BIO

Question 1

Saturated Fatty Acids prefer use when?

Answer 1

-Storage
-When Temp Rises
Packs closer together

Question 2

Unsaturated Fatty Acids prefer use when?

Answer 2

-NRG Production
-When Temp Decreases
Packs further apart

Question 3

6 Types of Lipids

Answer 3

1)Triacylglycerols
2)Fatty Acids
3)Phospholipids
4)Glycolipids
5)Steroids
6)Terpenes

Question 4

Sphinogolipid

Answer 4

When glycerol backbone in phospholipids has N at C2 position (SN2)

Question 5

Glycolipids versus Phospholipids

Answer 5

Polar head group in phospholipids is a sugar in glycolipids

Question 6

R/S Configuration of AA

Answer 6

S except Cysteine is R

Question 7

T or F R groups involved in secondary structure

Answer 7

False, just H bonding

Question 8

A disulfied bond is considered how many cysteines

Answer 8

1, even though 2

Question 9

Heat as a denature agent?

Answer 9

Disrupts all forces

Question 10

Salt and pH as denaturing agents?

Answer 10

Disrupt ion interactions (Na+ + Cl-, H+)

Question 11

Organic solvents (C+H) as denaturing agents?

Answer 11

Disrupt hydrophobic interactions

Question 12

Urea as denaturing agents?

Answer 12

Distrupts H-Bond, denature DNA=RNA

Question 13

B-mercaptoethanol as a denaturing agent?

Answer 13

Distrupts di-sulfide bonds (reducing gels from proteins in lab)

Question 14

2 Types of protein classes?

Answer 14

Structural and Gobular

Question 15

Glycoprotiens

Answer 15

Proteins with some carbphydrateses in membrane

Question 16

Proteoglycans

Answer 16

Greater than 50% carbs on protein in ECM

Question 17

Cytochromes

Answer 17

Proteins with prosthetic heme groups –> Covalently attached in ETC

Question 18

D for Carbs

Answer 18

OH on last chiral carbon is on the R (C6 (CH2OH) on top)

Question 19

alpha carb ring

Answer 19

opposite side OH

Question 20

L for Carbs

Answer 20

OH on last chiral carbon is on the L (C6 (CH2OH) on bottom)

Question 21

beta carb ring

Answer 21

same side OH

Question 22

Glycogen Branched 1-4

Answer 22

Connect horizontal

Question 23

Glycogen Branched 1-6

Answer 23

Connect Verticle

Question 24

Glycogen linkages

Answer 24

Alpha linkages with branching

Question 25

Starch linkages

Answer 25

Alpha linkages with minimal branching Amylopectin =branching Amylose = no branching

Question 26

Cellulose linkages

Answer 26

Beta Linkages with no branching

Question 27

Two forms of starch

Answer 27

Amylose and Amylopectin Amylose = No branching Amylopectin = Branching

Question 28

Does positive delta G favour products or reactants?

Answer 28

Reactants

Question 29

Does neg. delta G favour products or reactants?

Answer 29

Products

Question 30

Fat soluble vitamins

Answer 30

ADEK

Question 30

What is transition state?

Answer 30

Highest nrg state intermediate not substrate or product

Question 31

Water soluble vitamins

Answer 31

B-Vit, C- Vit, Folate

Question 32

2 Types of CoFactors

Answer 32

1)Organic (Vit) 2)Inorganic (Min)

Question 33

Prosthetic Group

Answer 33

Coenzyme covalently bound to the enzyme

Question 34

Holoenzyme

Answer 34

Active enzyme with bound co-enzyme

Question 35

Apoenzyme

Answer 35

protein part of enzyme

Question 36

High Km means high or low affinity

Answer 36

Low affinity creates substrate

Question 37

Competitive Inhibitor

Answer 37

Enzyme Active Site Inhibits substrate binding Increase Km No Change Vmax

Question 38

Uncompetitive Inhibitor

Answer 38

E-S complex DOESN"T Inhibits substrate binding Decrease Km Decrease Vmax

Question 39

Mixed Inhibitor

Answer 39

E-S complex or Enzyme DOESN"T Inhibits substrate binding Decrease/Increase Km Decrease Vmax

Question 40

Noncompetitive Inhibitor

Answer 40

E-S complex or Enzyme DOESN"T Inhibits substrate binding No Change Km Decrease Vmax

Question 41

Proteolytic Cleavage

Answer 41

Inactive enzymes are irreversibly activated by proteolytic cleave

Question 42

Reversible Covalent Modification

Answer 42

Enzyme activation often via a modifier

Question 43

Control Protiens

Answer 43

Control protiens or portein subunits associate with ezmes to active or inactivate activity

Question 44

Enzyme Regulation x4

Answer 44

-Proteolytic Cleavage -Reversible Covalent Modification -Control Proteins -Allosteric Interactions

Question 45

Oxidoreductases

Answer 45

Catalyzes transfer of electrons

Question 46

Hydrolases

Answer 46

Hyrdolyzes Bond

Question 47

Lysase

Answer 47

Breaks and forms new bonds

Question 48

Transferases

Answer 48

Transfers functional groups

Question 49

Isomerases

Answer 49

Switches configuration of molecule to isomer

Question 50

Ligases/Synthetases

Answer 50

Join molecules together using ATP

Question 51

Kinases

Answer 51

Phosphorylation of target

Question 52

Phosphatase

Answer 52

Dephosphorylation of target

Question 53

3 Irreversible Steps of Glycolysis

Answer 53

1: Glucose to G6P (Hexokinase) 3: F6P to F 1,6, Bisphosphate (PFK) ATP Used ^^ 9: Phosphoenolypyruvate to Pyruvate (Pyruvate Kinase) (ATP Create)

Question 54

Net Equation Glycolysis

Answer 54

1 Glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2ADP + 2Pi = 2pyruvate + 2NADH + 2H + 2ATP +2H2O

Question 55

Rxn to create NADH in Glycolysis

Answer 55

Glyceraldehyde 3 -Phosphate (2 Molecules) --> 1,3 Bisphosphoglycerate Via Glyceraldehyde 3 -Phosphate dehydrogenase

Question 56

2 Energy Generating Steps of Glycolysis

Answer 56

5: 1,3 Bisphosphoglycerate --> 3-Phosphoglycerate (Via Phosphoglycerate Kinase) 9: Phosphoenolyruvate --> Pyruvate (Via Pyruvate Kinase)

Question 57

2 Energy using Steps of Glycolysis

Answer 57

1: Glucose to G6P (Hexokinase) 3: F6P to F 1,6, Bisphosphate (PFK)

Question 58

Where does glycolysis occur

Answer 58

cytoplasm

Question 59

Where does krebs cycle occur

Answer 59

Mitochondria Matrix

Question 60

Wher does ETC occur

Answer 60

Mitochondria inner membrane

Question 61

What does the _____ rxn from pyruvate to acetyl-coA produce

Answer 61

Oxidation Reaction (oxidizing carbon is the release of O2) CO2 NADH

Question 62

Net result of TCA Cycle

Answer 62

per 2 Pyruvate (1 Glucose) 2ATP, 6NADH, 2FADH2 +4 CO2 as Biproduct

Question 63

Substrates of TCA Cycle

Answer 63

Oxaloacetate Citrate Isocitrate A-Ketogluterate Succinyl-CoA Succinate Fumarate Malate

Question 64

Where complex does NADH come in ETC

Answer 64

1

Question 65

Where complex does FADH come in ETC

Answer 65

2

Question 66

How many NADH pump and ATP create

Answer 66

Pumps 10 H+ into intermembrane space Makes 3 ATP

Question 67

How many FADH pump and ATP create

Answer 67

Pumps 6 H+ into intermembrane space Makes 2 ATP

Question 68

True or False Q Enzyme is a Protien Enzyme

Answer 68

False Lipid

Question 69

NADH or FADH is a better reducer?

Answer 69

NADH, FADH holds onto its E more

Question 70

How many does H+ take to produce ATP via ATP Synthase?

Answer 70

3 H+ = 1ATP

Question 71

1 NADH = ___ ATP

Answer 71

3 Except in glycolysis only 2 from transport of NADH from cytosol to mito

Question 72

1 FADH = ___ ATP

Answer 72

2

Question 73

ATP produced Glycolysis total

Answer 73

6 ATP 2 NADH x 2= 4 ATP 2 ATP on own

Question 74

ATP produced pyruvate oxidation

Answer 74

6 ATP 2 NADH x 3= 6 ATP

Question 75

ATP produce Krebs Cycle

Answer 75

24 ATP 2 GTP = 2 ATP 6 NADH x 3 =18 ATP 2 FADH x2 = 4 ATP

Question 76

Why is fermentation used?

Answer 76

Hypoxic condition regenerates NAD+ from reducing pyruvate to lactic acid. In hypoxic conditions, ATP can still be produced in glycolysis, but NAD+ is quickly depleted

Question 76

Total ATP produced from 1 Glucose molecule (2 turns krebs cycle)

Answer 76

36 ATP

Question 77

How does pyruvate produce NAD+

Answer 77

Pyruvate is reduced to Lactic Acid Pyruvate Carbon is reduced NADH is oxidized

Question 78

What is created via the PPP

Answer 78

2 NADPH = Fat Synthesis 5 Carbon Sugars Ribose Products that can be used in glycolysis

Question 79

What does the first branch of PPP

Answer 79

Oxidative Branch NADPH + CO2 Main regulator via feedback inhibition Ends with Ribulose-5-Phosphate

Question 80

What does the second branch of PPP

Answer 80

Non-Oxidative Branch 5 Carbon Sugars --> Ribose for creating nucelotides

Question 81

What are the two options of the PPP

Answer 81

1: Create Ribose 5 Phosphate for NUCLEOTIDES Oxidative and Non-Oxidatve 2: Glycolysis intermediates: Oxidative --> Non Oxidative to create G-3-P and F-6-P from ribose 5 phopshate

Question 82

What is the NADPH used for in PPP?

Answer 82

Fats Synthesis

Question 83

Acetyl CoA can be used for?

Answer 83

ATP and Fat Synthesis

Question 84

Where does PPP occur

Answer 84

Cytosol

Question 85

Where does Gluconeogensis occur

Answer 85

Cytosol

Question 86

What is required to be a substrate for gluconeogensis?

Answer 86

3-Carbon Structure Glycolysis/KREBS Intermediate's Lactate, Glycerol, Certain AA NOT Fatty Acid (Cuz made into acetyle Co-A)

Question 87

What cannot be used as a substrate for gluconeogensis?

Answer 87

NOT Fatty Acid (Cuz made into acetyl Co-A, via B-Oxidation)

Question 88

What is the exception to fatty acids being used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis?

Answer 88

Odd chain Fatty acids can be used, last 3 carbons can be used for gluconeogensis (Rest is used for B-Ox for acteyl CoA)

Question 89

What is Beta Oxidation

Answer 89

Fatty Acid Breakdown to acetyl CoA Occurs in Mitochondria

Question 90

Beta Oxidation Equation

Answer 90

Step 1: Fatty Acid + CoA + ATP = Acyl CoA +ADP + Pi Step 2: ACYL (Carbon) Chain- CoA + FAD + NAD+ +CoA = ACYL (Carbon) Chain- CoA (-2 Carbons/OG CoA) + Acetyl CoA (Krebs or Ketones) + NADH +FADH2 (ETC) Acyl (Carbon) Chain goes until chain is depleted

Question 91

Fatty acid synthesis occurs in

Answer 91

Cytosol

Question 92

Fatty Acid Synthesis Equation

Answer 92

2 Acetyl CoA (glycolysis) + ATP + NADPH (PPP) (Oxidizing Acetyl CoA) = 4-C Acyl CoA + CoA +2 NADP + ADP + PI 4-Carbon Acyl continues back by adding 2 more actyl CoA from glycolysis

Question 93

What is the default Fatty Acid Synthesis Created

Answer 93

16 Fatty Acid Palmitate

Question 94

Beta- Oxidation occurs how many carbons at a time

Answer 94

2

Question 95

When does Ketogenesis occur?

Answer 95

When in a starved state, fatty acids into acetyl CoA. Absence of insulin (low blood sugar levels), Acetyl CoA converted into Ketones. in Mitochodnira Ketones can travel on own in blood stream to specific tissues which then absorb it and convert it back to acetyl CoA, then ATP via CAC

Question 96

T or F Ketone Bodies can be used for gluconeogensis

Answer 96

False

Question 97

Where does ketogensis occur

Answer 97

Mitochondria

Question 98

When does Protein Anabolism Occur x3

Answer 98

Fed States Glycolysis Glycogenesis Lipid Storage

Question 99

When does Protein Catabolism Occur x4

Answer 99

Fasting State/UNFED Gluconeogenesis Glycogenolyisis Beta-Oxidation Ketogenesis

Question 100

Rate Limiting Enzyme of Glycolysis

Answer 100

Phosphofructosekinase-1

Question 101

Rate Limiting Enzyme Fermentation

Answer 101

Lactate Dehydrogenase

Question 102

Rate Limiting Enzyme Glycogenisis

Answer 102

Glycogen Synthase

Question 103

Rate Limiting Enzyme Glycogenolysis

Answer 103

Glycogen Phosphorylase

Question 104

Rate Limiting Enzyme Gluconeogenesis

Answer 104

Fructose 1-6 Bisphosphate

Question 105

Rate Limiting Enzyme PPP

Answer 105

G-6-P Dehydrogenase

Question 106

Which steps of CAA produce energy carrying products?

Answer 106

Isocitrate ==> A-Keto (NADH) A-Keto --> Succinyl CoA (NADH) Succinyl CoA --> Succinate (GTP) Succinate --> Fumerate (FADH2) Malate --> Oxaloacetate (NADH2)

Question 107

What is the greatest e-acceptor in ETC?

Answer 107

Oxygen, last and therefore takes the most

Question 108

Gluconeogenesis and Glyogenesis share what enzyme

Answer 108

G-6-Phosphotase

Question 109

What are the 3 substrates for gluconeogenesis?

Answer 109

Lactate Glycerol Certain AA (Glycolysis and Krebs Cycle Intermediates) Fatty Acids with last 3 Carbons, No Ketones

Question 110

What 3 things is the plasma membrane made of?

Answer 110

1. 50% protein 2. 48% Lipids 3. 2% Cells

Question 111

Smooth ER x4

Answer 111

Synthesis of Lipids and Sterioids Carb Metabolism Detox of Drugs Ca2+ Regulation

Question 112

Lysosomes are best in what evnviroment?

Answer 112

Acidic

Question 113

Peroxisome x2

Answer 113

Lipid and Protein Storage DETOX ROS (Reactive Oxidative Species)

Question 114

T or F all cells have same chemical composition

Answer 114

T

Question 115

T or F Energy flow occurs within cells

Answer 115

T

Question 116

4 Eukaryotic Organsims

Answer 116

1. Protista 2.Fungi 3.Plantae 4.Animalia

Question 117

What are the 3 things that eukaryotic cells have that prokaryotic don't

Answer 117

1.Membrane Bond Organelles 2.Histones 3.RNA Processing

Question 118

What is the difference in ribosomes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Answer 118

P: Smaller, 30s,50s,70s (ODD) E: Larger, 40s,60s,80s, (EVEN)

Question 119

What is the difference in cell wall between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Answer 119

P: Made of Peptidoglycan E: IF CW: - Insects and FUNGI: CHITIM -Plants: Cellulose

Question 120

What is the difference in flagella between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Answer 120

P: Made of Flagellin and Spin E: Made of Microtubules and Swish

Question 121

What is the difference in divison between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Answer 121

P: Binary Fission E: Mitosis

Question 122

What is the difference in Genome between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Answer 122

P: Circular Chromo E: Liner Chromo

Question 123

T or F DNA can leave nucleus

Answer 123

False, transcription occurs in nucleus and leaves as RNA

Question 124

What time of enzyme rxn occurs in lysomes

Answer 124

Hydrolytic Enzymes

Question 125

The RER first targets proteins for what organelle

Answer 125

Golgi, transmembrane proteins ALL proteins are tagged to be brought from RER to Golgi via ER lumen Golgi then sends them to final destinanctin

Question 126

Proteins that are made for the cytosal are made/translated where?

