BFEBLK1 Flashcards

1
Q

As a FE, you are designated as the crew’s ____ and performance expert and play a vital role in the ___ of the aircraft

A

acft sys / operation

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2
Q

During acft preparation, your ____ is to ensure the acft is ready the _______

A

primary duty / assigned mission

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3
Q

The flight engineer’s _____ include assisting the pilot’s in starting engines, taxing the acft, computing ____ and checkout ____before takeoff

A

basic flight duties / takeoff performance / sys ops

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4
Q

Which of the following is not one of the 7 major engines sections

A

Differential

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5
Q

What are the two basic parts of the turbine assembly

A

the rotator and the stator

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6
Q

The ____ absorbs pressure energy from the exhaust gases and transforms it into energy?

A

Turbine

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7
Q

T/F The extension shaft assembly transmits power from the engine to the reduction gear assembly.

A

True

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8
Q

Thrust is used to overcome what force

A

Drag

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9
Q

How many cycles are there in a gas turbine engine

A

4

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10
Q

T/F An advantage of the turboprop is that its efficiency drops off as airspeed and altitude increase.

A

False

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11
Q

What are the 3 basic conditions that influence engine power output

A

Temp, pressure, and bleed air extracted

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12
Q

What is a primary indication of power output on the turboprop engine

A

Torque

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13
Q

What are the two sections of the propeller systems called

A

rotating and stationary

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14
Q

Which propeller component retains the blades within the prop assembly

A

Barrell

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15
Q

T/F A propeller works the same as a wing in theory, but produces thrust?

A

True

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16
Q

Negative blade angle allows for _____ thrust?

A

Reverse

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17
Q

What is the most important function of the APU

A

Provides ground operation to the aircraft without ground support equipment

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18
Q

The APU operates on principles similar to a ___

A

Jet Engine

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19
Q

T/F The APU is self-monitoring for most malfunctions

A

True

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20
Q

What is the item that supplies fuel to the APU

A

Main fuel tanks

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21
Q

APU compartments are designed to isolate and prevent the spread of ___

A

Fire

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22
Q

What pub develops the classification system that identifies required quals for every specialty in the AF

A

AFI 36-2101

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23
Q

What is the 5 positions of the AFSC Breakdown in 1A111

A
1 - Operation
2 - Aircrew
3 - Flight Engineer
4 - Skill Level
5 - specific AF Code (always "1" f/aircrew)
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24
Q

What do the prefixes for CEAs designate

A

X - Basic aircrew member
K - Instructor qual’d aircrew member
T - Formal training instructor at a flying/non-flying schoolhouse unit
Q - Flight examiner

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25
Q

What is the document that identifies the life cycle education and training requirements, training spt resources, and min core tsk requirements?

A

CFETP

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26
Q

What are the 2 parts of CFETP

A

Part I - information for overall management
Part II - provides training and identifies the Specialty Training Std (STS) and includes duties, task, and tech references to spt training

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27
Q

How many months is required to be awarded your 5lvl

A

12 months upgrade training / 9 months for retrainers

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28
Q

How many months is required to be awarded your 7lvl

A

12 months upgrade training / 6 months for retrainers

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29
Q

What is the 4 cycle process of gas turbine engines

A

Intake(suck), Compression (squeeze), Combustion(bang), and Exhaust(blow)

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30
Q

What are the 7 sections of turbine engines

A
Air Inlet
Compressor
Diffuser
Combustion
Turbine
Exhaust
Accessory
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31
Q

What are the 2 functions of the air inlet

A

1) recovers as much total pressure and deliver it to the front of the engine
2) delivers air to the compressor inlet w/min turbulence/pressure variation

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32
Q

What is the function of the compressor

A

supply air to produce the required engine thrust (power)

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33
Q

What are the main components of a compressor

A

Rotor and stator

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34
Q

What is measured in amperes or amps for short

A

current

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35
Q

What is the opposition to current in a circuit or electrical device called

A

Resistance

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36
Q

What are the 3 ways dynamic electricity can be controlled

A

Switch, relay, or circuit breaker

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37
Q

What does an electromagnet need to produce a magnetic field

A

Electric current

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38
Q

Dynamic electricity is defined as the flow of current through

A

Circuits

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39
Q

A circuit that a complete uninterrupted path where current flows is called?

