CFETP
Part I - information for overall management
Part II - provides training and identifies the Specialty Training Std (STS) and includes duties, task, and tech references to spt training
27
How many months is required to be awarded your 5lvl
12 months upgrade training / 9 months for retrainers
28
How many months is required to be awarded your 7lvl
12 months upgrade training / 6 months for retrainers
29
What is the 4 cycle process of gas turbine engines
Intake(suck), Compression (squeeze), Combustion(bang), and Exhaust(blow)
30
What are the 7 sections of turbine engines
```
Air Inlet
Compressor
Diffuser
Combustion
Turbine
Exhaust
Accessory
```
31
What are the 2 functions of the air inlet
1) recovers as much total pressure and deliver it to the front of the engine
2) delivers air to the compressor inlet w/min turbulence/pressure variation
32
What is the function of the compressor
supply air to produce the required engine thrust (power)
33
What are the main components of a compressor
Rotor and stator
34
What is measured in amperes or amps for short
current
35
What is the opposition to current in a circuit or electrical device called
Resistance
36
What are the 3 ways dynamic electricity can be controlled
Switch, relay, or circuit breaker
37
What does an electromagnet need to produce a magnetic field
Electric current
38
Dynamic electricity is defined as the flow of current through
Circuits
39
A circuit that a complete uninterrupted path where current flows is called?
A closed-circuit
40
What are the 3 types of batteries on the aircraft
Lead-acid, Nickel-cadmium, dry cell
41
What is used to start, stop or change the direction of the current in a circuit
Switches
42
What are used to protect electrical components and wiring from accepting too much current
Fuses
43
Where is the Reverse Current Relay (RCR) installed
Between a DC power source and the DC buses being supplied power
44
When an engine receives fuel from a tank that is not its designated tank, that process is called
Cross feeding fuel
45
What is the term for completely draining the fuel tanks for maintenance
Defueling
46
JP-8 is a/an ____ based fuel
Kerosene
47
What device surrounds the boost pump with fuel regardless of the airplane's attitude
Sump box
48
What device is used to reduce the amount of unusable fuel in a tank
Ejectors
49
What are two types of fuel valves
Check and Control Valves
50
Anytime fuel moves into, out of, or within the fuel system it flows through what
Fuel manifolds
51
An engine firewall is a shield separating the engine from what
Aircraft structure
52
Which valve allows fuels to leave the airplane so the gross weight can be reduced for an emergency landing
Jettison valve
53
What kind of valve allows fluid flow in only one direction and is comprised of a ball, ball seat, and spring?
Check valve
54
The minimum requirements for a hydraulic system are a source of power, the means to transmit the power, and a ______
Device to use the power
55
Hydraulic pumps are operated manually by using a ___
Hand pump
56
What are the two most common types of hydraulic fluid used
mineral and synthetic
57
What is used to transmit hydraulic pressure into mechanical energy
Actuators
58
T/F: All fluids are suitable for use in a hydraulic system
False
59
What term is used to describe the thickness or thinness of a fluid
Viscosity
60
A Hydraulic power pump can either be electrically or ___ driven
Engine
61
What is used to maintain hydraulic system pressure
Pressure regulators
62
What component of a hydraulic system stores fluid under pressure to absorbs pressure surges
Accumulator
63
What component is used to control the direction of fluid flow into an actuator
Selector Valve
64
The number and size of the tires on an aircraft's landing gear determines its
Footprint
65
What is the name of the portion of the tire that comes in direct contact with the ground
Tread
66
What is the main disadvantage of a multiple disk brake system
They do not dissipate heat well
67
What system is incorporated in the braking system to prevent a wheel and tire assy from stopping in its rotation
Anti-skid
68
Below what taxi speed do anti-skid systems not function
10 to 15 knots
69
The process of lowering a C-5 to ease cargo loading is called
Kneeling
70
Which component serves as the mounting point for the axles, wheels, and brake assemblies
Bogie
71
What instrument panel is the landing gear position indicators normally located
Co-pilot's Center
72
How is the landing gear controlled and operated for retraction and extension
Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated
73
What are the 3 axes of flights,
```
Longitudinal = Roll = Aileron
Lateral = Pitch = Elevators
Vertical = Yaw = Rudder
```
74
Which primary flight control surface controls movement about the lateral axis
Elevator
75
What system is used on cargo and passenger aircraft to compensate for the changes in the weight distribution along the longitudinal axis
Horizontal Stabilizer
76
When in the down (extended) position, the flaps are lowered to form an angle, with the wing ____ of about 45 to 50 degrees
Chord line
77
T/F The 4 forces of flight are Thrust, Drag, Weight, and Lift
True
78
Who is normally responsible for the operation and control of aircraft's pneumatic systems
Flight Engineer
79
Which system extracts air from the jet engine compressors for heating, cooling, and pressurizing the aircraft.