Answer 126

In cytosol, free ribosome All other are RER (exported from cell or are sequestered in a vesicle)

Question 127

Golgi Processes what 2 things?

Answer 127

Proteins and Lipids

Question 128

Do all cells have the same amounts of organelles

Answer 128

NO, cells that require more energy will have more mito, cells that require more secretion have more RER and golgi depends on their use

Question 129

What are the 3 structures of the cytoskeleton (support and movement)?

Answer 129

1. Microfilments 2.Intermediate Filaments 3.Microtubules

Question 130

Role of the Microfilaments/ACTIN?

Answer 130

Cell Shape/Support -Muscle Contraction and Cytokinisis

Question 131

Role of Intermediate Filaments?

Answer 131

Maintain Cell Shape ( STRONGER than Actin) -Vimentins, Keratin, Lamin

Question 132

Role of Mictrotublues

Answer 132

Intracellular Transport (highways of cells( -Mitotic Spindles and Cilia,Flagella

Question 133

Where do microtublues start

Answer 133

MTOC and extend from positive end

Question 134

What are alpha and beta tubule dimers bound to

Answer 134

GTP -B can hydrolyzes the GTP to signal the breakdown of the microtubule

Question 135

How many microtubules are in a single arrangement?

Answer 135

13 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP) (A)

Question 136

How many microtubules are in a double arrangement?

Answer 136

23 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP) 13 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP) (A) 11 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP)( B) 9+2 Arrangement of a microtubules (9 bound doublettes and 2 singlettes) in a structure

Question 137

How many microtubules are in a triple arrangement?

Answer 137

33 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP) 13(a), 11(b), 11(c) 9+1 Arrangement of a microtubules (9 bound trippletes and 1 singlette) in a structure

Question 138

When the Mircotubule depolarmizes what happens with concern to GTP?

Answer 138

GTP quickly hydrolyzies but a GTP tubulin cap at + end of growing tubule prevents spont. depolyermization (DURING BUILDING OF MT) When depolrymized the hydroylisis of GTP catches up to the + end and the enture structure collapses CATASTROPHE

Question 139

Cilia and Fagella are composed of

Answer 139

AXONEME, MT Doublettes (9+2 formation of MT (doublettes and singles) Doublettes held together by dynein, which causes movement

Question 140

what does it mean for the lipid bilayer to be assymetric?

Answer 140

Phospholipids and protein compositions on the outside and inside of bilayer are structurally and functionally different

Question 141

Sphingolipids are different from phospholipids how?

Answer 141

SN2 of glycerol has N attached Have a sphingosine group and a fatty acid group instead of 2 fatty acids Important in mylein

Question 142

What does cholesterol do in the plasma membrane?

Answer 142

Modulates the fluidity of the membrane -Good @ Hot /High Temp: fills gaps, slows down movement of other membrane components, therefore decreasing membrane fluidity -COUNTERACTS: good bc MF increases with temp. -Good @ Cold/Low Temp: spaces our lipids so they cannot constrict as tightly -COUNTERACTS: Decreases intermolecular force to increase fluidity, cuz with cold fluidity decreases

Question 143

How are miscelles and membrane different even tho both made of phosplipids

Answer 143

Membranes must be actively assembled as they are less thermo stable, compared to miscless which are most stable and form spont.

Question 144

Hydrophobic or Hydrophilic Molecules can pass through the lipid bilayer?

Answer 144

Hydrophobic because interior

Question 145

The overall diffusion of a molecule across a membrane is determined by

Answer 145

Electrochemical gradient -Chemical Gradient: Concentration (high to low) -Electrical Gradient: Movement in the direction of the + charged ion would go

Question 146

Proteins that transverse the membrane are called?

Answer 146

Integral Protein (amphipathic)

Question 147

Proteins associated with integral membrane proteins on the membrane surface are known as?

Answer 147

Peripheral or Extrinsic Proteins

Question 148

Types of Peripheral or Extrinsic Proteins x6

Answer 148

-Selective Transport Channel -Enzyme -Cell Surface Receptor -Cell Surface Identify Marker -Cell Adhesion -Attachment to the cytoskeleton

Question 149

Phagocytosis vs. Pinocytosis

Answer 149

Phagocytosis = Large Random Transport Pinocytosis = Small Random Transport

Question 150

Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis

Answer 150

Selective endocytosis -LDL in cytosol -LDL receptors on plasma -Straight to lysomes (Bring into cell -> Endosome -> Lysosome)

Question 150

What are the 3 types of junctions that connect animal cells?

Answer 150

1. Tight JXN 2.Desmosomes 3.Gap Jxn

Question 150

What does exocytosis use?

Answer 150

It uses secretory vesicles produced by Golgi and release the extracellular fluid of to membrane if transmembrane domain

Question 151

Transcellular Path v. Para Cellular Path?

Answer 151

trans= cross membranes (through 1 cells) Para = btwn cells

Question 152

Tight Jxn

Answer 152

Form a water tight seal btwn cells that prevents passage of molecules in btw cells

Question 153

Desmosomes

Answer 153

-Join two cells at a single pt and attach directly to the cytoskeleton of each cell -Hold cells together but do not prevent fluid from circulating the sides -Tension resistance to a layer of cells.

Question 154

Gap Jxn

Answer 154

CRUCIAL FOR CELL-TO-CELL COMMUNICATION -Small tunnels connecting cells that allow molecules and ions to move btwn them -Gap jxn in cardiac muscle allows for the spread of action potential

Question 155

When will osmosis stop

Answer 155

when it reaches dynamic equilibrium, when osmotic pressure is equal to hydrostatic pressure

Question 156

Osmosis causes water to move from

Answer 156

Low solute to high solute High water to low water Cross a semipermeable membrane

Question 157

Tonicity

Answer 157

Solute Concentration

Question 158

Isotonic

Answer 158

Same concentration to enviro

Question 159

Hypertonic

Answer 159

More highly concentrated compared to enviro

Question 160

Hypotonic

Answer 160

Less highly concentrated compared to enviro

Question 161

Simple Diffusion vs. Faciltated Diffusuin

Answer 161

Simple: Just passes thru membrane -Increases linear as it does not depend on anything Facilitated: Exponential and then level out -Fast @ Start (low concentration) -Saturated = Max speed (relies on amount of transporters) FOR BOTH NO NRG IS USED

Question 162

Active Transport

Answer 162

Requires energy to pass (the process is going against electrochemical gradient (unnatural)) Gradients created

Question 163

Primary Active Transport

Answer 163

Hydrolysis of ATP takes places directly in order to transport the solute in question

Question 164

Sodium Potassium Pump is and proccess and net equation

Answer 164

Form of Primary Active Transport 3 Na out 3K in 1ATP 1. Binding of cytoplasm (inside the cell) Na+ to pump triggers phosphorylation by ATP 2. Phosphorylation causes conformation change in protein 3. The conformation change expels Na+ to outside and extacellular K+ binds 4.K+ binding triggers the release of phosphate (that came from ATP) 5.Lossof phosphate restores OG conformation 6. K+ is released and Na sites active again

Question 165

What is secondary active transport

Answer 165

No direct coupling of ATP (established first step) Step 1: Establish gradient with active transport (H+ gradient) Step 2: Use H_ gradient to move 2nd substance (desired) into cell

Question 166

What is the Extra Cellular Matrix (ECM)

Answer 166

Extracellular part of animal tissue that provides structural support to cells (LOCATED BTWN CELLS) Contains: STICK CELLS TOGETER -proteoglycans -structural proteins -adhesive proteins

Question 167

4 basic types of tissues?

Answer 167

1. Neuro 2.Connective 3.Muscle 4. Epitheilal

Question 168

Working together of cells heirachy x5

Answer 168

1.CELLS 2.TISSUE 3.ORGANS 4.SYSTEMS 5.ORGANSISM

Question 169

Endosymbiosis theory

Answer 169

Bacteria (aerobic) are eaten by Archea (anaerobic) and have a symbiotic relationship over formed eukaryotic cells. Bacteria live inside hosts (

Question 170

What are the 3 parts of a virus

Answer 170

1. Genetic Material (DNA/RNA, SS/DS) 2. Capsid (Protein Coat) 3. Envelop (Optional, old host membrane to blend in)

Question 171

What are the subviral particles x2

Answer 171

Viroids (naked RNA/plants) and Prions (naked proteins)

Question 172

What are bacteriophages

Answer 172

virus that infects bacteria

Question 173

How to most virus capsids enter cell

Answer 173

Receptor-mediated enocytosis

Question 174

What do retrovirus contain

Answer 174

RNA and Reverse Transcriptase

Question 175

How do retrovirus work

Answer 175

1. Enter cell via fusion 2. Reverse Transcription to convert Viral RNA to DNA 3. Viral DNA enters the hosts gene and is integrated (cannot tell btwn cell OG and Viral DNA now) 4. Transcription, Translation using cells to make more retrovirus 5.Ritrovirus released by budding

Question 176

HIV is what type of virus

Answer 176

Retrovirus

Question 177

What do antiviral do?

Answer 177

Target steps of retrovirus before integration

Question 178

Lytic Cycle: What and what types of virus

Answer 178

Replication cycle Symptomatic Active cycle replication Virulant Virus STRESS go somewhere else

Question 179

Lysogenic Cycle/ Provirus: What and what types of virus

Answer 179

Replication cycle No Symptoms Integrated into genome Temperate virus

Question 180

How are organisms classified interms of how they aquire carbon and energy

Answer 180

Prefix: -Photo: NRG from Light -Chemo: NRG form inorganic matter Suffix: -Autotroph: Make own carbon source -Heterotroph: Eat.Consume carbon from other organism

Question 181

2 Domains of Prokaryotes

Answer 181

1.Bacteria 2.Archea

Question 182

3 distinct of archaea?

Answer 182

1.No cell Nucleus 2.No Organelles 3.Extreme Habitat

Question 183

Bacteria are only anaerobic

Answer 183

False, they are both aerobic and anaerobic

Question 184

What are plasmids

Answer 184

In bacteria, small extra-chromo DNA molecules hat may contain genes for antibiotic resistance or virulence factors -Replicate independant -Gain or Lost over tie -Passed to next gene

Question 185

what does DNA look like in bacteria

Answer 185

SINGLE, CIRCULAR, CHROMOSOME of DOUBLE STRANDED DNA

Question 186

True or False Bacteria have membrane bound organelles

Answer 186

False, Nuc, Mito, Golgi, ER

Question 187

two "membranes" of bacteria

Answer 187

1. Membrane and everything inside = Protoplast 2. Cell wall and Capsule = Envelope Cell wall is required or else protoplast would burst

Question 188

The cytosol of the bacteria is _____ to the enviro and results in?

Answer 188

HYPERTONIC -Water flows until hydrostatic pressure = osmotic pressure -Pressure against container = draw into container cuz of solute Therefore cell wall is needed or else protoplast would burts

Question 189

Neg. Gram Stain

Answer 189

Pink Thin Cell Wall Small Petidoglycan between 2 cell membranes

Question 190

Pos. Gram Stain

Answer 190

Purple Thick Cell Wall Lots peptidoglycan outside cell

Question 191

Bacteria Growth is what type

Answer 191

Exponential, so doubles each phase 10-->20 --> 40 --> 80--> 160 Each organism produces two daughters

Question 192

3 types of Bacteria recombination?

Answer 192

1. Conjugation: Me and Zebra 2. Transformations: Me and dead road kill 3. Transduction: I get COVID, I infect grace, grace gets covid + paige DNA

Question 193

Conjugation

Answer 193

Bacteria "Sex" Bacteria join via bridge and transfer F Plasmid is required (Sex Pili) F+ = Donor F-= Acceptor Single-stranded DNA transfered and the F Plasmid is Nicked The both bacteria cells synthesisze complemenrary strand to produce doubele stranded circular plasmid and new pili as both are donors

Question 194

Transformation

Answer 194

Picked up "naked" DNA from enviro LAB PICK UP

Question 195

Transduction

Answer 195

Virus "accidentally" takes some host genome in provirus (come out of genome to enter lytic cyle) next infected cells gets some old host cell DNA

Question 196

4 Phases of Bacteria Growth

Answer 196

1.Lag 2.Exponetial 3.Stationary 4.Death

Question 197

What is a episome

Answer 197

when a F plasmid from conugation is intergated into the main bacterial chromosome

Question 198

T or F R-Plasmids can conjugate

Answer 198

True but have different types of antibiotic resistance to their recipient cells (acceptors) R= Resistance

Question 199

What are transposons

Answer 199

Transposable Elements -In P and E -Genetic elements that can jump around by inserting and deleting themselves from the genome -TF: Create or Reverse Mutations Regulated by transponsases

Question 200

IS Elements

Answer 200

Transposase gene flanked by inverted repeated sequences

Question 201

Complex Transposons

Answer 201

Contains the transposes gene followed by REGULATORY GENES Again the transposons flanked by inverted repeats

Question 202

Composite Transposons

Answer 202

Two Transposase Sequences with a central region btwn them Inverted repeats flank sequence

Question 203

The transponses scar is how many BP repeats

Answer 203

two

Question 204

How is regulation different between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Answer 204

P: Changes due to environment (nutrient availability) E: Changes due to Homeostasis (Cell)

Question 205

What is a operan

Answer 205

A single promotor to multiple genes -Region of DNA codes for: -Promotor, Operator, Genes

Question 206

What does a operator do?

Answer 206

Prevent gene expression of operon (genes) when repressor-bound -Negative Feedback Regulation (from repressor) DEFAULT IS NO EXPRESSION

Question 207

Process of Prokaryotic Regulation

Answer 207

WHEN NO LACTOSE PRESENT: Repressor (lac1) made and binds to operator PREVENTING the RNA polymerase/operon from transcribing lac proteins (High Glucose, 0 Lactose) (Low Glucose, 0 Lactose) WHEN LACTOSE PRESENT: (No glucose) Repressor (lac1) made and binds to lactose, ALLOWING the RNA polymerase to transcribe/operan activated and lac proteins made (High Glucose, High Lactose) (Low Glucose, High Lactose --> CAMP)

Question 208

Positive Control of Lac Operator

Answer 208

Occurs due to LACK of GLUCOSE: -Need more lactose, -Low glucose = High cAMP binds to CAP -CAP activates operan promoter -Proteins Made (Low Glucose, High Lactose --> CAMP)

Question 209

If the carbon 2 (bottom right carbon) on ribose (5c) sugar in DNA is H it is DNA or RNA

Answer 209

DNA

Question 210

If the carbon 2 (bottom right carbon) on ribose (5c) sugar in DNA is OH it is DNA or RNA

Answer 210

RNA

Question 211

Purines

Answer 211

A and G Double ring bases

Question 212

Pyrimidines

Answer 212

T and C Single Ringed Bases

Question 213

Differences between purines

Answer 213

A has no oxygen G has Oxygen

Question 214

Differences between pyimidines

Answer 214

T has 3 branches (2 O2) C has 2 Branches (1 O2)

Question 215

Nuceloside vs Nucleotide

Answer 215

Nucleoside is Nitrogenous base + ribose sugar Nucleotide is addition of phosphate group

Question 216

How are nucleotides attached

Answer 216

Phophodiester bond (covalent bond between two nucleotides) Dehydration reaction between the OH attached to the 3' C of deoxyribose sugar, and the phosphate group attached to the 5' carbon sugar of the next (The new nucleotide uses it 5' PO4 to attached to previous nucleotides 3' C) HAPPENS 5' to 3'

Question 217

How many H Bond bewteen T-A

Answer 217

2

Question 218

How many H bond between G-C

Answer 218

3

Question 219

What two forces stabilize double helix

Answer 219

Hydrogen Bonds Base Stacking (Hydrophobic)

Question 220

What does it mean that DNA is replicated in a semi-conservative fashion?