A

A closed-circuit

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40
Q

What are the 3 types of batteries on the aircraft

A

Lead-acid, Nickel-cadmium, dry cell

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41
Q

What is used to start, stop or change the direction of the current in a circuit

A

Switches

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42
Q

What are used to protect electrical components and wiring from accepting too much current

A

Fuses

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43
Q

Where is the Reverse Current Relay (RCR) installed

A

Between a DC power source and the DC buses being supplied power

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44
Q

When an engine receives fuel from a tank that is not its designated tank, that process is called

A

Cross feeding fuel

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45
Q

What is the term for completely draining the fuel tanks for maintenance

A

Defueling

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46
Q

JP-8 is a/an ____ based fuel

A

Kerosene

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47
Q

What device surrounds the boost pump with fuel regardless of the airplane’s attitude

A

Sump box

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48
Q

What device is used to reduce the amount of unusable fuel in a tank

A

Ejectors

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49
Q

What are two types of fuel valves

A

Check and Control Valves

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50
Q

Anytime fuel moves into, out of, or within the fuel system it flows through what

A

Fuel manifolds

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51
Q

An engine firewall is a shield separating the engine from what

A

Aircraft structure

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52
Q

Which valve allows fuels to leave the airplane so the gross weight can be reduced for an emergency landing

A

Jettison valve

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53
Q

What kind of valve allows fluid flow in only one direction and is comprised of a ball, ball seat, and spring?

A

Check valve

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54
Q

The minimum requirements for a hydraulic system are a source of power, the means to transmit the power, and a ______

A

Device to use the power

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55
Q

Hydraulic pumps are operated manually by using a ___

A

Hand pump

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56
Q

What are the two most common types of hydraulic fluid used

A

mineral and synthetic

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57
Q

What is used to transmit hydraulic pressure into mechanical energy

A

Actuators

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58
Q

T/F: All fluids are suitable for use in a hydraulic system

A

False

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59
Q

What term is used to describe the thickness or thinness of a fluid

A

Viscosity

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60
Q

A Hydraulic power pump can either be electrically or ___ driven

A

Engine

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61
Q

What is used to maintain hydraulic system pressure

A

Pressure regulators

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62
Q

What component of a hydraulic system stores fluid under pressure to absorbs pressure surges

A

Accumulator

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63
Q

What component is used to control the direction of fluid flow into an actuator

A

Selector Valve

64
Q

The number and size of the tires on an aircraft’s landing gear determines its

A

Footprint

65
Q

What is the name of the portion of the tire that comes in direct contact with the ground

A

Tread

66
Q

What is the main disadvantage of a multiple disk brake system

A

They do not dissipate heat well

67
Q

What system is incorporated in the braking system to prevent a wheel and tire assy from stopping in its rotation

A

Anti-skid

68
Q

Below what taxi speed do anti-skid systems not function

A

10 to 15 knots

69
Q

The process of lowering a C-5 to ease cargo loading is called

A

Kneeling

70
Q

Which component serves as the mounting point for the axles, wheels, and brake assemblies

A

Bogie

71
Q

What instrument panel is the landing gear position indicators normally located

A

Co-pilot’s Center

72
Q

How is the landing gear controlled and operated for retraction and extension

A

Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated

73
Q

What are the 3 axes of flights,

A
Longitudinal = Roll = Aileron
Lateral = Pitch = Elevators
Vertical = Yaw = Rudder
74
Q

Which primary flight control surface controls movement about the lateral axis

A

Elevator

75
Q

What system is used on cargo and passenger aircraft to compensate for the changes in the weight distribution along the longitudinal axis

A

Horizontal Stabilizer

76
Q

When in the down (extended) position, the flaps are lowered to form an angle, with the wing ____ of about 45 to 50 degrees

A

Chord line

77
Q

T/F The 4 forces of flight are Thrust, Drag, Weight, and Lift

A

True

78
Q

Who is normally responsible for the operation and control of aircraft’s pneumatic systems

A

Flight Engineer

79
Q

Which system extracts air from the jet engine compressors for heating, cooling, and pressurizing the aircraft.