Bleed-air system
80
What part of an air strut limits the amount of air extracted from the compressor section
Venturi
81
Which part of the bleed air manifold is capable of expanding or contracting with temperature changes
Expansion joints/bellows
82
What are the 3 distinct segments that bleed air can be classified in
Engine bleed-air manifold, Crosswing/Main manifold, and Branch Ducting
83
What type of detection systems uses pressure sensors and temperature probes that are strategically placed along the duct routing to detect leaks in the bleed air-system
Bleed-air overheat/overpressure protection
84
Which of the following is used to supply air for the air conditioning system on the ground if the engines are not operating
APU, GTC, External AGE
85
What is the purpose of the heat exchanger
To initially reduce the temperature of the bleed air
86
What are most ducts wrapped in to minimize noise from the AC sys
Insulating material
87
Whare crewmember operates the cooling air control valve
Flight Engineer
88
Which control panel controls the aircraft AC and floor heat sys
Environmental
89
What is the operating range in which the cabin altitude is the same as the aircraft altitude
Unpressurized Range
90
What is the pressure differential limitation in an aircraft measured in
Inches of mercury (HG)
91
What is the principal controlling component of the pressurization system
Outflow valve
92
T/F The cabin altimeter 2 indicators are the cabin altitude meter and the cabin pressure differential meter
True
93
Airspeed indicators show the aircraft's forward velocity in what unit of measurement
Knots
94
How many feet are there in a nautical mile
6076 ft
95
Which flight instrument is used to establish a rate of ascent, descent, or maintain level flight
Rate of climb indicator
96
What instrument is considered reliable in sturdy level flight but can give confusing indications due to the earth's magnetic field
Magnetic Compass
97
The Heading Indicator is a spinning gyroscope and is subject to drift errors, what are the drift errors called?
Precession
98
A Fire Zone is an area on an aircraft that requires fire detection and fire extinguishing/suppression equipment and a high degree of inherent ____
Fire Resistance
99
What normally accompanies fire indicators lights on most acft
Warning horns
100
What are the 2 widely used continuous loop sys in DOD aircraft
Inconel Loop and Systron Donner system
101
What color is the optical paint inside the smoke detector
Black
102
When the agent discharge switch is actuated, an electric circuit is completed and voltage applied to the pyrotechnic ____
Squibs
103
What must you do before you start putting out a fire
Properly evaluate the situation and confirm all your indications
104
What method does acft radios allow the crew to communicate with outside agencies
Air to ground
105
T/F Acft radios share common characteristics
True
106
The ICS is often referred to as ___
Interphone
107
Which button allows the talker to communicate freely without having to depress a talk or transmit button
Hot Mic
108
Which button overrides all other communication on the aircraft when it is pressed and should only be used for critical information
Call button
109
What is the UHF Fixed-Tuned Guard Receiver Frequency
243
110
Which communication system is a multi-mode radio capable of line of sight or satellite operations
SATCOM Radio Sys
111
Which mode of operation is the most common and is considered unsecured
Non-secured
112
Which mode of IFF transponder system can be cryptographically keyed for secure
Mode 4
113
What system detects thermal energy and is a passive system
FLIR
114
T/F Recording Devices can be found in digital or cassette recorder types
True
115
Sunrise and sunset conditions can cause the FLIR to have _____ amounts of useful information
Minimal
116
What defense sys function is used to deploy flares when a threat is detected
CDS
117
The IRCM set contains how infrared transmitters
2
118
T/F The RWR provides audio and video alerts to the pilots only when a threat is detected