Answer 220

Each replicatant/daughter contains a strand from parent

Question 221

Replication in both prok and euk is unidirectional or bidirectional

Answer 221

Bidirectional meaning that from replication bubble there are two replication forks leaving each orgin

Question 222

What regulates replication?

Answer 222

Replisome Attaches to orgin of replication and seperates the two DNA strands and form a replication bubble contain two replication forks

Question 223

Orgin of Replication EUK versus PROK

Answer 223

Multiple Orgins vs Single Orgin

Question 224

Step 1 Replication

Answer 224

Open Helix Via DNA Helicase

Question 225

Step 2 Replication

Answer 225

Hold Helix Open via Single Stranded Binding Protiens

Question 226

Step 3 Replication

Answer 226

Add Primer via RNA Primase

Question 227

Step 4 Replication

Answer 227

Extend DNA off Primer via DNA polymerase 3

Question 228

Step 5 Replication

Answer 228

Remove Primer via DNA Polymerase 1 (Fills DNA) (in EUK primers removed via RNASE h) Ozarki Fragements

Question 229

Step 6 Replication

Answer 229

Seal Strands via DNA Ligase

Question 230

Which enzyme catalyzes DNA Replication and PROOFREEDS

Answer 230

DNA Polymerase

Question 231

DNA polymerase can only add NTD if

Answer 231

there is a existing 3'OH

Question 232

Leading Strand attaches to which antiparallel strand

Answer 232

The 5' -3' antiparallel strand from start Works with up with fork

Question 233

Lagging Strand with Okazi Fragemnet attaches to which antiparallel strand

Answer 233

The 3'-5' antiparallel strand from start Works down the fork

Question 234

3 Roles of DNA Polymerase

Answer 234

Assembles Leading and Lagging Strands Removes primer in Prokaryotes Proofreads

Question 235

What does RNAse H do?

Answer 235

Remove primers in eukaryotes

Question 236

How are telomeres lengthened different?

Answer 236

Ntd lengthened by telomerase instead of DNA Polymerase

Question 237

4 Ways RNA is different than DNA

Answer 237

1)Contains 2 OH on Sugar 2)Single Stranded 3)Contains Uracil and Not Thymine (pairs with A) 4)RNA can leave nucleus

Question 238

What 2 RNA's regulate gene expression?

Answer 238

1)Small Interferring RNA (siRNA) 2)Micro RNA (miRNA)

Question 239

What is the difference between mRNA and primary RNA

Answer 239

Primary RNA is the product of transcription (immature single strand of mRNA) mRNA primary transcript is processed to encode a chemical blueprint used in translation (carries info used in translation)

Question 240

How is transcription regulated

Answer 240

1)Transcription Factors 2)upstream/downstream gene regukatory sequences

Question 241

What is the main regulatory point in gene expression

Answer 241

Transcription

Question 242

What is the TATA box

Answer 242

The promoter that initiation factors of transcription find and assemble transcription initation complex

Question 243

What unzips DNA is transcription

Answer 243

RNA polymerase to create TRANSCRIPTION BUBBLE

Question 244

Transcription is unidirectional or bidirectional

Answer 244

Unidirectional and continuous

Question 245

What has higher and faster proof reading, transcription or DNA replication

Answer 245

DNA replication

Question 246

Transription uses one or two templates

Answer 246

1

Question 247

T or F primers are used in transcription

Answer 247

F

Question 248

What are the 3 post-transcriptional modifications that occur inside the nuceleus

Answer 248

1)5' Cap 2)Poly(A) Tail 3)Splicing

Question 249

What is the use of the 5'Methyl Guanine Cap

Answer 249

Added to the 5' End of Transcript Attachment site for protein synthesis and protection from transcript degradation by exonucleases

Question 250

What is the Poly A Tail

Answer 250

3' End of transcript String of Adenine nucleotides protecting the 3' end of transcript from degradation

Question 251

What is spicing

Answer 251

Introns are cleaved out, and exons are spliced together: PRIMARY TRANSCRIPTION.

Question 252

What enzyme is for splicing

Answer 252

snRNPs

Question 253

What are the 3 traits of the genetic code?

Answer 253

1)Unambiguous -one 3 nucleotide sequence read 5'-3' on the mRNA strand codes for a specific AA 2)Degenerative -One AA may have more the one 3 nucleotide sequence 3)Universal -Nearly every living organism uses the same genetic code

Question 254

3 Stop Codons

Answer 254

UAA: You Are Annoying (Stop) UAG: You Are Gone (Stop) UGA: You Go Away (Stop)

Question 255

1 Start Codons

Answer 255

AUG, or MET for AA Are U Going (START)

Question 256

What is the Sedimentation Coefficent

Answer 256

Ribosome consisting of both the large and small subunits

Question 257

Sedimentation Coefficient Prok

Answer 257

30s +50s = 70s

Question 258

Sedimentation Coefficient Euk

Answer 258

40s + 60s = 80s

Question 259

What are the 3 sites for translation

Answer 259

A: approach P: Polymerization E; Exit

Question 260

The MET in translation starts at what site in translation

Answer 260

P

Question 260

Translation is made in what direction

Answer 260

5'->3' N->C

Question 261

What is a peptide

Answer 261

A small non fxn protein that is made in during the process of translation before protien is finished (transaltion is finished)

Question 262

Why is there no proofreading in translation

Answer 262

There is virtually no proofreading once the translation is underway because hydrolyzing (removing) an incorrect AA would release the peptide from the ribosome.

Question 263

What happens when a stop codon is met in translation (reaches A site)

Answer 263

Release factor bind (No associated tRNA)

Question 264

Difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes translation

Answer 264

Prokaryotes: Completes Transcription + Translation same time in cytoplasm Eukaryotes: Completes transcription and translation at different times, translation in cytoplasm

Question 265

How does the translation of Membrane-Bound Proteins work?

Answer 265

1. Polypeptide Sequence begins with a free-floating ribosome 2. The first 20 AA form a signal protein recognized by the SRP 3. SRP bounds and translation temp stops 4. SRP carries ribo complex to SRP receptor protien in RER 5. Translation resume inside RER lumen 6. Signal protein is removed by cleaving that area of protein 7. Protein goes under post translation modification in RER 8. Protien Transported to final target

Question 266

What are 3 examples of post-translational modifications

Answer 266

1. Folding aided by chaperon proteins 2. Addition of sugar residues 3. Additions of lipids and phosphate groups

Question 267

What happens if post-translational control takes a while or decides proteins are not done and we need protien?

Answer 267

Post-translational control have inactive proteins on the READY which can be activated by cleavage phosphorylation

Question 268

Pt mutations only matter if in what region?

Answer 268

Coding

Question 269

Missense Point Mutation

Answer 269

The change causes the codon to code for a different AA (may or may not impact the overall function)

Question 270

Nonsense Point Mutation

Answer 270

The change causes the codon to code for a stop codon (resulting in truncated, usually non-fxn protien)

Question 271

What are Frameshift Mutations

Answer 271

Deletion and Insertion of nucleotides in multiples of 3 Alter the reading frame of the eventual coding region

Question 272

Insertion mutations only affect the protein sequence if they are not in multiples of ___

Answer 272

Multiples of 3 will not change = non-frameshift mutations.

Question 273

Forward mutations to a already mutated gene will

Answer 273

Move it even further from original state (wild type)

Question 274

Backward mutations to already mutated gene

Answer 274

Move it back/revert towards orginal state (wild type)

Question 275

T or F mutations can be desriable

Answer 275

True may increase fitness of a organism by promoting desirable traits

Question 276

Large scale mutations are how big and occur where?

Answer 276

greater than 1000bp Occur at the chromosome level

Question 277

What happens if DNA Repair fails?

Answer 277

Cell Apoptosis

Question 278

When is proofreading capability is at the lowest?

Answer 278

Transcription and Translation

Question 279

What is Cancer the result of?

Answer 279

Unrestrained and Uncontrolled growth of cells due to accumulation of mutation.

Question 280

What are the 3 things that can contribute to cancer?

Answer 280

1) Gain of Fxn Mutation (Oncogens via Carcinogens, unstopped cell growth, just keeps going) 2)Loss of Fxn mutatuon (Loss of tumor supressor gene fxn, loss of stop growth capabaility) 3)ROS (reactive oxygen species)

Question 281

What is the hierarchy of the DNA/Protein complex of chromatin? x5

Answer 281

1. Histones 2.Nucleosome 3.Solenoids 4.Supercoils 5. Chromatin

Question 282

What does chromatin attach to form chromosomes

Answer 282

Scaffold Proteins

Question 283

What are the 2 regions of the human chromosomes?

Answer 283

Telomere Region: repeating regions of DNA Sequences which protect the ends of each chromosome Centromere Region: Pt of mitotic spindle attachment during meiosis and mitosis

Question 284

How many chromosomes do humans have, and what is their shape?

Answer 284

23 pairs of homologs (similar but not identical chromosomes), 46 chromosomes total 92 Chromatid Linear

Question 285

Euchromatin

Answer 285

Contains expressed regions of chromatin and is loosly packadged

Question 286

Heterochromatin

Answer 286

Contains tightly packaged non expressed regions of chromatin

Question 287

Epigentics

Answer 287

Changes that are made around the genome that do not alter the actual nucleotide sequence -Controls chromatin coiling and uncoiling to regulate which DNA sequences are transcribed

Question 288

3 Common epigenetic changes

Answer 288

1)Histone Modification -Acetylation, Methylation, Phosphorylation 2)DNA Methylation

Question 289

2 phases of cell cycle

Answer 289

Mitosis Interphase: G1, S and G2

Question 290

Go

Answer 290

Cell arrest cycle Most differienated cells enter here

Question 291

G1

Answer 291

Most of time cell is here (or Go) Normal Cell Acitivity

Question 292

S

Answer 292

DNA replication

Question 293

G2

Answer 293

Normal Cell Activity but double DNA Checks in replication

Question 294

Pt of Mitosis

Answer 294

Separate sister chromatids (from replication) into 2 genetically identical daughter cells

Question 295

Prophase x3

Answer 295

1.Condensation of chromatin 2.Formation of spindle apparatus 3. Nuclear Envelope Disintegrates

Question 296

Metaphase

Answer 296

Lining up of Chromosomes

Question 297

Anaphase x2

Answer 297

Disjunction and start of cytokinesis

Question 298

Telophase x4

Answer 298

Nuclear envelop reforms Cytokinesis Cont Chromosomes condense Two diploid cells produced

Question 299

Diploid = Homologous T or F

Answer 299

T There are 46 chromosomes before and 46 chromosome after replication

Question 300

How are autosomal chromosomes organized and labels?

Answer 300

1-22(#) Largest to Smallest

Question 301

What triggers epigenetic changes in Chromatin

Answer 301

incRNA: long noncoding DNA

Question 302

If given coding strand how to transribe to RNA

Answer 302

Keep strand the same switch A to U

Question 303

If giving template strand how to transcribe to RNA

Answer 303

Transcribe as normal (all and A to U)

Question 304

How many chromosomes in haploid (gametes)

Answer 304

23

Question 305

How many chromosomes are in diploid germ cells?

Answer 305

46 (23 pairs)

Question 306

When does crossing over occur?

Answer 306

Prophase 1 Forms the Synaptonemal Complex Tetrads (2 Chromosomes) Cross Over

Question 307

What is a Haplotype

Answer 307

A set of alleles or regions of DNA that are inherited together.

Question 308

In anaphase 1 what are seperated

Answer 308

Tetrades, the two homologous chromosomes split SO, Both chromosomes split, but the chromatid stay together.

Question 309

When does the law of independent assortment occur?

Answer 309

Metaphase 1

Question 310

3 Ways Eukaryotes increase genetic diversity?

Answer 310

1)Crossing over in prophase 1 2)Random assortment in metaphase 1 3)2 Gametes fertilized to produce a unique diploid zygote.

Question 311

What is nondisjunction

Answer 311

Failure of chromosome pairs to separate at anaphase one or sister chromatid to separate at anaphase 2 Results in imbalance of chromosomes, aneuploid

Question 312

Monosomy

Answer 312

Loss of a single chromosome in zygote (45) . Most not viable in nature. 2n-1

Question 313

Trisomy

Answer 313

Addition of a single chromosome in the zygote (47) 2n+1

Question 314

Turner Syndrome

Answer 314

Monosomy of the sex chromosomes (genetically female)

Question 315

Klinefelters Syndrome

Answer 315

Trisomy of the sex chromosomes (XXY: total of 47 chromosomes) Male Extra X is a bar body

Question 316

When is nondisjunction the most impactful

Answer 316

Embryogenesis (mitosis) Offspring cells are affected which multiple to form a body, all cells will have the issue

Question 317

What are alleles

Answer 317

Versions of specific genes Gene for colour in eyes: alleles are the different colours

Question 318

The best test offsprings have these qualifications x4

Answer 318

1)Small 2)Easy to look after 3)Short Generation time 4)Lots of offspring

Question 319

Mendalian Ratio is

Answer 319

3:1

Question 320

What is a Test Cross (back cross)

Answer 320

Testing for if a dominant trait is it homozygous or heterozygous for the trait

Question 321

How do test crosses work

Answer 321

Breading the individual at question with a homozygous recessive person If a homozygous recessive trait appears in offspring, it is heterozygous if not its homozygous

Question 322

Incomplete Dominance

Answer 322

The dominant allele does not fully mask reccessive allele Heterozygous individual shows a intermediate phenotype that is a blend (pink)

Question 323

Co-dominance

Answer 323

There is no intermediate phenotype in the Heterozygote that fully expressed the phenotype of both alleles.

Question 324

Dihybrid Cross

Answer 324

They are used to look at the inheritance pattern of two separate characteristics.

Question 325

Dihybrid Cross Ratio

Answer 325

9:3:3:1

Question 325

Dihybrid test cross ratio

Answer 325

1:1:1:1 Gives all hetrozygotes

Question 326

What is the dihybrid test cross used for?

Answer 326

Confirm the presence of a heterozygous genotype in the F2 progeny of the original dihybrid cross

Question 327

How does a dihybrid test cross work?

Answer 327

Heterozygous F2 Progeny is crossed with homozygous recessive individual --> Gives all heterozygotes

Question 328

If genes are located on the same chromosome what is the likelihood they will remain together during crossover in prophase 1

Answer 328

Indirectly proportional to the distance separating them. The map units they are apart is the % of how often they are together.

Question 329

Why does the mosaic pattern occur

Answer 329

Barr body formation occurs randomly early in embryonic development and can result in mosaic patterns for females of phenotypic trains on the x chromosome. tortoise cats or colour vision in females Parental x activate in some cells and maternal x activated in other cells

Question 330

Penetrance

Answer 330

Probability of a gene or allele being expressed if it is present

Question 331

Incomplete Penetrance

Answer 331

A dominant is not always expressed in the heterozygous indvidual A recessive allele is not always expressed in homozygous recessive individual

Question 332

Complete Dominance

Answer 332

The penetrance of the dominant allele is 100% and 0% for the recessive allele

Question 333

Expressivity

Answer 333

Degree to which a phenotype is expressed by individuals with the same genotype -Polyductyl toes in cats 6,7,8,9: different expressivity

Question 334

Taxonomical Classification Darn King Philip Cuts Open Five Green Snakes

Answer 334

-Domain -Kingdom -Phylum -Class -Order -Family -Genus -Species

Question 335

Genus and Species are always in

Answer 335

Italics -genus first -Species is second

Question 336

What does hardy-weingberg display

Answer 336

No evolution/change in the gene pool of a sexually reproduce population

Question 337

Hardy-Weinberg 5 conditions

Answer 337

1.Large Pop. 2. Mutational Equilibrium (fwd=reverse) 3. No Migration 4. Random Mating 5. No natural selection

Question 338

Species offspring must be fertile (t/f)

Answer 338

True

Question 339

Speciation

Answer 339

A single ancestral species splits into multiple new species or a single species evolves into a reproductively distinct new species

Question 340

Genetic Drift and Two Types

Answer 340

When allele frequency change suddenly and by chance -Bottleneck -Founder effect

Question 341

Bottleneck effect

Answer 341

a population contracts to a significantly smaller size due to RANDOM ENVIROMENTAL EFFECT

Question 342

Founder Effect

Answer 342

A small group of individuals leaves a larger population and establishes a new population The new pop gene pool will reflect the alleles carried by the founders and may be different from the larger pop.

