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Aircrew Fundamentals > Study Guide > Flashcards

Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

Who maintains Flight Eval Folders

A

Stan/Eval

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2
Q

What organization is not a command or MAJCOM

A

ANG

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3
Q

What are orders from the Secretary of the Air Force necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the AF

A

Directive Pubs

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4
Q

What pub may not be supplemented

A

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

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5
Q

What office delivers the guidance or orders of pubs

A

Authority

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6
Q

What office is responsible for the information contained in the pub

A

Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR)

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7
Q

What series number is Flying Ops

A

11

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8
Q

How will supplements be posted

A

in Numerical sequence and descending order (MAJCOM, NAF, Wing, Group, Sq)

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9
Q

T.O. Title pages contain what information

A

TO number, update info, handling/destruction statements, authority, initial issue date, change number, and change date

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10
Q

List of Effective Pages (LEP) is commonly known as

A

“A” pages

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11
Q

Emergency Procedures are identified by what

A

Hashed border for stressful situations

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12
Q

Safety supplements are identified by

A

red border of “SS”

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13
Q

Operational supplements are identified by

A

black border of “OS”

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14
Q

What is the AFTO Form 46 used for

A

list of all required aircrew flight and survival equipment that will be position on the acft

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15
Q

What AFMAN provides the guidance for training for all USAF aircrews

A

AFMAN 11-202 V1

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16
Q

What training is required to qualify newly assigned crew mbrs on basic aircrew duties in an assigned crew position and specific aircraft without regard for the unit’s msn

A

Initial Qualification Training (IQT)

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17
Q

What training is to qualify an aircrew mbrs in an assigned crew position in order to perform the command or unit’s msn

A

Mission Qualification Training (MQT)

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18
Q

What training provides aircrew members with the necessary training to maintain a level of proficiency and currency

A

Continuation Training

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19
Q

Who is responsible for deciding what training events a crewmember must accomplish to maintain currency

A

MAJCOM

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20
Q

What maintains ones required proficiency to perform in-flight duties as established by each MAJCOM

A

Currency Events

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21
Q

Primary form to update flight continuation training

A

Mission Accomplishment Report (MAR)

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22
Q

What form is used to document required ground continuation training events

A

AF Form 1522

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23
Q

Individuals who are not qualified on the acft or cert’d to perform the unit’s msn are

A

Non-Mission Ready (NMR)