A

Bleed-air system

80
Q

What part of an air strut limits the amount of air extracted from the compressor section

A

Venturi

81
Q

Which part of the bleed air manifold is capable of expanding or contracting with temperature changes

A

Expansion joints/bellows

82
Q

What are the 3 distinct segments that bleed air can be classified in

A

Engine bleed-air manifold, Crosswing/Main manifold, and Branch Ducting

83
Q

What type of detection systems uses pressure sensors and temperature probes that are strategically placed along the duct routing to detect leaks in the bleed air-system

A

Bleed-air overheat/overpressure protection

84
Q

Which of the following is used to supply air for the air conditioning system on the ground if the engines are not operating

A

APU, GTC, External AGE

85
Q

What is the purpose of the heat exchanger

A

To initially reduce the temperature of the bleed air

86
Q

What are most ducts wrapped in to minimize noise from the AC sys

A

Insulating material

87
Q

Whare crewmember operates the cooling air control valve

A

Flight Engineer

88
Q

Which control panel controls the aircraft AC and floor heat sys

A

Environmental

89
Q

What is the operating range in which the cabin altitude is the same as the aircraft altitude

A

Unpressurized Range

90
Q

What is the pressure differential limitation in an aircraft measured in

A

Inches of mercury (HG)

91
Q

What is the principal controlling component of the pressurization system

A

Outflow valve

92
Q

T/F The cabin altimeter 2 indicators are the cabin altitude meter and the cabin pressure differential meter

A

True

93
Q

Airspeed indicators show the aircraft’s forward velocity in what unit of measurement

A

Knots

94
Q

How many feet are there in a nautical mile

A

6076 ft

95
Q

Which flight instrument is used to establish a rate of ascent, descent, or maintain level flight

A

Rate of climb indicator

96
Q

What instrument is considered reliable in sturdy level flight but can give confusing indications due to the earth’s magnetic field

A

Magnetic Compass

97
Q

The Heading Indicator is a spinning gyroscope and is subject to drift errors, what are the drift errors called?

A

Precession

98
Q

A Fire Zone is an area on an aircraft that requires fire detection and fire extinguishing/suppression equipment and a high degree of inherent ____

A

Fire Resistance

99
Q

What normally accompanies fire indicators lights on most acft

A

Warning horns

100
Q

What are the 2 widely used continuous loop sys in DOD aircraft

A

Inconel Loop and Systron Donner system

101
Q

What color is the optical paint inside the smoke detector

A

Black

102
Q

When the agent discharge switch is actuated, an electric circuit is completed and voltage applied to the pyrotechnic ____

A

Squibs

103
Q

What must you do before you start putting out a fire

A

Properly evaluate the situation and confirm all your indications

104
Q

What method does acft radios allow the crew to communicate with outside agencies

A

Air to ground

105
Q

T/F Acft radios share common characteristics

A

True

106
Q

The ICS is often referred to as ___

A

Interphone

107
Q

Which button allows the talker to communicate freely without having to depress a talk or transmit button

A

Hot Mic

108
Q

Which button overrides all other communication on the aircraft when it is pressed and should only be used for critical information

A

Call button

109
Q

What is the UHF Fixed-Tuned Guard Receiver Frequency

A

243

110
Q

Which communication system is a multi-mode radio capable of line of sight or satellite operations

A

SATCOM Radio Sys

111
Q

Which mode of operation is the most common and is considered unsecured

A

Non-secured

112
Q

Which mode of IFF transponder system can be cryptographically keyed for secure

A

Mode 4

113
Q

What system detects thermal energy and is a passive system

A

FLIR

114
Q

T/F Recording Devices can be found in digital or cassette recorder types

A

True

115
Q

Sunrise and sunset conditions can cause the FLIR to have _____ amounts of useful information

A

Minimal

116
Q

What defense sys function is used to deploy flares when a threat is detected

A

CDS

117
Q

The IRCM set contains how infrared transmitters

A

2

118
Q

T/F The RWR provides audio and video alerts to the pilots only when a threat is detected