Question 343

Gene Flow

Answer 343

Transfer of alleles from one population to another

Question 344

Why in inbreeding bad

Answer 344

Causes inbreeding depression -Increased homozygous, decreased heterozygotes -Decreases genetic diversity -Increases unfavourable alleles

Question 345

Outbreeding (out crossing)

Answer 345

Increases heterozygotes -increasing genetic diversity

Question 346

Differential Reproduction

Answer 346

Varying degree of representation of a particular trait across generations

Question 347

T or F evolution is the same as natural selection

Answer 347

False Evolution is not the same as NS Natural Selection is a mechanism for evolution Natural selection is equivalent to survival of the fittest

Question 348

The molecular clock refers to?

Answer 348

Tracking random mutations to help determine where 2 species diverge

Question 349

Niche

Answer 349

All of the abiotic and biotic factors required by a organism

Question 350

Which is bigger fundamental (idealized set) niche or realized niche (actual)

Answer 350

Fundamental is bigger due to competetion btwn organisms for resources

Question 351

r-selected species

Answer 351

Put energy into reproduction over parental care. Unstable and unpredictable environments High repro, small body size, early maturity onset, short generation time and ability to disperse offspring widely.

Question 352

Adaptations of r-selected species

Answer 352

little advantage because the enviro is likely to change again.

Question 353

K-selected species

Answer 353

Put energy into ensuring offspring survive -stable and predictable environments -predominates because ability to compete successfully for limited resources crucial -Large body, long life expectancy, ad production of fewer offspring that require extensive parent care , long maturation process

Question 354

What species (r or K) would u most likely see close to carrying capacity?

Answer 354

K

Question 355

Mendelian Errors

Answer 355

Do not fit mendelian ratios -describe an allele in a indvidual which could have not been recieved from either of its biological parents by mend. inhertance

Question 356

Adaptive Radiation

Answer 356

The evolution of ecological and phenotypic diversity within a lineage new enviroment to be exploited is an adaptive zone.

Question 357

Commesnualism

Answer 357

relationship one one orgaism benefits and the other is uneffected.

Question 358

polymorphism

Answer 358

When two or more clearly different phenotypes exist in the same population of species.

Question 359

A and T/U have how many H-Bonds?

Answer 359

2

Question 360

G and C have how many H-Bonds?

Answer 360

3

Question 361

Denaturing occurs because of what?

Answer 361

Lost H-Bonds dsDNA to ssDNA

Question 362

Primers vs Probes

Answer 362

Primers: Bind and Build -Begin DNA synthesis at a specific site Probes: Find and Bind -Bind to DNA sequence and are labelled: radioactive, fluorescent and colourmetric

Question 363

Primers are made of what?

Answer 363

DNA (only RNA for replication)

Question 364

Probes are made of what?

Answer 364

RNA and DNA

Question 365

Size of Primers compared to Probes

Answer 365

Primer are small 18-25 nt Probes are long 300-700nt

Question 366

What biotech uses Primers? x2

Answer 366

PCR DNA Sequencing

Question 367

What biotech uses probes?x5

Answer 367

Northern/Southern Blots InSitu (FISH AND RNAISH) Microarrays RFLP

Question 368

What are the 2 parts of a antibody?

Answer 368

Conserved Sequence: Little Variability (where stored) Variable Sequence: Changes and unique to the specific antigen

Question 369

What is the difference btwn a primary and secondary antibody?

Answer 369

Primary = Attaches to Antigen Secondary = Attaches to Primary to make sequence stronger and faster

Question 370

What are the 8 DNA techniques?

Answer 370

1)Gel Electrophoresis 2)Restriction Enzymes/Endonucleases 3)PCR 4)DNA Sequencing 5)Southern Blot 6)RFLP 7)Cloning 8)FISH

Question 371

What type of gel is used for DNA?

Answer 371

Agarose

Question 372

DNA Gel Electrophoresis

Answer 372

RUN A GEL Separate DNA fragments by size/mass using an electric field. DNA has a NEG. CHARGE, DNA migrates towards positive anode. Bigger will move slower

Question 373

Restriction Enzyme/Endonuclease

Answer 373

Cut at 4 or 6 bp in a PALLINDROMIC DNA sequence (palindrome is same 5' to 3' on both strands)

Question 374

PCR

Answer 374

Photocopy small sections of DNA from a template, create billions of copies via exponential growth of specific sequence

Question 375

DNA Sequencing

Answer 375

Sequence by synthesis complementary strand with labelled primer (determining DNA Sequence) -Run a modified PCR with one primer -Run on a Gel -Determine Sequence Created

Question 376

Southern Blot

Answer 376

Detect the presence of a specific DNA sequence in the genome/sample: -isolate DNA, -RE digest (chop into smaller pieces) -Run on gel -Denature DNA with NaOH (dsDNA- ssDNA) -Transfer to blot (paper/membrane) -Probe DNA for target detect probe (where and where it doesn't bind)

Question 377

RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism)

Answer 377

Genotype Individuals/Detect Mutations -Isolate DNA -RE Digest -PCR Rxn -Southern Blot , Probe and Bind fragments -See sizes (difference in alleles)

Question 378

Cloning

Answer 378

Copy DNA (PCR) and ligate into lasmid cDNA ligase => add into new organism p

Question 379

FISH: Fluorescent IN SITU Hybridization

Answer 379

Use probe to locate specific DA in cell and check DNA integrity -IF cell is dying

Question 380

What are the 5 RNA biotech?

Answer 380

1. Gel Elelectrophorisis 2. RT-PCR (reverse transcriptase)/ q-PCR 3)Northern Blot 4)RNAISH 5)Microarray

Question 381

What Gel is used for RNA

Answer 381

Acrylamide Gel (smaller pore size = better size definition)

Question 382

RNA Gel Electrophoresis

Answer 382

Separate RNA by mass/size RNA has Negative Charge

Question 383

RT-PCR / Q-PCR

Answer 383

Make cDNA from mRNA (5'UTR, Exons, 3'UTR) Compare gene expression between sample

Question 384

Northern Blot

Answer 384

Quantative Run a gel, Transfer to lot Probe to detect presence

Question 385

RNAISH

Answer 385

Detect specific RNA gene expression and location in cell (Embryo dev)

Question 386

Microarray

Answer 386

Compare gene expression between 2 samples (treatment of thousands of genes simultaneously, increase and decrease expression, done with computer)

Question 387

What are the 6 protein biotech?

Answer 387

1)Gel Electrophoresis 2)Western Blot 3)Immunocytochemistry/Immunohistochemistry 4)Chromatography 5)X-ray Crystallography 6)Mass Spectrometry

Question 388

What gel is used for proteins?

Answer 388

Acrylamide

Question 389

How is gel electrophrosis different in proteins

Answer 389

AA carry positive, neg and neutral charges; therefore different cuz RNA and DNA are just negatuve

Question 390

Isoelectric Focus for Gel Electrophoresis

Answer 390

Protiens -Run small pH gradient gelei; 1st -Separate by charge (isoelectric pt)

Question 391

Native Gel for Gel Electrophoresis

Answer 391

Proteins No protein denaturing, keep shape and subunits together (compare to denatured)

Question 392

SDS page Gel Electrophoresis

Answer 392

Add a negative charge to each AA (denatured and flat), therefore all are now the same(all have neg charge) = Can solely be Separate by Mass

Question 393

Reducing Gel for Gel Electrophoresis

Answer 393

Break disulphide bonds (redox rxn, Beta neothethalyne) Ensures completely flat (usually paired with SDS)

Question 394

Western Blots

Answer 394

Isolate proteins Run Gel Transfer to Blot Use antibody to detect protein

Question 395

Immunocytochemistry/Immunohistochemistry

Answer 395

Detect protein with antibodies in cell sample, in sub cell compartments Location and Expression of Protien Staining sample

Question 396

Chromatography is what

Answer 396

Seperating protiens

Question 397

3 types of protein chromatography

Answer 397

Ion Exchange Size Exclusion/Gel Filtration Affinity (unique character)

Question 398

X-Ray Crystalliography

Answer 398

Find 3D shape of protien

Question 399

Mass Spectroscropy

Answer 399

Find Sequence of small peptides, identify protiens

Question 400

True or False Crystallization is used often?

Answer 400

False inefficient

Question 401

What are the 3 separation techniques

Answer 401

1)Extraction 2)Distillation 3)Crystalization

Question 402

What is Extraction?

Answer 402

Seperation based on solubility that invoves 2 not mixable phases (aq layer and less dense organic mixture) l

Question 403

Key moto for extraction

Answer 403

Weak before Strong -Weak Acid removes Strong Base -Strong Acid removes Weak Base -Weak Base removes strong acid -Strong Base removes weak acid

Question 404

What is distillation?

Answer 404

Separates compounds based on their differing bp (must be 20c difference) -Compound with lower bp will boil off first and can be captured and condensed in cool tube Fractional distillation if less than 20

Question 405

Crystalization

Answer 405

Seperation based on idea that pure substances form crystals more easily than impure substances

Question 406

How does chromatography work?

Answer 406

Mixture is dissolved into a solution (mobile phase, carrying sample thru) and poured over matrix Then it forms distinct layers by drawing out specific compounds and creates a stationary phase

Question 407

Which chromatography separate compounds based on polarity

Answer 407

Column Paper Thin Layer High-Pressure Liquid Polar stays (more interactions, slower), Non-polar fast

Question 407

Salting Out is used in what

Answer 407

Ion Exchange Chemotoloy Percipitate Ions

Question 408

How does Ion exchange chemotology work?

Answer 408

Mixture of charge protiens in a solution with charge beads (charge depends on which one you want out) They solution will seperate (attract and repell) -Repelled ones at bottom Then salting out (a buffer) comes in and removes attracted one from stationary phase as buffer replaces -Come to bottom seprate

Question 409

Mobile Phase

Answer 409

The phase in which there is movement. Not stuck the one that is selected to move. Non polar (cuz polar sticks) Other Charge (one charge sticked, mobile is free to move) Affinity binds to one attached and leaves the other to move

Question 410

What 3 things does affinity chromtaology due to result in stationary phase

Answer 410

1) Receptor proteins binds to stationary Ligands 2)Enzyme proteins bind to stationary substrate 3)Antibody protein binds to stationary antigen

Question 411

Stationary Phase

Answer 411

Behind Bind to, stops from moving, and allows the other thing to move through (mobile phase)

Question 412

T or F SDS Page can also be used to seperate protiens by isoelectric points?

Answer 412

True, That is the pH of a particular molecule has no net electric phase pH gradient is added to gel before the electric gradient

Question 413

Gel Electrophoresis uses what?

Answer 413

Non-Spont. Electrolytic Cell

Question 414

Further right on a Gas Chromo means what

Answer 414

More Polar

Question 415

Restriction sites must be x2

Answer 415

1)Palindromic 2)4 or 6 Nuceotides Long

Question 416

PCR key reagents x5

Answer 416

1)DNA template 2)2 DNA Primers 3)Taq polymerase 4)dNTPS 5)mg2+(buffer) to stabilize DNA

Question 417

3 Steps of PCR

Answer 417

1)Denature -raise temp 90-95 break H-bonds btwn strands, now ss DNA template so primers can hybridize 2)Annealing -Lower temp (50-60), allows the short primer to hybridize w/out the template coming back together (primers binding) 3)Elongation -Raise temp. to DNA polymerase (TAQ) optimum (70-72) -Replicate and build new DNA strand -Synthesis by adding 3'OH of primer

Question 418

4 ways PCR is different than DNA replication

Answer 418

1) PCR: Vitro (test tube) DNA:Vivo (cell) 2) PCR: DNA Primer Ordered DNA: RNA primers (s phase, primase makes them) 3) PCR: Uses heat to denature to get ssDNA DNA: Uses DNA helicase to break h-bond and denature to get ssDNA 4) PCR: Amplify small DNA segment DNA:Entire DNA helix chromosome

Question 419

What is Cell Culture?

Answer 419

Process in which cells are are grown under controlled conditions outside the organism

Question 420

What is the growth curve for cell culture

Answer 420

Lag Phase Log phase (exponential, lots of resources and space) Stationary (cell growth = cell death) Death Phase (#deaths is greater than # divisios), toxins build up not enough resources

Question 421

The magnification of a microscope is equal to?

Answer 421

Mag = Objective (btm) x Ocular (eye 10x)

Question 422

What are the two downsides to a electron microscope?

Answer 422

Immobile In a Vaccum (closed)

Question 423

Diffraction in a microscope is limited to the resolution of what?

Answer 423

Approx 0.2 micrometers (0.2 micro/200 nano) Resolution is distance btwn 2 pts to see as 2 objects

Question 424

Transmission Electron Microscopy is used for

Answer 424

Internal cellular structures -obtain higher resoltuion using a electron beam with small wavelentgh

Question 425

Scanning electron Miscrosy is used for?

Answer 425

Surface or 3D structures

Question 426

Light Microscopy can only be used for what? x2

Answer 426

Image Dark and Refracting Objects

Question 427

What is Flow Cytometry

Answer 427

Used for counting and examining microscopic particles (cells and chromo) Suspending them in a stream of fluid and passing them through an electronic detection apparatus (stained with flourescents before)

Question 428

4 Steps for DNA extraction

Answer 428

1)Cells are broken open to expose the DNA within (cell lysis) by grinding, sonification, or the use of chemicals 2)Membrane lipids are removed by adding a detergent 3)Proteins are digested using a protease 4)Dna is perciptated with a alc

Question 429

How does DNA cloning work

Answer 429

1)Plasmid DNA and Foregin DNA are both cut with the same restriction enzyme (sticky ends made complementary to each other) 2)Foreign DNA is inserted into the plasmid where it inactivates the lacz Gene

Question 430

What is needed for DNA cloning x4

Answer 430

1)A DNS Plasmid/Vector 2)Gene for Antibiotic Resistance (without plasmid dies) 3)A reporter gene for lac z (conform DNA was inserted into plasmid) 4)Know locations of restricted endonucleases sites

Question 431

How does DNA sequencing work?

Answer 431

Sequencing Process for DNA -DNA to be sequencesd is contained in pure recombinate plasmids and divided into 4 seperate rxn tubes Template --> Coding -Each tube contain all nucelotides , DNA polyemerase, and primers complementary to flanking regons of DNA -Each tube contains one of four ddntps which lack 3'OH terminating sequence -The fragments undergo gel electrophorisis in 4 seperate lanes (for each ddntp) -Small fragments appear first (there ddntp) and then large -Read bottom to top to get sequence (bottom 5'- top3')

Question 432

In DNA sequencing how do we identify the last base

Answer 432

Which ddNTP was added, deduce sequence

Question 433

True or False cDNA has introns?

Answer 433

False made from mRNA so it lack introns But is the same as the DNA without introns

Question 434

What is RT-PCR used for?

Answer 434

Used to determine if a gene of interest is actually transcribed in vivo into mRNA. Tells use whether a given gene is turned on in that tissue or at development pt in time

Question 435

Q-PCR

Answer 435

Measure the cDNA template actially avaliable Does RT-PCR but gives amount not just yes or no if it is activated

Question 436

What is In SITU hybridization?