True
119
What system actively looks across the sky for the radar threats it is programmed against
ECM
120
What are the 7 major engines sections
Air Inlet, Compressor, Diffusor, Combustion, Turbine, Exhaust, Accessory
121
What transform a portion of energy of the exhaust gases into mechanical energy to drive the compressor and accessories
Turbine
122
The 2 basic parts of a Turbine Assy are ___ and ___
Rotor and Stator
123
The ____ assy transmit power from the engine to the reduction gear assy
Extension shaft
124
Advantages of the ____ is that they develop high thrust at low altitudes because of the propeller's ability to accelerate a large mass of air
Turboprops
125
What are the four types of blade angles
Zero, Negative, Positive, and Feather
126
What are the 3 main functions of the barrel assy
- Retain the blades
- Transmit engine torque
- Provide a means of attaching the propeller to the eng shaft
127
What battery is used for high current demand because of its ability to hold an electrical charge
Nickel Cadmium (Nicad)
128
What battery is used for short, irregular intervals
Dry-cell
129
What is primarily used as limit switches
Microswitch
130
What takes the place of several switches
Rotary Selector Switch
131
___ trips, opening the circuit and stopping current
Circuit Breakers
132
What are the 3 types of fuel tanks
Integral, Bladder, External
133
____ have sealed metal shell equipped with control valves and pumps to move the fuel and are attached on the outside of the acft
External tanks
134
____, ____, and ____ are examples of acft sys hydraulically operated
Flight controls, landing gear, and cargo doors
135
____ convert potential energy in the hydraulic fluid pressure to mechanical energy
Actuator
136
The shock strut serves what 3 functions
- Arrests the vertical motion of the aircraft when landing
- Absorbs the peak impact loads
- Provides air suspension to support the aircraft during ground operations
137
The ___ serves at the mounting point for the axles, wheels, and brake assemblies
Bogie
138
___ indication displays when the gear is in transit (Unlocked not up or down)
Barber Pole
139
A typical brake assembly consists of ___ and _____
Rotors and Stators
140
____ moves the aileron, rudder, and elevator by aerodynamic pressure
Control Tabs
141
___ are small, adjustable surfaces on the trailing edge of the primary flight controls
Trim Tabs
142
___ reduce landing speed, thereby shortening the landing distance
Flaps
143
___ provides means of routing extracted air from the air source to the various components
Bleed air manifolds or ducts
144
___ are symmetrically installed at various stages of compression to extract bleed air at the required pressure and temperature
Bleed air struts
145
Pulling the ____ closes the bleed air shutoff valve, should an engine fire or overheat occur
Engine fire handle
146
A leak in the bleed air manifold near the fuel tanks can cause the wing to ___
Explode
147
This butterfly type, motor-operated valve is used to modulate the flow of air across the heat exchanger
Cooling air control valve
148
The principal component of the AC system is the ___
Refrigeration units
149
Water separators can remove as much as ___% of water vapor
90%
150
The ___ limits the amount of air that is drawn from the crosswing manifold
Flow-limiting venturi
151
Acft pressurization sys operates on what 3 ranges
Unpressurized
Isobaric
Differential
152
The 2 cabin altimeter indicators are ___ and ___
Cabin altitude meter and cabin pressure differential meter
153
____ aids the pilot in making coordinated turns of the aircraft
Turn and Slip indicator
154
To talk secure, preface the following statement
Go Green
155
___ and ___ will be present to record mission data
Digital or video cassette recorder
156
___ displays the aircraft attitude in relation to pitch and roll
Attitude Director Indicator (ADI)
157
____ prevents the fuselage external pressure from exceeding the fuselage internal pressure
Negative pressure relief valve