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24
Q

NMR crewmembers must be

A

Supervised

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25
A crewmember who has satisfactorily completed IQT and qual'd to perform duties in the unit's mission is__
Basic Aircraft Qual'd (BAQ)
26
A crewmember who has satisfactorily completed MQT and maintains mission quals and proficiencies in the command and unit's operational/combat mission is __
Mission Ready/Combat Mission Ready (MR/CMR)
27
If a crewmember fails to complete currency requirements or losses currency what occurs
mbr placed on supervised status and becomes NMR
28
Up to ___ months, the aircrew member must demonstrate proficiency with an instructor in all delinquent items.
6 months
29
___ months, AFMAN 11-2 MDS-Specific will establish which currency items result in unqualified status requiring requalification
Over 6 months
30
____ evaluates an aircrew member's knowledge and skill with respect to MDS emergency procedures and systems
Emergency Procedure Evaluation (EPE)
31
___ eval is scheduled and will be done every 17 months
Qualification
32
____ eval provides commanders with a sampling of daily aircrew performance and an assessment of unit training effectiveness and may satisfy annual evals
No-notice
33
__ what eval is not intended to satisfy periodic evals
Spot
34
___ level is awarded when you demonstrate the desired level of performance and knowledge of procedures, equipment, and directives
Qual Level 1 / Qualified
35
___ level is awarded when you demonstrate the ability to perform your duties safely, but performance or knowledge may indicate a need for additional training
Qual Level 2 / Qualified
36
___ level is awarded when you demonstrate an unacceptable level of safety, performance, or knowledge. Also will result in supervised status
Qual Level 3 / Unqualified
37
Violations of ____ or ___ that have a direct impact on the safe completion of the mission or negligence in following a procedure or directive that jeopardizes aircrew or aircraft safety will result in Qual 3
directives or procedures
38
__ form is a chronological listing summarizing an aircrew members evaluation history
AF Form 942
39
___ form is used to record and certify ones qualification awarded by completing ground and flight evaluations
AF Form 8
40
Commanders at this level will establish a system to carry out the requirements to meet the training and operation needs of the Air Force
MAJCOM
41
___ are responsible for managing the ARMS and maintaining all aircrew FRF
HARM
42
___ office is the sole approving authority at each flying base that determines the entitlement, start, and stop of both Critical Skills Incentive Pay (CSIP) and Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay (HDIP).
HARM
43
Due to the busy ops tempo of most ops squadrons, the ___ office enable ____ operations to run efficiently.
SARMS ; day-to-day
44
What forms are used to document recording updates
Mission Accomplishment Report (MAR) and AF Form 1522
45
The effective date of the first order to perform flying duties
Aviation Service Date (ASD)
46
What badge is mandatory to wear on all uniforms
Enlisted Aircrew Badge
47
What is CSIP monthly rate for each Aviation Service
$225 for <4yrs $350 for 4-8yrs $500 for 8-14yrs $600 for >14yrs
48
How long is a crewmember DNIF after blood donations
72hrs
49
How long is a crewmember DNIF after scuba diving
24hrs
50
How long is a crewmember DNIF after the altitude chamber
12hrs
51
___ is the main source of lift
Pressure differential
52
Any acft surface that deflects or interferes with the smooth airflow around the acft creates ___
Drag
53
What form is used to track DNIF
Form 2992
54
___ makes the final determination to grant/disapprove waivers
MAJCOM Flight Surgeon
55
__ is the key aerodynamic force
Lift
56
The angle between the wing chord line and direction of the relative wind is its ___
Angle of Attack (AOA)
57
If the AoA increases too much, what is induced
a Stall
58
___ of an aircraft is never constant
Weight
59
Two categories of drag ___ and ___
Parasitic and Induced
60
3 types of Parasitic drag
Form, Interference, and skin friction
61
This type of drag occurs when varied currents of air travel over aircraft surfaces
Interference
62
Drag is directly related to ___ of the wing or flight control surface
AoA
63
Primary flight controls are __, __, and ___
Ailerons, elevators, and rudders
64
___ are secondary control surfaces and are attached directly to the primary control surface
Trim tabs
65
___ provide lift for the helicopter
Main rotor
66
___ overcome the effects of torque and keep the nose of the helicopter in line
Tail Rotor Assembly
67
___ provide an indication of the aircraft actual flight characteristics
Flight instruments
68
___ is an imaginary vertical plane that serves as the starting point for all horizontal weight and balance measurements.
Reference Datum Line (RDL)
69
Arm is the horizontal distance, in inches, from the RDL to the center of gravity of ___
an object
70
___ is the distance in inches from the RDL to the center of gravity of the aircraft
Aircraft CGA
71
Operating weight is calculated by adding
weight of each crewmember their baggage msn required equipment emergency equipment
72
This danger area is identified with a RED/BLACK band around the fuselage
Turbine Plane
73
In flight, Thunderstorms should be avoided ___ NM at or above 23000 ft.
20 NM
74
In flight, Thunderstorms should be avoided ___ NM at or below 23000 ft.
10 NM
75
AFI ___ provides general types of wildlife found near airfields
AFI 91-212
76
___ is the primary means of egress
Escape slide
77
___ is the secondary means of egress
Escape Rope
78
Ground evac bell rings how many times
1 long ring
79
Bail out bell rings how many times
3 rings
80
Ditching bell rings how many times
6 short rings
81
The USAF uses the ___ program for terrorist detection
Eagle Eye
82
Someone recording or monitoring activities, including the use of cameras, is what observation of suspicious behaviors
Surveillance
83
FPCON Alpha
increased general threat
84
FPCON Bravo
increased or more predictable threat
85
Designated building, area, containing USAF resources that are targets for theft, compromise, or destruction
Controlled areas
86
___ training is designed to produce aircrew members that consistently use sound judgement
CRM
87
The loss of ___ is the number one cause reported on all human performance-related mishaps
Situational Awareness
88
___ occurs when there is too much to attend to at one time
Task saturation
89
___ occurs when crewmembers are under-challenged
Inattention
90
___ is the decrease in responsiveness upon repeated exposure to a given stimulus
Habituation
91
___ stems from personal motivation to reach a destination that conflicts with the safe completion of the mission
Get Home Itis Syndrome
92
___ is essential to the successful accomplishment of the mission and is not automatic
Crew Coordination
93
___ is responsible to the AC for safe ops of the acft
Flight Crew
94
What 4 items are required for all aircrews prior to departure during a weather briefing
current wx for departure planned destinations projected route alternate airport data
95
___ requires full coordination between crewmembers for proper planning
Mission planning
96
__ means the minimum amount of fuel needed to reach a designated landing area
Bingo
97
__ means Go to the indicated frequency
Push
98
___ governs air-air and air-ground comms
Allied Comm Pub (ACP) 121
99
___ are used to inquire/answer queries concerning signal strength and readability
Signal checks

Aircrew Fundamentals (10 decks)

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