Answer 436

Uses complementary DNA or RNA probe to localize specific DNA or RNA sequence in a portion of tissue (in situ) Allows research to determine WHERE a given gene is transcribed and integrity

Question 437

Why do we have ctrl for blotting?

Answer 437

Use ACTIN or TUBLIN To ensure equal loading control. Ensure that what you are seeing isn't just bigger or small by chance, compare to ctrl, they should all be the same size down the row)

Question 438

Immunohistorchemistry

Answer 438

Used to determine protein expression -Secondary antibody with flourscents or enzymes recognizes primary and covery info about expression -ANTIBODY BIND TO KNOWN PROTEIN

Question 439

What are peptide hormones made of?

Answer 439

Amino Acids and Sugars

Question 440

Peptide hormones are polar or nonpolar?

Answer 440

Polar, travel easily in blood

Question 441

Polar Hormone characteristics compared to Non-Polar

Answer 441

Polar Hormones have a short term fast response Non-polar are long term and slow acting

Question 442

How are peptide hormones made?

Answer 442

RER to Golgi, secretory pathway to plasma membrane

Question 443

How do polar hormones interact with their target?

Answer 443

Bind at target cell surface receptor

Question 444

What is GPCR and what is its pathway?

Answer 444

Peptide Hormone GCPR GProtien Effector (adenyl cyclase) (convert ATP to cAMP) Make 2nd Messenger (CAMP) Activate Target (PKA) Results in Many protein changes (PKA phosprykates other protiens) Cell Signal Amplified

Question 445

What is Receptor Tyrosine Kinase (RTK) and its path?

Answer 445

Peptide Hormone RTK Auto Phosphorylate to activate dimer Phosphorylated target Result is increased growth/division

Question 446

Are Steriod Hormones polar or non-polar

Answer 446

Non-Polar

Question 447

Where are steroid hormones made?

Answer 447

SER or Mitochondira

Question 448

Because sterioid cells are nonpolar how does it effect their transport?

Answer 448

Need carrier protiens to travel through blood At cell can diffuse thru membrane to bind INTERNAL Receptor

Question 449

Where do peptides bind the cell?

Answer 449

Membrane

Question 450

Where do sterioids bind the cell?

Answer 450

cytosol or nucleus

Question 451

What do sterioid hormones do/bind to?

Answer 451

Bind to the transcription factor. Protein binds DNA and changes gene expression

Question 452

What are Tyrosine derived Hormones made of?

Answer 452

AA

Question 453

Where are Tyrosine derived hormones made?

Answer 453

Made in cytosol/RER

Question 454

What type of hormones are: Catecholamines (Dopamine Epinephrine/Adrenaline Noepi/Nor Adrelinaline)

Answer 454

Polar Tyrosine Hormones

Question 455

Where are epi/norepi made?

Answer 455

Adrenal Medulla

Question 456

What type of hormone are thyroid hormones (T3/T4)

Answer 456

Nonpolar Tyrosine Derived Hormones

Question 457

What do T3 and T4 do?

Answer 457

CTRL basal metabolic rate

Question 458

Symptoms of Hypothyroid

Answer 458

To little T3/T4 Slow Metabolism Weak Cold Loosing Hair

Question 459

Symptoms of Hyperthyroid

Answer 459

Too Much T3/T4 Fast Metabolism (underweight) Hot Anxious/Irritable

Question 460

What are tropic hormones?

Answer 460

Target another endocrine gland

Question 461

What are Direct Hormones?

Answer 461

Work on that tissue/gland

Question 462

T or F all hormones need receptors?

Answer 462

True Polar; Outside Non-polar= Inside

Question 463

Polar Hormones bind to what type of receptor

Answer 463

Membrane Receptors Which then activate a secondary messenger

Question 464

What are the 3 types of hormone membrane receptors

Answer 464

1)Enzyme Linked Receptors 2)Ion channel linked receptors (ligand gate channel) 3)G-Protien Coupled Receptors

Question 465

How do G-Protien coupled receptors work?

Answer 465

These proteins have 7 Transmembrane Domains and are coupled with a trimeric G protien. The G protiens have 3 subunits The alpha subunits binds to GDP in the cell and acts to phosphorylate it into GTPm which allows it to disassociate from rest of G protien Once activated G proteins are either exciatory of inhibitory depending on their effects in the cell

Question 466

GDP is the active or inactive form

Answer 466

Inactive

Question 467

GTP is the active or inactive form

Answer 467

Active

Question 468

What are the 3 domains of a G protien

Answer 468

Alpha Beta Gamma

Question 469

When activated what G protien domain leaves and which stay?

Answer 469

Beta and Gamma Stay Alpha Leaves after binding to GDP phosphorylating to GTP (transition is what allows it to leave)

Question 470

What is the G protein activator

Answer 470

G alpha S Effector (activates next protien)

Question 471

What is the G Protien Inhibitor

Answer 471

G alpha I Inhiboys next protien

Question 472

Enzyme linked receptor is a what

Answer 472

KinaseRTK

Question 473

Ligand Gated Ion channel has what receptor

Answer 473

ACH receptor on muscle Neuromusclar jxn Na+ Channel

Question 474

What is a portal system

Answer 474

A capillary bed that drains into another capillary bed through a vein, without first goingt through heart

Question 475

What are the 3 portal systems in humans

Answer 475

1)Hypothaamic-Hypophyseal portal system (hypothalamus to pitutary land) 2)Hepatic Portal (digestive to liver) 3)Renal Portal (kidneys)

Question 476

How do hormones travel from hypothalamus to ant. pituitary?

Answer 476

Bloodstream -Hypothalamic-Hypophyseal Portal System

Question 477

How do hormones travel from hypothalmus to post. pitutary?

Answer 477

Nerve Axons via Neurosecratory Cells LONG AXONS

Question 478

What two hormones are associated with post. pitutary? Direct Hormones of Hypothalamus

Answer 478

1) ADH/VASOPRESSIN -Increases H2O absorbtion on collecting ducts 2)Oxytocin -Releaseed to increase uterine contraction

Question 479

ADH/Vassopressin is Inhibitred by what?

Answer 479

Caffine and Alc

Question 480

What are the 7 Hormones of the Ant. Pitutary

Answer 480

FLAT PEG FSH LH ACTH TSH PRL Endorphins GH

Question 481

What is needed for T3 and T4

Answer 481

Iodine and TRH stimulaing TSH

Question 482

Every Gland in the body is innevated by the parasympathetic nervous system PNS expect what?

Answer 482

Sweat Glands CNS

Question 482

What are the 2 patrs of the adrenal glands

Answer 482

Adrenal Cortex Adrenal Medulla

Question 483

The adrenal cortex responds to ATCH and secretes what?

Answer 483

Corticorosteriods Sugar: Glucorticoids Salts: Mineralocotricoids Sex: Corticol Sex hormones

Question 484

What does the adrenal gland secrete?

Answer 484

Cateocholamines Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

Question 485

Glucocorticoids are released where and are associated with what?

Answer 485

Released in adrenal cortex Associated with stress

Question 486

What is the key mineralocoticoid in teh RAAS system?

Answer 486

Aldosterone

Question 487

What does aldosterone do?

Answer 487

Acts on kidney Increases Na and Cl retention Increases K and H secretion (increases H2O absorption in collecting ducts)

Question 488

How does the RAAS System Work

Answer 488

1)When blood volume/pressure decrease JGA cells produce renin 2)Renin converts the plasma protein angiotensinogen (produced in the liver) to angiotensin 1 3)Angiotensin 1 is converted into angiotensin 2 4)Angiotensin 2 stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone 5)Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to an increase in blood volume and pressure.

Question 489

What are the chateocholamines

Answer 489

Tyrosine Derivative Hormones Epinephrine/Adrenaline Norepinephrine/Noradrenaline

Question 490

The secretory cells of the adrenal medulla are part of what system?

Answer 490

Sympathetic Nervous System

Question 491

What are the functions of catecholamines?

Answer 491

Sympathetic Nervous System (fight or flight) -Increase HR, Increase Blood Movement -Decrease Gut, Decrease Excretion -Increase conversion from glycogen to glucose

Question 492

What Calcitonin?

Answer 492

Calictonin is large hormone released by the Thyroid Decrease Ca2+ levels by inhibiting the release of Ca2+ from bone osteoclasts

Question 493

T3 and T4 increase what?

Answer 493

Basal Metabolic Rate

Question 494

Increase blood Ca2+ results in what?

Answer 494

Make Calcitonin Results with increase bone deposition

Question 495

Decrease Blood Ca2+ results in what

Answer 495

Make PTH Results in decreased bone because of reabsorption

Question 496

What does PTH do?

Answer 496

Increases blood Ca by stimulating Ca release from bone by osteoclasts

Question 497

Endocrine Glands vs Exocrine Glands

Answer 497

Endocrine: secrete their hormone products directly in the blood Exocrine: Secrete products into ducts that lead directly into the external environment.

Question 498

True or False Somatostatin always inhbits insulin and glucagon

Answer 498

True

Question 499

Pancreatic Somatostatin is produced by what?

Answer 499

Delta Cells

Question 500

Where are Islet of Langerhands?

Answer 500

Pancreas Alpha: Glucagon Beta: Insulin Delta: Somatostatin

Question 501

What are the 2 parts of the testes

Answer 501

Seminiferous Tubules: Sertoli Cells Interstitial Cells: Leydig Cells

Question 502

What do Lydig Cells makes?

Answer 502

Testosterone

Question 503

What do sertoli cells make?

Answer 503

Sperm

Question 504

Pathway of Sperm

Answer 504

Seven Up Seminiferous Tubules Epididymis Vas Deferens Ejaculatory Nothing Urethra Penis

Question 505

What happens in the epididymis

Answer 505

Spemiogensis (mature sperm) (gain flagella, in spermatogensis just round cells)

Question 506

Vasectomy

Answer 506

Cut Vas Degerens No Sperm in Cells

Question 507

What creates the fluid in sperm?

Answer 507

Postate Seminal Vesicle

Question 508

Process of Spermatogenesis x4

Answer 508

1) Spermatogenum (stem cells), 2N-->(Mitosis) --> Primary Spermatocytes (2N) 2)Primary Spermatocytes, 2N --> (Meisosis 1) --> Secondary Spermatocyte N Haploid 3)Seondary Spermatocytes N --> (Meiosis 2 )--> Spermatid N 4)Spermatid N --> (Spemogensis/differentiation and maturation) --> Spermatozoa, Sperm, N

Question 509

Acrosome

Answer 509

part of sperm; Digest into female cell by enzyme

Question 509

What are primary oocytes (2n) stopped in during meiosis?

Answer 509

Prophase 1

Question 509

When does the secondary oocytes (n) stop?

Answer 509

Metaphase 2 (meiosis 2)

Question 509

How long does spermatogenesis take?

Answer 509

90 days

Question 510

What is expelled during ovulation x2?

Answer 510

two daughter cells of equal size -Secondary Oocyte (n) -Small Polar Body

Question 511

How many eggs in newborn females

Answer 511

2 million primary oocytes (80%die)

Question 512

How many eggs after puberty?

Answer 512

400,000 primary oocytes

Question 513

How many secondary oocytes will be expelled via ovulations

Answer 513

400

Question 514

When the oocyte is expelled from the follicle what does it become

Answer 514

Corpus Luteum Caused by LH

Question 515

What is a zygote

Answer 515

Ovum and Spermatozoa

Question 516

Mensturation and Proliferation occur during what phase of ovarian cycle?

Answer 516

Proliferatin (develops and shed)

Question 517

What hormones promote the development of overian follicles?

Answer 517

FSH and LH

Question 518

What causes LH surge

Answer 518

Follicles secrete estrogen as they grow Estrogen increases GnRH production GnRH causes LH and DSH Surge

Question 519

What does the corpus luteum secrete?

Answer 519

Estrogen and Progesterone

Question 520

What causes the endometrium to mature in leutal phase

Answer 520

Progesterone

Question 521

In the leutal phase what are the inhibitory effects of progesterone and estrogen?

Answer 521

Inhibit GnRH, LH, and FH prevent maturation of additional follicles

Question 522

What causes the menses to occur?

Answer 522

Drop in progesterone due to atrophy of corpus leuteum

Question 523

What are the 2 layers of cells surrounding the secondary oocyte?

Answer 523

Inner: ZonaPellucida Outer: Corona Radiata

Question 524

What reaction prevents the fusion of other sperm to egg?

Answer 524

Cortical Rxn

Question 525

What does pluripotent mean?

Answer 525

Ability to develop into any cell type

Question 526

Trophoblast cells become what?

Answer 526

Placenta

Question 527

Order of zygote to embryo

Answer 527

Zygote, Morula, Blastocyst (fluid ball) contain ICM (embryo stem cells) and Trophoblasts Gastrula Neurula

Question 528

What is the difference between indeterminant cleavage ersus determinant clevagev

Answer 528

Indeterminant: Mitotic Division without differentiation Determinant Cleavage: Mitotic Division with differentiatiom

Question 529

Totipolent?

Answer 529

Stem cells become any cell, placenta or embryo Zygote and Morula

Question 530

Pluripotent

Answer 530

Stem cells can become any one of the 3 germ layers (in embryo)

Question 531

Multipotent

Answer 531

Stem cells replace cells of a particular lineage, skin, blood, liver

Question 532

What protects the endrometrium

Answer 532

Estrogen establishes and Progesteron Protects

Question 533

True of False during the 1st trimester the corpus leutum degrades

Answer 533

False preserved by HCG Keeps progesterone and estrogen levels high preventing new menstrual cycle from occurring

Question 534

When does the corpus leutum degenerate during pregnancy?

Answer 534

Second trimester when placenta is fully developed and can produce and secrete estrogen and progesterone on own.

Question 535

What stage does the embryo different into 3 layers

Answer 535

Gastrula

Question 536

What are the 3 layers of the gastrula?

Answer 536

Ectoderm Endoderm Mesoderm

Question 537

Ectoderm

Answer 537

Outer Integument Lens of Eyes Nervous System

Question 538

Endoderm

Answer 538

Inner Epithelial Linings of digestive and resp. tracts Parts of Liver, Pancreas, Thyroid, Bladder

Question 539

Mesoderm

Answer 539

Middle Musculoskeltelal Cirulatory Excretory Connective Digestive

Question 540

What layer of gastrula is adrenal cortex derivided

Answer 540

Mesoderm

Question 541

What layer of the adrenal medulla derivied?

Answer 541

Ectoderm (contains nervous tissue)

Question 542

What is neurulation

Answer 542

Notochord in mesoderm induces the ectoderm to thicken and form neural plate Neural --> Neural Folds --> Neural Tube

Question 543

What does the neural tube become?

Answer 543

Spinal Cord, and most of nervous system

Question 544

What does the neural crest become

Answer 544

PNS

Question 545

When does embryo become fetus?

Answer 545

8 Weeks is on own with placentaand umbiical all stuff o2 and nutrients from mum

Question 546

True or False Mom and Fetus mix blood

Answer 546

False no blood mixing Placenta allows for diffusion between them, gas exchange occurs in placenta, fetus lungs do not work until after birth

Question 547

When is the fetus most suscpetible to factors intefeerrin with development?

Answer 547

Organogensis Week 4 to 8

Question 548

1st trimester is classified by

Answer 548

Development

Question 549

2nd trimester is classified by

Answer 549

Development/Growth

Question 550

3rd trimester is classified by

Answer 550

Growth

Question 551

What is blood connective?