A

True

119
Q

What system actively looks across the sky for the radar threats it is programmed against

A

ECM

120
Q

What are the 7 major engines sections

A

Air Inlet, Compressor, Diffusor, Combustion, Turbine, Exhaust, Accessory

121
Q

What transform a portion of energy of the exhaust gases into mechanical energy to drive the compressor and accessories

A

Turbine

122
Q

The 2 basic parts of a Turbine Assy are ___ and ___

A

Rotor and Stator

123
Q

The ____ assy transmit power from the engine to the reduction gear assy

A

Extension shaft

124
Q

Advantages of the ____ is that they develop high thrust at low altitudes because of the propeller’s ability to accelerate a large mass of air

A

Turboprops

125
Q

What are the four types of blade angles

A

Zero, Negative, Positive, and Feather

126
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the barrel assy

A
  • Retain the blades
  • Transmit engine torque
  • Provide a means of attaching the propeller to the eng shaft
127
Q

What battery is used for high current demand because of its ability to hold an electrical charge

A

Nickel Cadmium (Nicad)

128
Q

What battery is used for short, irregular intervals

A

Dry-cell

129
Q

What is primarily used as limit switches

A

Microswitch

130
Q

What takes the place of several switches

A

Rotary Selector Switch

131
Q

___ trips, opening the circuit and stopping current

A

Circuit Breakers

132
Q

What are the 3 types of fuel tanks

A

Integral, Bladder, External

133
Q

____ have sealed metal shell equipped with control valves and pumps to move the fuel and are attached on the outside of the acft

A

External tanks

134
Q

____, ____, and ____ are examples of acft sys hydraulically operated

A

Flight controls, landing gear, and cargo doors

135
Q

____ convert potential energy in the hydraulic fluid pressure to mechanical energy

A

Actuator

136
Q

The shock strut serves what 3 functions

A
  • Arrests the vertical motion of the aircraft when landing
  • Absorbs the peak impact loads
  • Provides air suspension to support the aircraft during ground operations
137
Q

The ___ serves at the mounting point for the axles, wheels, and brake assemblies

A

Bogie

138
Q

___ indication displays when the gear is in transit (Unlocked not up or down)

A

Barber Pole

139
Q

A typical brake assembly consists of ___ and _____

A

Rotors and Stators

140
Q

____ moves the aileron, rudder, and elevator by aerodynamic pressure

A

Control Tabs

141
Q

___ are small, adjustable surfaces on the trailing edge of the primary flight controls

A

Trim Tabs

142
Q

___ reduce landing speed, thereby shortening the landing distance

A

Flaps

143
Q

___ provides means of routing extracted air from the air source to the various components

A

Bleed air manifolds or ducts

144
Q

___ are symmetrically installed at various stages of compression to extract bleed air at the required pressure and temperature

A

Bleed air struts

145
Q

Pulling the ____ closes the bleed air shutoff valve, should an engine fire or overheat occur

A

Engine fire handle

146
Q

A leak in the bleed air manifold near the fuel tanks can cause the wing to ___

A

Explode

147
Q

This butterfly type, motor-operated valve is used to modulate the flow of air across the heat exchanger

A

Cooling air control valve

148
Q

The principal component of the AC system is the ___

A

Refrigeration units

149
Q

Water separators can remove as much as ___% of water vapor

A

90%

150
Q

The ___ limits the amount of air that is drawn from the crosswing manifold

A

Flow-limiting venturi

151
Q

Acft pressurization sys operates on what 3 ranges

A

Unpressurized
Isobaric
Differential

152
Q

The 2 cabin altimeter indicators are ___ and ___

A

Cabin altitude meter and cabin pressure differential meter

153
Q

____ aids the pilot in making coordinated turns of the aircraft

A

Turn and Slip indicator

154
Q

To talk secure, preface the following statement

A

Go Green

155
Q

___ and ___ will be present to record mission data

A

Digital or video cassette recorder

156
Q

___ displays the aircraft attitude in relation to pitch and roll

A

Attitude Director Indicator (ADI)

157
Q

____ prevents the fuselage external pressure from exceeding the fuselage internal pressure

A

Negative pressure relief valve