Answer 551

Connective tissue containing cells and matrix

Question 552

What is blood responsible for? x6

Answer 552

Transport of: 1)Nutrients 2)Gases 3)Wastes 4)Hormones 5)Heat 6)Immune Cells

Question 553

3 Components of Blood

Answer 553

1)Plasma 2)Buffy Coat (White Blood Cells/Leukocytes and Platelets) 3)Erythocytes

Question 554

What is in Blood Plasma

Answer 554

Irons Urea Water Proteins Organic and Inorganic Compounds

Question 555

3 Common proteins in blood

Answer 555

1)Albumin (fatty acid transport) 2)Immunoglobulins (antibodies) 3)Clotting Factors

Question 556

What are Erythrocytes

Answer 556

Red Blood Cells, Bag of Hb No Organelles, No Nucleus, Function in O2 and Co2 transport

Question 557

T or F Erthrocytes have DNA maturity

Answer 557

False No Nucelus or Organelles, not capable of mitosis or reproduction

Question 558

Where are Erythrocytes formed?

Answer 558

Formed by bone marrow stem cells Themopoetic Stem Cells in long bones

Question 559

Leukocytes versus Red Blood Cells

Answer 559

W:Organelles but no Hb R: Hb but no Organelles

Question 560

What is the role of leukocytes?

Answer 560

Immune Response

Question 561

What are Platelets

Answer 561

Involved in injury repair and derived from small portions of membrane bound cytoplasm

Question 562

The A and B adds what to red blood cell

Answer 562

Sugar

Question 563

IA and IB are what to i

Answer 563

Dominant/Co-Dominant i is Recessive

Question 564

What is the Rh Factor?

Answer 564

Specific antigen present on the surface of the red blood cell

Question 565

Somebody with Rh- blood can receieve blood from who?

Answer 565

Only rH- people

Question 566

Can somebody with Rh+ blood receive blood from whom?

Answer 566

Anyone

Question 567

What are the 2 roles of the Lymphatic system?

Answer 567

1)Immune System 2)Secondary Fluid Circulation System

Question 568

The lymph system travels how?

Answer 568

One way towards heart

Question 569

4 Functions of Lymph System

Answer 569

1)Remove interstitial fluid (return to blood via thoracic duct) 2)Transport Proteins, Large Glycerides, Fatty Acids (chylomicrons) 3)Transport Immune Cells 4)Fluid Balance throughout body (prevent edema)

Question 570

How does the lymph system connect to the circulatory system

Answer 570

Lymphatic and Thoracic Ducts

Question 571

What are the 2 components of the immune system?

Answer 571

1)Innate Immunity: Non-Specific -Generalized protection from most invading organsims and toxins 2)Acquired Immunity: Specific -Protection against specific organisms and toxins

Question 572

3 Forms of Innate Immunity

Answer 572

1)Physical Barriers -Skin, Mucous Membrane 2)Cellular -PMNs, Monocytes, Macrophages, Esinophiles 3)Chemical Barriers -pH, Lipids, Enzynes

Question 573

Inflammation is what type of immunity?

Answer 573

Innate

Question 574

4 Aspects of inflammation

Answer 574

1)Dialation of Blood Vessels 2) Increase permibilty of capillaries 3)Swelling of Tissue 4)Migration of Macrophage/Granuloytes

Question 575

Why does inflammation occur?

Answer 575

Response is a protective attempt to stop the stimulus from spreading to other tissues and to initate the healing process (blood Clotting)

Question 576

4 Steps of Blood Response

Answer 576

1)At site of damage, platelets adhere to collagen fibers in connective tissue and release a substance that makes nearby platelets sticky 2)Platelets form a plug that provides emergency protecton against blood loss. 3)Plug is reinforced by a clot of cross-linked fibrin formed through a multistep process 4)Fibrin is eventually degraded by plasmin to conclude the healing process

Question 577

3 Types of White Blood Cells

Answer 577

1)Agranuclear Monocytes (myeloud stem cells) 2)Granulocytes (Lymphoid Stem Cells) 3)Agrandular Lymphocytes (myeloud stem cells)

Question 578

Cells involved in innate immunity are denoted by what?

Answer 578

*

Question 579

Where to leukocytes derivived from?

Answer 579

Pluripotent stem cells in bone marrow -Myeloid Stem Cells (agran monocytes, Granulocytes) -Lymphoid Stem Cells (agran lympocytes) Divided into granular and agranular forms

Question 580

Granulocytes live for a long or short time?

Answer 580

Short Function nonspecifically against infective agents

Question 581

Agranulocytes live for a long or short time?

Answer 581

Long Work against specific agents of infection so they need to hang around in case the same infective agent returns

Question 582

Process of innate immunity?

Answer 582

1. Agranuclear Monocytes Enter body and are attacked by local macrophages (phagocytes) -Stimulus activation of acquired immunity 2. Granulocytes Neutrophils move toward the infected or injured areas and phagocytize more bacteria

Question 583

What happens when neutrophils and macrophages engulf necrotic tissue and bacetria?

Answer 583

Die and form Pus

Question 584

Eosinophils (Myeloid stem cells)

Answer 584

Work against parasitic fxn

Question 585

Basophiles (myeloid stem cells)i

Answer 585

Relese histamine for the inflammatory responsea

Question 586

Natural Killer Cells (Lymphoid stem cells)

Answer 586

Play a major role in the rejection of tumors and cells infected by viruses -Even if not marked they destory

Question 587

Mast Cells

Answer 587

-Wound healing, -Defense against pathogens -Allergenic response

Question 588

What are the 2 types of acquired immunity?

Answer 588

1)BCells = Humoral 2)TCells =Cell Mediated

Question 589

What do B Cells do?

Answer 589

B-Cells produce a singe type of antibody (immunoglobin) which is displayed on the surface of plasma membrane)

Question 590

How are B-Cells activated x2?

Answer 590

Free Antigens Helper T-Cells

Question 591

How does a helper T-Cell activate B cells?

Answer 591

1)APC macrophage engulfs bacteria and transports to cell surface 2)Helper T-Cells Reconzes and is activated 3)T-Cell activates B-Cells the produe antibody needed to target that antigen 4)Bcell differeniates into Plasma Cells and Memory B Cells

Question 592

Plasma cells (B cells)

Answer 592

Plasma cells synthesis free antibodies and releasing them into the blood

Question 593

Positive Colonal Selection

Answer 593

Choose B Cells with antibody to increase relpication of that B cell

Question 594

Negative Colonal Selection

Answer 594

Antibody bound to self Rxn against its own body, auto immune

Question 595

Memory B-Cells

Answer 595

Remain in bloodstream to elicit a more immediate response to the antigen upon a secondary exposure

Question 596

What is active immunity

Answer 596

Production of memory B cells against a particular antigen is conferred by Vaccination

Question 597

Why do we have booster shots?

Answer 597

To induce a secondary response by memory B Cells, increase longeity of the immunity

Question 598

Memory B Cells allow for what response? x2

Answer 598

Faster response Increased concentration

Question 599

Where does the T-Lymphocyte mature

Answer 599

Thymus

Question 600

How do T-Lymphocytes work?

Answer 600

Antibody-like protein receptor that recognizes antigens

Question 601

What happens to T-lymphocytes that reacts to self-antigens?

Answer 601

Destroyed in the thalmus

Question 602

Helper T-Cells

Answer 602

Recognize APC Macrophage that activates B Cells

Question 603

Memory T-Cells

Answer 603

Keep antigen Memory

Question 604

Regulatory T-Cells

Answer 604

Suppressors Negative Feedback for Immune System

Question 605

Cytotoxic T-Cells

Answer 605

Bind antigen carrying cell (infected ) Antigen is perforin --> Fills with ions and water --> cell lyselide(bursts)

Question 606

What are Lymph Nodes

Answer 606

Filter Lymphs and site of most immune responses

Question 607

What occurs in spleen

Answer 607

Filters blood and lymph, stores blood and is a secondary site for immune responses

Question 608

What is the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

Answer 608

Nucleated cells in the human body express MHC. Membrane-bound proteins that display antigens for recognition by the immune system -

Question 609

MHC class 1 molecules

Answer 609

ENDROGENOUS PATHWAY All Nucleated cells display own metabolism -Protiens display based on internal workings of cell -Show weird (infection, cancer, foreign tissues)

Question 610

CD x MHC =

Answer 610

8 CD4+ responds to MHC-2 (4x2=8) CD8+ responds to MHC-1 (8x1=8)

Question 611

MHC Class 2 Molecules

Answer 611

EXOGENOUS PATHWAY -Display extracellular pathogens antigens -Been phagocytes, been broken down, Displayed

Question 612

4 Steps of endogenous and exogenous pathway?

Answer 612

1. Antigen Uptake (ENDO= IN, EXO=OUT) 2. Antigen Process 3.MGC Peptide Association 4.Cell Surface Expression

Question 613

Path of air in? x12

Answer 613

1.External Nares 2.Nasal Passage (Filtered by Nasal hair and Mucous) 3. Pharynx 4.Larynx 5.Epiglottis 6.Glottis 7.Trachea 8.Bronchi 9.Lungs 10.Bronchioles 11.Alveoli 12.Capillaries

Question 614

What is surfactant

Answer 614

Covers the alveolus lowering the surface tension of the aveoli and facilitates gas exchange across membrane

Question 615

T or F control the diaphram is soley unconsious

Answer 615

False it is concious

Question 616

What presents the lungs from collapsing

Answer 616

Pressure differential between intrapleural space and the lungs

Question 617

Ventilation is dependant on pressure changes in what?

Answer 617

Thoracic Cavity

Question 618

What seperates the thoracic cavity

Answer 618

Diaphragm

Question 619

What is a pneumothrax

Answer 619

Pressure inside the intrapleural space increases

Question 620

Increased diffusion in lungs occurs due to what x3

Answer 620

Increasing SA Increasing Pressure Gradient Decreasing Membrane Thickness

Question 621

When diaphragm contracts what occurs to pressure and volume?

Answer 621

Volume increases Pressure Decreases

Question 622

When does diaphragm contract, inhilation or exhaluation

Answer 622

Inhalation Diaphragm contracts and flattens External intercostal muscles contract

Question 623

Exhalation is passive or active

Answer 623

Passive Highly elastic/resilient and tend to recoil to their og position

Question 624

Ventilation is regulate by what?

Answer 624

Central Chemoreceptors (medulla)e Peripheral Chemorecptors (carotod artieries and aorta) Monitor CO2 in blood

Question 625

During inhalation external intercostals go which direction?

Answer 625

Up and Out\ Contract

Question 626

During exhalaiom external intercostals go which direction?

Answer 626

Relax Down and In

Question 627

What happens to internal intercostals during forced exhalation?

Answer 627

Contracted pull ribcage down

Question 628

What causes the diffusion of O2 into the capillaries and CO2 into the aveoli?

Answer 628

Differential partial pressure of O2 and CO2

Question 629

PO2 Lungs

Answer 629

110mmHG

Question 630

PCO2 Lungs

Answer 630

40mmHG

Question 631

Po2 pulmonary cap

Answer 631

40mmHG

Question 632

PCO2 Pulm Cap

Answer 632

46mmHG (glucose breakdown increases)

Question 633

Other than gas exchange what are the 4 other functions of the respiratory system?

Answer 633

1.Preparation of Inhaled Air 2.Thermoregulation 3.Protection against disease and particulate matter 4.Acid-Base Reg/

Question 634

Right Side of heart delivers blood to what?

Answer 634

Lungs

Question 635

Left Side of heart delivers blood to what?

Answer 635

Body

Question 636

When atria fill what occurs in terms of pressure and volume

Answer 636

RELAX -Ventrical Relax (distole) Decreased Pressure, Increased Volume

Question 637

When ventrical contract what occurs in terms of pressure and volume

Answer 637

Ventricle Contraction (Systole) Increased Pressure, Decreased Volume

Question 638

Right Side Heart Path

Answer 638

BODY TO LUNGS 1)Superior and Inferior Vena Cava 2)RA 3.Tricuspid Valve (AV) 4.RV 5.Pulmonary (lunar) valve 6. Pulmonary Artery to Lungs

Question 639

Left Side of Heart Path

Answer 639

Lungs to Body 1)Pulmonary Vein 2)LA 3)Mitral/Bicuspid Valve *AV 4)LV 5)Aortic Valve (Lunar) 6)Aorta

Question 640

3 branches of aorta?

Answer 640

1. Mesenteric Arteries(Digestive and Liver) 2. Renal Arteries 3.Iliac Arteries Bottom Carotid Artery TOP

Question 641

What causes blood to be proplled through cardio system

Answer 641

Hydrostatic Pressure

Question 642

Where and what is the role of the pacemaker/SA node?

Answer 642

Right Atrium Responsible for initating and spread AP for heart contraction

Question 643

What is the electrical flow of the heart?

Answer 643

SA Node generate AP (RA) AP to AV node (Above RV) Bundle of HIs Purkinje Fibres

Question 644

True or False the activation of AV node is slow?

Answer 644

True allows for the atrium and ventricles to fill

Question 645

Rate of contraction of heart is regulated by what?

Answer 645

ANS

Question 646

What is the relationship btwn hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure when blood flows into capillary bed (aveolar end)

Answer 646

Hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic Net low of fluid occurs out of capillary into intersitution

Question 647

What is the relationship btwn hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure when blood flows out of capillary bed (venule end)

Answer 647

Hydrostaic pressure decrease (less than osmotic) net fluid flows back into capillary from intersitium

Question 648

What % of fluid is lost in capilary exchange and where does it go

Answer 648

10% Lymphatic System 10 (arterial) - 7 (Venule) = 3 mmHG

Question 649

What is the intersitiium/intersituial fluid

Answer 649

Between Tissue Cells

Question 650

Net pressure of blood in arterial end of capillary

Answer 650

Blood Pressure (32mmHG) - Osomtic pressure (22mgHG) =10mmHG into fluid

Question 651

Net pressure of blood in venule end of capillary?

Answer 651

Blood Pressure (15mmHG) - Osomtic pressure (22mgHG) =-7mmHG into fluid

Question 652

Osmotic Pressure in capilaries is

Answer 652

Constant

Question 653

Why do valves exist in veins

Answer 653

Prevent backflow because lower hyrdostatic pressure eists in veins (less smooth muscle that arteries)

Question 654

How much blood is stored in veins and venules

Answer 654

60%

Question 655

Blood Pressure throughout Circulatory System

Answer 655

Decreases from Arterials to capillaries Stays constant in veins

Question 656

Blood velocity throughout circulatory system

Answer 656

Decreases from artieries to capilarries and then increases going to veins *but highest in artieries Velocity decrease with SA

Question 657

How many O2 does one Hb carry

Answer 657

4

Question 658

T state Hb versus R state Hb

Answer 658

Tstate is low bidning affinity Rstate is high binding affinity (occurs after 1 O2 has bound) SHAPE CHANGE

Question 659

Hb binding to Oxygen is what type of curve

Answer 659

S (sigmodial curve)

Question 660

What causes a right shifted Hb curve?

Answer 660

Increase pCO2, decreasing pH (more H+) and increase in temo Less bound oxygen at a certain pressure, decreased binding addinity

Question 661

Right shifted Hb curves occur when?

Answer 661

Exercising High Altitude (less O2)

Question 662

Peripheral tissues is right shifted Hb or Left shifted Hb?

Answer 662

Right Decreased Bidning Affinity

Question 663

Lungs is right shifted Hb or Left shifted Hb?

Answer 663

Left Increased Binding affinity

Question 664

What occurs in a left shifted Hb curve?

Answer 664

Decrease CO2 Decreased Temp Increased pH (less H+)

Question 665

What situation does a left shift Hb occur?

Answer 665

Fetal Hb (take O2 from Mom) CO Poisioning

Question 666

What does 2,3 BPG. 2,3 DPG do?

Answer 666

Shift Hb Curve right by binding ti partially deoxygenated Hb to facilitate complete unloading

Question 667

Myoglobin versus Hb

Answer 667

Myoglobin has unstant binding affinity but only has one space to hold 1 O2 Single Peptide Chain, 1 Heme Group, Non-cooperative

Question 668

Where does the start digestion of carbs/sugars occur?

Answer 668

Mouth via Salivary Amylase

Question 669

What is Bolus

Answer 669

Chewing + Salvia (carbs) Digested by salivary amylase

Question 670

What continues movement down out digestive tract?

Answer 670

Peristalis (alt. waves of smooth muscle contraction)

Question 671

Bolus (carbs) combine with stomach juices to form what?

Answer 671

Chyme

Question 672

How does bolus enter stomach

Answer 672

Cardiac Orfice

Question 673

How does chyme leave the stomach and enter duodenum

Answer 673

Pylonic Sphincter

Question 674

The duodenun is part of the?

Answer 674

Small Intestine

Question 675

What occurs in the small intestine to carbs?

Answer 675

Add pancreatic enymes and brush boarder enzymes

Question 676

What happens once carbs are monomers?

Answer 676

Absobed into blood stream through enterocytes (intestinal epithelial cell)

Question 677

Where does protein digestion begin

Answer 677

Stomach

Question 678

4 Cells of the stomach?

Answer 678

1.Mucous Cells 2. G Cells 3. Parietal Cells 4. Chief Cells

Question 679

What do mucous cells do?

Answer 679

Make mucus to protect stomach cells

Question 680

What do G Cells do?

Answer 680

Make Gastrin (peptide hormone)

Question 681

What do Parietal Cells do?

Answer 681

Make HCl (acid), lots of Mito

Question 682

Increased activity of parietal cell has what effect on stomach pH

Answer 682

Decreases stomach pH (approx.2)

Question 683

What do chief cells do?

Answer 683

Make Pepsinogen (zymogen)

Question 684

Pepsinogen (zymogen) combines with HCl to activate what?

Answer 684

Pepsin

Question 685

"Ogen" means what

Answer 685

Inactive form

Question 686

What enzyme begins digestion of protiens in stomach

Answer 686

Pepsin

Question 687

What are brush boarder enzymes

Answer 687

Amino Pepitdase

Question 688

What activates trypisogen?

Answer 688

Enterokinase which is made by brush boarder enzymes in duodenum

Question 689

What are the 5 uses of AA in blood?

Answer 689

1.Protein Anabolism (Protein Translation) Deamination (loss of NH2) 2.Acetyl CoA --> Krebs --> Ox Phos --. ATP synthase 3.Acetyl-Coa --> Fat Synthesis 4.Unfed ---> Gluceoneogensis 5.Unfed --> Ketogensis

Question 690

Why is emulsification of lipids required?

Answer 690

Because Hydrophobic

Question 691

How are lipids emulsified

Answer 691

Bile

Question 692

Where is Bile Made and Storeed

Answer 692

Made: Liver Stored: Gall Bladder

Question 693

What enzyme is produced in the mouth related to fat digestion

Answer 693

Lingual Lipase but inactive

Question 694

What activates lingual lipase

Answer 694

Low pH

Question 695

Where does fat digestion start

Answer 695

Can a bit in stomach but mostly in intestine Emsulifcation occurs there

Question 696

Digested fats and lipids are absorbed into what

Answer 696

Lymph not blood stream

Question 697

What are fats digested into x2?

Answer 697

1)Fatty Acids FA 2)Monglycerol MGL

Question 698

Where can lymph be reabsorbed into blood

Answer 698

Thoracic Duct

Question 699

What 3 enzymes are used for lipid/fat digestion

Answer 699

1. Lingual Lipase STOMACH 2. Bile (INTESTINES) 3. Pancreatic Lipase (Intestines)

Question 700

How do fats once digested into MGL and Fatty acids get into lymph?

Answer 700

1)Diffuse into enterocytes 2)Go to ER 3)Packaged into chylomicrons 4)Exocytosis released into lymph

Question 701

What are the uses of MGL

Answer 701

Glycerol --> Gluceoneogensis

Question 702

What are the uses of FA x5

Answer 702

1) Transport: Move to another cell (HDL/LDL) 2)Build Membranes (phospholipids and sphingolipids) 3)Storage: Lipogensis 4)Beta to acetyl coa OX (Krebs) 5)Beta to acetyl coa (Ketogensis)

Question 703

Order of digestive tract?

Answer 703

1) Mouth 2) Esphogus 3) Cardiac Sphincter 4)Stomach 5) Pyloric Sphincter 6)Small Intestine (D,I,J) 7)Large Intestine (A, T, D Colons) 8)Sigmoid Colon 9)Rectum 10) anus

Question 704

3 parts of small intestine

Answer 704

Duodenum Illeum Jejunum

Question 705

3 Parts of Large Intestine

Answer 705

Ascending Transcending Descedning Colons

Question 706

A-Amylase (salivary amylase) in the mouth breaks down what

Answer 706

Stratch to Polysaccarides

Question 707

Secretions of the stomach cells is stimulated by?

Answer 707

PSNS by acetylcholine Rest and Digest

Question 708

Parietal cells contain many what

Answer 708

Mitochondria because requires a lot of energy to produce HCL

Question 709

What does Gastrin Stimulate?

Answer 709

Stimulates periatel cells to release HCl

Question 710

What is HCl used for in stomach?

Answer 710

Acidic enviroment killing most bacteria

Question 711

What is HCl not effective at killing?

Answer 711

HPylori Bacteria -Gram Neg. -Causes chronic, gastritis ulcers, stomach cancer

Question 712

What does pepsin do

Answer 712

Cleaves peptide bonds of proteins in stomach

Question 713

Where are stomach cells located?

Answer 713

Gastric Glands Gastric Pit (Mucous Cells)

Question 714

What is the cecum?

Answer 714

Connects the ileum to ascending colon of large itestine

Question 715

What are the 3 cell types in small intestine?

Answer 715

1)Goblet Cells 2)Cyrpts of Leiberkuhn 3)Enterocytes/Epithelial Cells

Question 716

What do Goblet Cells do?

Answer 716

Secrete Mucous for Lubrication

Question 717

What do Cyrpts of Leiberkuhn do?

Answer 717

Secrete slightly basic pancreatic and intestinal juice

Question 718

What are Enterocytes/Epithelial Cells?

Answer 718

Absoprtion of all macromolecules

Question 719

What stimulates the secretion of bile?

Answer 719

CCK hormone is response to cyme Gallbladder releases bile into duodenum via common bile duct

Question 720

What is the role of pancreatic jucie

Answer 720

Contain basic bicarbonate which neutralizes acidic chyme in duodenum

Question 721

What is the role of secretin in the duodenum?

Answer 721

Release in the response to acidic chyme in duodenum, stimulates the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice

Question 722

When is secretin secretion stopped?

Answer 722

When duodenum pH increases (negative feedback)

Question 723

What are peptidases

Answer 723

Released in small intesteine to hydrolize protien

Question 724

What does enterokinase enzyme do and where is it secreted?

Answer 724

Secreted for intestinal glands in small intestine -Converts trypsinogen to trypsin

Question 725

3 Endocrine functions of pancreas?

Answer 725

Production of B=Insulin a=Glucagon delta=Somatostatin

Question 726

Pancrease exocrine hormones released into duodenum by pancreatic duct x6

Answer 726

1.Trypsin 2.Pancreatic Amylase (carb hydolysis) 3.Chymotrypsin (protein hydrolysis) 4. Lipase (lipid hydroylus) 5. Carboxypeptidase (protein hydrolysis) 6. Ribonuclease and Deorobonuclease (Nucleic Acid Hyrdolysis)

Question 727

What is the role of trypsin?

Answer 727

Protein Hydrolysis and activator of other zymogens

Question 728

What zymogens does trypsin activate? x4

Answer 728

1. Pancreatic Amylase 2.Chymotrypsinogen 3.Lipase 4.Carboxypepitdase

Question 729

What are the 2 major functions of the large intestine?

Answer 729

Water Reabsorbtion Electrolyte Absorption

Question 730

What is constipation

Answer 730

Excessive water re-absoption

Question 731

What is diarrehea

Answer 731

Failure of LI to reabsorb water

Question 732

Fibre (cellulose) is not digested by human but is digested by?

Answer 732

Our microbiome

Question 733

Where does absorption of nurtrients occur?

Answer 733

Small Intestine

Question 734

How does carbohydrate absorption work?

Answer 734

1.Travel from the intestinal lumen (pancreatic amylase (those not done by salivary amylase) and brush border to monomers) 2. Through the enterocyte 3. To the Basolateral Side (faciliated diffusiin) to portal vein and then the liver

Question 735

Fructose absoprtion into enterocyte is caused by what

Answer 735

GLUT 5 Transporter, faciltated diffusion

Question 736

Glucose and Galactose absorption into enterocyte is caused by what?

Answer 736

SGLT1 Also bring Na in

Question 737

How is a gradient created in the enterocyte?

Answer 737

Sodium K pump Decrease sodium concentration

Question 738

How are carb monomers released into portal vein (basolateral side)?

Answer 738

Facilitated diffusion (GLUT 2 Transporter)

Question 739

What is the by produce of deamination and what occurs to it?

Answer 739

Ammonia Converted by the liver to urea and excreted as urine in kidney

Question 740

How does protein absorption work?

Answer 740

1) Protiens hydrolyzed to polypeptides by pepsin in the stomach 2)Intestinal Lumen: Brush Boarder, Trypsin and Chymotrypsin hydrolyze polypeptides to aa, di peptides, tripeptides 3)Enter enterocyte via facilitated and active transport (all converted do AA) 4)Enter basolateral side (via facilitated diffusion) , Portal Vein and Liver

Question 741

How does Fat absorption work?

Answer 741

1)Intestinal Lumen -Bile Emuslifies into micelles -Lipase hydrolyze triglycerides into fatty acids -Monoglycecdise and FA to Brush Boarder 2)Enterocyte via diffusion -Converted back to tryglycerides and globules by SER -Globules go to Mito to become Chylomircors 3)Chylomorics move to Basolateral Side -Move into lymph -Lymph Ducts via cirulatory system -Liver or adipose tissue

Question 742

Fatty acids are combined with what for blood transport?

Answer 742

Albumin

Question 743

Triglycerides are transported as?

Answer 743

Lipoproteins

Question 744

Nutrients enters the liver through?

Answer 744

Hepatic Portal Vein

Question 745

Oxygenated blood enters the liver through?

Answer 745

Hepatic Arteries

Question 746

What are the 9 roles of the liver?

Answer 746

Blood: 1)Blood Storage 2)Blood Filtration 3)Erythrocyte Destruction Fed/Unfed State: 4)Carb Metabolism 5)Protein Metabolism 6)Fat Metabolism Storage 7)Vitamin Storage 8)Glycogen Storage 9)Detoxification of Chemicals

Question 747

What is the role of the kidney?x4

Answer 747

1)Regulates salt and water concentration in the blood through the formation of urine 2)Blood Pressure Regulation 3)Osmoregulation 4)Acid-Base Homeostasis

Question 748

What is a nephron

Answer 748

Filteration units of the kidneys

Question 749

What are the 3 regions of the kidney

Answer 749

1)Cortex (outer) 2)Medulla (middle) 3) Pelvis (Fluid ext. for urine)

Question 750

Where does blood first enter the kidney

Answer 750

Bowman's capsule, no selective only small particles through (NOT BLOOD)

Question 751

A single nephrons spans what parts of kidney?

Answer 751

Cortex and Medulla

Question 752

Path of flitration in nephron

Answer 752

1)Bowmans Capsule 2)Glomerulus 3)Proximal Convoluted Tubule 4)Descending Loop of Henle 5)Ascending Loop of Henle 6)Distal Confuloted Tubule 7)Collecting Duct

Question 753

Path of Filtration in Kidney

Answer 753

1)Blood Enters through renal artery which divides into afferent arterioles that branch into capillarilies called glomerulus 2)Efferent Arterioles which divides into Vasa Recta 3)Vasa Recta surrounds nephron 4) -Converge into renal vein which heads back into ciruclation -Urine collects from collecting ducts and exits kidney through urter

Question 754

Increasing blood into the afferent arteriole (kidney) does what to BP

Answer 754

Increase BP

Question 755

What is the role of angiotension 2

Answer 755

Vasconsticts the efferent arteriole Increase Gobular Filtrartion Rate

Question 756

Angiotension 2 effect on BP

Answer 756

Increase BP

Question 757

What are the names of the two types of nephrons

Answer 757

Cortical Nephron (small) Justamedullary Nephrone (Longer)

Question 758

What neurons is associated with urine concentratrion

Answer 758

ustamedullary Nephrone (Longer)

Question 759

What are the 3 processes of kidney

Answer 759

1)Filtration : No selective 2)Secretion: Selective 3)Reabsorption: Selective -essential substances are reabsoptied from filtrate rb

Question 760

Compare the sizes of the afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole

Answer 760

Afferent is large the efferent creating a hydrostatic pressure

Question 761

True or False Osmolarity stays the same from the start filtrate to end filtrate

Answer 761

True only a decrease in volume of filtrate is obeserve

Question 762

What occurs in the proximal tubule

Answer 762

Secretion and Reabsorption

Question 763

What occurs in the decending loop

Answer 763

H2O Flows out (fluid is highly concentrated, so wants out)

Question 764

What occurs in the ascending loop

Answer 764

NaCl Flows Out

Question 765

What occurs in distal tubule

Answer 765

Further fine tuning of secretion and reabsoprtion

Question 766

Osmotic Concentration increases up or down loop

Answer 766

Down

Question 767

What is the function of the loop of henle

Answer 767

Increases the intersitial (medulla) salyt concentration (salt out of filtrate) w/out significant changing solute concentration of filtrate

Question 768

Distal Convulated tubule role in RAAS

Answer 768

JGA connects to arterioles of glomerus to distal convulted tubule -JGA sense changes in solute concentration in DCT and detects streching arteriole wall -If low Na+ GA cell srelease Renin, causing release of Aldosterome

Question 769

Aldosterone role in kidney

Answer 769

Increases Na+ Reabsorption in DCT and collecting duct Increases blood osmolarity, volume and pressure -Stiulates ADH release and thirst

Question 770

The collecting duct in impermeable to water expect when?

Answer 770

WHhen Ant-Diuertic Hormone is released, water passes out into medulla

Question 771

True or False water should be in urine

Answer 771

False, nutrient in ducts and descending

Question 772

What hold Ca in muscle cell

Answer 772

Sacoplasmic Ret. (SR)

Question 773

What are the 3 steps of AP

Answer 773

1)Na+ channels open (+ charge enters cell) -DEPOLARIZATION 2)K+ channel opens (+) charge exits cell to extracellular space -REPOLARIZATION 3)Re-Establish normal membrane potential (Na+/K+ ATPase)

Question 774

What is constantly working in a cell regardless of AP

Answer 774

Na+K+ ATPase Na in K out

Question 775

AP causes what to enter the cell

Answer 775

Ca+

Question 776

What does Ca+ in cell result in for ATP

Answer 776

Vesicles fill wit Ach -Ach released into synaptic cleft by exocytosis

Question 777

What are groves in plasma membrane of muscle cell called

Answer 777

T-Tubules

Question 778

What is the sacrolma

Answer 778

Muscle Membrane

Question 779

Ach receptors on muscle membrane are also receptors for what?

Answer 779

Na+ Therefore you can have AP in Sacrolma

Question 780

What causes the SR to release Ca to allow for muscle contraction?

Answer 780

AP travels down T-Tubules from pre-synaptic celll

Question 781

3 Types of Muscle

Answer 781

1)Cardiac 2)Smooth 3)Skeletal

Question 782

3 Functions of Muscles

Answer 782

1)Body Movement and Support 2)Movement of substances throughout body 3)Thermoregulation

Question 783

Tendons

Answer 783

Muscle to Bone

Question 784

Ligaments

Answer 784

Bone to Bone

Question 785

Skeletal Muscle is conscious or unconscious control?

Answer 785

Concious and Voluntary

Question 786

When a muscle contracts it moves towards what point

Answer 786

Insertion pt to Origin Point

Question 787

The antagonist muscle vs agonist muscle

Answer 787

Agonist is the one that contracts (flexors) Antagonist is the one that relaxes(extensors)

Question 788

What is a first class lever -Effort -Fulcrum -Resistance

Answer 788

Effort=one side down Fulcrum= Middle Resistance= opposite side of effort dip

Question 789

What is a second class lever -Effort -Fulcrum -Resistance

Answer 789

-Effort: Up on one side -Fulcrum =Oppposide side effort -Resistance= middle down

Question 790

What is a third class lever -Effort -Fulcrum -Resistance

Answer 790

-Effort: Middle Up -Fulcrum: One side -Resistance: Opposide to fulcrum down

Question 791

How can muscle contraction be unconsious (ans)

Answer 791

-Contraction can squeeze blood in ciruclatory system -Move metabolites away -Shivering to make warm

Question 792

What is the sacromere

Answer 792

Myosin (Thick Fil) Actin (Thin Fil)

Question 793

What does contraction look like in the sacromere

Answer 793

Myosin filaments force actin to move closer together pulling Z-Band closer together. (MORE OVERLAP CONTRACTING)

Question 794

A-Band

Answer 794

All Mysosin No change regardless of overlap

Question 795

I- Band

Answer 795

Actin Only Decreases with Contraction (more overlap) Increases with Relax (less overlap)

Question 796

H Zone

Answer 796

Myosin Only Decreases with Contraction (more overlap) Increases with Relax (less overlap)

Question 797

Z Band

Answer 797

Boarders of sacromere units

Question 798

M Line

Answer 798

In A-Line -Closest distance that two acton filaments can be realtive to one another la

Question 799

What part of the muscle has a straiated apperance

Answer 799

Sacromers -Sacromers positioned end to end form a myofibril (gives the apperance)

Question 800

True or False the Skelteal Muscle cells have lots of mitochrondiea

Answer 800

True lots of mito and nuclei

Question 801

What are myobrils?

Answer 801

Several Sacromeres attached together -Many myofribris in a muscle

Question 802

6 Steps of Muscle Contraction:

Answer 802

1)Motor neuron (somatic Nervous system) depolarizes, AP 2) At end of motor neuron Ca2+ channels open, ACH is released by excoytosis into synaptic cleft, binds muscle ACH receptors , Open Na+ channels in muscle (AP) 3)New AP travels along sacrolema, down T-Tbules and trigger Ca2+ relase from SR 3)Ca binds tropnin whic shoft tropomyosin 4)Mysosin binds ATP, release any previous actin bidning, hyrdolyzes ATP and extend out binds actin and pull actin back in for muscle contraction 5)Resets for next signal: gather Ca+ back into SR (Ca ATPASE) wait for next AP

Question 803

What is the role of troponin?

Answer 803

Shifts off tropomyosin

Question 804

What is the role of tropomysosin?

Answer 804

Blocks actin and myosin from binding -Covers active site on Actin

Question 805

Steps of Contraction in terms of myosin and actin?

Answer 805

1. Ca+ binds troponin 2. Tropnin moves tropomyosin off actin revealing active site 3. Mysosin binds ATP (releases actin) (low energy) 4. Mysosin Hydrolyzes ATP (ADP =Pi) (high energy) 5. Mysosin binds actin (froming cross bridges) 6) Releases PI + ADP for powers stroke -Mysosin back to low enegry -Actin pulls towards center 7) New ATP Added, releases Actin (start again)

Question 806

What happens if no new ATP is avaliable for myson to bind

Answer 806

Stuck contracted to suck to mysosin Rigormortis

Question 807

What are the 2 ways skeletal muscle becomes fatigued

Answer 807

1) Nervous (not enough ACH) 2)Metabolic (Not enough ATP)

Question 808

What is Oxygen Debt

Answer 808

The increased need for oxygen after exercise after exercise in order to metobilize the byproducts of anaerobic glycolysis (lactic acid()

Question 809

3 types of skeletal muscle fibres

Answer 809

1)Type 1: Slow Twich/Slow Oxidative 2)Type 2A: Fast Twitch/ Fast Oxidative 3)Type 2B: Slow Twitch/ Fast Glyolytic

Question 810

What skeletal muscle types are red

Answer 810

Type 1 Type 2 A High amounts of myoglobin

Question 811

Why are Type 2B muscles white

Answer 811

Low Myogolbin

Question 812

What muscle fibre type has the most amount of mitochondria

Answer 812

Type 1 (can be used for ling oeriods of time )

Question 813

Type 1 Muscle -Contraction Time -Force Production -Resistance to Fatigue -Activity

Answer 813

-Contraction Time : SLOW -Force Production: LOW -Resistance to Fatigue: HIGH -Activity: OXIDATIVE

Question 814

Type 2A Muscle -Contraction Time -Force Production -Resistance to Fatigue -Activity

Answer 814

-Contraction Time: FAST -Force Production: HIGH -Resistance to Fatigue: Intermediate -Activity: Longterm Anerobic

Question 815

Type 2B Muscle -Contraction Time -Force Production -Resistance to Fatigue -Activity

Answer 815

-Contraction Time : VERY FAST -Force Production: VERY HIGH -Resistance to Fatigue: VERY LOW -Activity: SHORT TERM ANAROBIC

Question 816

What is a Motor Unit

Answer 816

A group of muscle cells sharing one motor nerve

Question 817

How is AP different in Cardiac Muscle

Answer 817

PLATEAU Slow Repolarization Prevnts Teatanus

Question 818

SKELETAL MUSCLE CELL -Control -Striations -Nucleus -Shape

Answer 818

-Control: VOLUNTARY -Striations: YES -Nucleus: MULTI -Shape : NON-BRANCHED (MYOFRIBRILS)

Question 819

CARDIAC MUSCLE CELL -Control -Striations -Nucleus -Shape

Answer 819

-Control: INVOLUNTARY -Striations: YES -Nucleus: 1 -Shape : BRANCHED

Question 820

SMOOTH MUSCLE CELLS -Control -Striations -Nucleus -Shape

Answer 820

-Control: INVOLUNTARY -Striations: NO -Nucleus: 1 -Shape :TAPERED

Question 821

How many bones in human body

Answer 821

206

Question 822

4 fxns of bones

Answer 822

1)Structural Intergity and Support 2)Stores Ca 3)Protection for Ograns 4)Large bones shelter bone marrow, containes adipose tissue and stem cells

Question 823

Bone is important for regulating

Answer 823

Ca and Phosphate Site of blood cell formation

Question 824

Long bones house what 2 things

Answer 824

Yellow Marrow (fats) Red Marrow (site of RBC development)

Question 825

Flat bones house what

Answer 825

Red Bone Marrow (site of RBC developement)

Question 826

Osteoprogenitor Cells

Answer 826

Differentate into osteoblasts Osteoblats --> Osteocytes

Question 827

Osteoclasts

Answer 827

Derive from white blood cells -Hemopoetic Stem Cells -Release Ca+ into Blood (PTH)

Question 828

Osteoblasts

Answer 828

Form bone Calictonin

Question 829

What are osteocytes used for

Answer 829

Exchange wastes and nutrients with the blood

Question 830

Role of Calictonin

Answer 830

Decreases osteoclast

Question 831

True or False Bone Cells undergo mitosis

Answer 831

False

Question 832

Spongy bond has what type of none marrow

Answer 832

Red Bone Marrow

Question 833

Compact bone has what type of bone marrow

Answer 833

Yellow Bone Marrow

Question 834

At birth what type is all bone marrow

Answer 834

Red

Question 835

What 3 Cells arise in red blood marrow

Answer 835

1)Red Blood CElls 2)White Blood CElls 3)Platelets

Question 836

What is the periosteum of the bone responisble for?

Answer 836

Fibrous sheath that surrounds the long bone and is the site of attachement of muscle tissue

Question 837

What occurs at the epiphyseal plate?

Answer 837

Growth plate -Stopped growing = Epiphyseal line

Question 838

What is the Haversian Suystem

Answer 838

Structucted and Highly Vascularized organization of compact bone

Question 839

What makes Haversian Canals

Answer 839

Osteoclasts

Question 840

How are lamellae formed in bones

Answer 840

Osteoblasts following haversian canals and lay done new matrix on tunnel walls

Question 841

How do osteocytes exchange wastes in haversian system

Answer 841

Canaliculi

Question 842

What are Volkmnann's Canals

Answer 842

Cross links haversian canals

Question 843

What are the 2 things a osteon is made of?

Answer 843

1)Lamallae 2)Haversion Canal

Question 844

What do lacuna contain

Answer 844

Osteocytes

Question 845

What is cartilage

Answer 845

Flexiable tissue found in joints between bones, ribcage, ear and nose

Question 846

Why does cartilage heal slowly

Answer 846

No blood vessels

Question 847

What are the 3 types of cartilage and which is the most common?

Answer 847

1)Hyaline (most comon reduce friction and shock btwn joints) 2)Fibrocartilage 3)Elastic

Question 848

What are Fibrous Joints

Answer 848

Holds 2 bones tightly together , allowing for little movements

Question 849

What are cartilaginous joints

Answer 849

Allow little to no movement btwn 2 bones tightly connected by cartilage

Question 850

What are Synovial Joints

Answer 850

Do not connect bone by cartilae and are instead seperated by a capsule filled with synovial fluid -Wide range of motopm

Question 851

True or False women have less bone density

Answer 851

True Menopause

Question 852

3 General Functions of Skin

Answer 852

1. Heat Homeostasis 2. Water Homeostasis 3. Osmoregulation

Question 853

3 Layers of Skin

Answer 853

1)Epidermis 2)Dermis 3)Hypodermis

Question 854

What is the epidermis consist of

Answer 854

Stratified Squamous Epithelial Cells (Keratinocytes)

Question 855

3 Specialized Cells of Epidermis?

Answer 855

1. Ketinocytes (produce keratin, dominate) 2. MelanocytesL produce Melanin 3. Dendritic Cells: Pagocytes

Question 856

Layers of Epidermis (superficial to deep) Come, Lets Get Sun Burnt

Answer 856

Corneum Lucidum Granulosum Spinosum Basale

Question 857

What is the dermis

Answer 857

Connective Tissue and Procides blood, nutrients and neurons to the epidermis Fibroblasts Hair Follciles Blood Vessels and Nerves

Question 858

Hypodermis

Answer 858

Subcutaneous Tissue Adipose Absorbs shock and provides insuation

Question 859

At resting potential there is more Na+ inside or outside of cell

Answer 859

Oustide Resting mebrane potential is -70 mV

Question 860

Excitory do what?

Answer 860

Depolarize (making more positive)

Question 861

Inhibitory do what?

Answer 861

Polarize (making more negative)

Question 862

The CNS can be characterized as what?

Answer 862

Brain and Spinal Cord

Question 863

Dendrites

Answer 863

Receieve a signal to be transmitted -Where graded potentials start

Question 864

Cell Body (Soma)

Answer 864

Where graded potentials build to trigger ATP

Question 865

Axon Hillock

Answer 865

Generates a outgoing AP

Question 866

Axon

Answer 866

Transmits the outgoing AP

Question 867

AP jumps between what

Answer 867

Nodes of Ranvier Between Swann cells

Question 868

What is satatory conduction

Answer 868

AP jumping between nodes ranvier increasing transmission speed

Question 869

What do swann cells do

Answer 869

Make Mylein

Question 870

How does myelin afect AP

Answer 870

Increases the rate at which an acon can transmit AP by insulating it

Question 871

White Matter v Grey Matter in Axons

Answer 871

Myelinated Axons are WHite Dell Bodies are Grey

Question 872

What 2 things produce Myelin

Answer 872

Schwann Cells PNS Oligodendrocytes CNS

Question 873

Na+/K+ ATPase moves how many Na+ in and K+ out

Answer 873

3 Na+ IN 2 K+ OUT

Question 874

How do neurotransmitters diffuse across synaptic cleft (pre to post)

Answer 874

Brownian (random diffusion)

Question 874

Where do electrical synapses exist

Answer 874

Cardiac cells

Question 875

WHat happens if a neurone is fired to many times

Answer 875

Fatigue -Can also be degrated by enzymes

Question 876

True of False Neurotransmitters always excite post synaptic cell

Answer 876

False can also inhibit

Question 877

How do local anestethics work

Answer 877

Block voltage gated Na+ Channels on nerves to prevent pain transmission

Question 878

How many nodes of Ranvier need to be blocked to block a nevre

Answer 878

3 Consecutive

Question 879

What is threshold potential

Answer 879

-50mV

Question 880

Spatial Summation

Answer 880

Multiple dendrites recieve input at the SAME time and those inputs are summed up

Question 881

Temproal Summation

Answer 881

Single densrie reveives informaion in succesion and those inputs are summed up

Question 882

What are Glial Cells/Neurogila

Answer 882

Cells which support the nervous system

Question 883

6 Types of Glial Cells

Answer 883

CNS 1)Ependymal Cells: Conatin CSF epitheial cells 2)Oligodendrocytes: Myelin 3)Astrocytes: Shape and physical support 4)Microglia : Macrophage of CNS PNS 5)Satellite Cells: Support 6)Schwann: Mysosin

Question 884

Somatic versus Autonmic parts of PNS

Answer 884

SOmatic: Skeletal Voluntary Autonomic: Everuthing else Involuntary

Question 885

Sympatetic Neuron pathway

Answer 885

Pre-Synaptic Neuron Short-Axon (Ach Released) Post Synaptic Neuron Long Axon (Norepi released) Target

Question 886

Parasympatehtic Pathwayhe

Answer 886

Pre-Synaptic Neuron Long Axon (Ach) Post-Snaptci Neuron Short Axon (ach) Target

Question 887

What are the 3 types of neurons in the nervous system

Answer 887

1)Sensory (afferent) Neurons (Back- Dorsal) 2)Interneurons 3)Motor Neurons (Front -Ventral)

Question 888

What are 90% of neurons in the body

Answer 888

Interneurons

Question 889

3 Components of the Brainstem

Answer 889

1)Midbrain 2)Pons 3)Medulla

Question 890

Midbrain

Answer 890

Relay station for auditory/visual info

Question 891

Pons

Answer 891

Facilitate transfer of motor info from motor cortex --> cerebellum

Question 892

Medulla

Answer 892

Regulate cardiovasulcar and respiratory system (BP)

Question 893

Cerebellum has what role

Answer 893

Coordinates and Plans Movemnt Gyri and Sulci (folded neuronal tissue)

Question 894

4 Lobes of Cerebral Cortex

Answer 894

1)Frontal Lobe 2) Parietal Lobe 3)Temporal Lobe 4)Occipital Lobe

Question 895

Frontal Lobe

Answer 895

Higher Exec. Function Motor Cortex for Voluntary Fxn

Question 896

Parietal Lobe

Answer 896

Somatosensory Cortex -Detect touch, pain and temp

Question 897

Temporal Lobe

Answer 897

Integration of auditory and olfactory info BAR

Question 898

Occipital Lobe

Answer 898

Process visual inputs

Question 899

Reflex are apart of what nervous system

Answer 899

Somatic (voluntary) system of PNS SEEMS ODD JUST REMEBER

Question 900

ANS is antagonist or agonist

Answer 900

Antagonist

Question 901

The Vagus nerve is apart of what system

Answer 901

PNS

Question 902

Sympathetic Nervous system comes from what part of spinal cord

Answer 902

Middle Thoracic and Lumbar

Question 903

Parasynpathetic Nervous system comes from what part of spinal cord

Answer 903

Top/Bottom Cervical and Thoracic

Question 904

What is the post synaptic neurostransmitter for Sympathetic

Answer 904

Epinenephrine and NORephinrine (ADRENALINE from adrenal medulla)

Question 905

Pathway of somatic motor neuron

Answer 905

Somatic motor neuron: Voluntary of PNS ACH Effector MUSCLES

Question 906

What is the effect of vitamin D on ca

Answer 906

Increase Ca Reabsorbtion