Bio-biochem

Question 1

cell theory our basic tenets

Answer 1

all living things are composed of cells
the cell is the basic functional unit of life
cells arise only from preexisting cells
cells carry genetic information in the form of DNA and it is passed on from parent to daughter cell

Question 2

eukaryotic cells characteristics

Answer 2

nueclus enclosed inside a membrane and unicellular or multicellular

Question 3

prokaryotic cells char

Answer 3

do not contain a nucleus, always single cells

Question 4

importance of membrane bound organelles

Answer 4

compartmentalization of function

Question 5

membranes are made up of a

Answer 5

phospholipid bilayer. Inside is hydrophilic (likes water) and outside is hydrophobic (hates water– selective barrier)

Question 6

cytosol

Answer 6

allows for diffusion of molecules throughout the cell

Question 7

nucleus

Answer 7

genetic material is encoded in DNA which is organized into chromosonmes and kept in nuc
control center of the cell

Question 8

nucleus is surrounded by:

Answer 8

nuclear membrane or envelope, a double membrane that maintains a nuclear environment separate and distinct rom the cytoplasm

Question 9

nuclear pores

Answer 9

in the nuclear membrane which allows selective 2 way exchange of material between nucleus and cytoplasm

Question 10

linear DNA is wrapped around

Answer 10

histones

Question 11

histones are wrapped together to form

Answer 11

chromosomes

Question 12

nucelolus

Answer 12

subsection of the nucleus where rRNA is synthesized.

Question 13

mitochondria layers

Answer 13

outer and inner membrane

Question 14

outer memrbane

Answer 14

barrier between the cytosol and the inner environment of the mito `

Question 15

cristae

Answer 15

inner foldings of the inner membrane of the mito

increase surface area for electronic transport chain electrons

Question 16

space between inner and outer mito membranes

Answer 16

inter membrane space

Question 17

space aside the inner membrane

Answer 17

matrix

Question 18

mitochondria purpose

Answer 18

involved with ATP production and apoptosis

Question 19

nucleus purpose

Answer 19

stores genetic information and is the site of transcription

Question 20

lysosomes

Answer 20

break down cellular waste products and molecules ingested by endocytosis- also involved with apop
has hydrolytic enzymes that break down substances

Question 21

RER

Answer 21

synthesizes proteins destined for secretion
continuous from the nuclear envelope
studded with ribosomes (translates proteins)

Question 22

SER

Answer 22

involved with lipid synthesis and detoxification

Question 23

GOLGI

Answer 23

packages, modifies (addition of groups like carb, phosphates, sulfates or introduce signal sequences) and distributes cellular processes
stacked membrane sacs
ER to Golgi via vesicles

Question 24

peroxisomes

Answer 24

break down very long chain fatty acids (via beta oxidation), synthesis lipids and contribute to the pentose phosphate pathway
contain hydrogen peroxide

Question 25

extranuclear inherientence

Answer 25

mito does this- the transmission of genetic material independent of the nucleus

Question 26

endosomes

Answer 26

work with lysosomes in transporting, packages and sorting cell material from the membrane

Question 27

cytoskelton

Answer 27

structure to cell and helps maintain its shape

Question 28

components of cytoskelton

Answer 28

microfilaments, microtubules and intermediate filaments

Question 29

microfilaments

Answer 29

composed of actin. compression and fracture resistant, protect cells interact with myosin and ATP to move in muscle contraction play a role in cytokinesis (division of material between daughter cells-- pinching off in ring)

Question 30

microtubules

Answer 30

composed of tubular hollow motor proteins like kinesis and dynnein carry vesicles examples of tubules are cilia and flagella

Question 31

intermediate filaments are composed of

Answer 31

depends on cell type- either keratin, design, vimentin and lamins involved with cell to cell adhesion or maintenance of overall integrity tension held, increase rigidity of the cell help anchor nucleus to membrane

Question 32

centrioles consist of

Answer 32

nine triplets of microtubules around a hollow center

Question 33

flagella consists of

Answer 33

nine doublets on the outside, with two microtubules on the inside

Question 34

epithelial cell types

Answer 34

endothelial cells and alpha cells

Question 35

connective tissue cells (basement membrane)

Answer 35

fibroblasts, osteoblasts, chondroblasts | provide support and framework for epithelial cells

Question 36

cilia and flagella both have the same structure

Answer 36

9 +2: nine pairs of microtubuleson outside and 2 microtubules in center

Question 37

centrioles

Answer 37

organizing centers of the microtubules--- they are the hollow center in mitosis microtubules expand from centrioles attached to chromosome via kinetochores and spread sister chromatids apart

Question 38

epithelial cells purpose

Answer 38

protection against pathogen invasion and desiccation, line the body involved in absorption, recreation an sensation tightly together and bind with basement membrane

Question 39

parenchyma

Answer 39

the functional parts of an organ are made up of epithelial cells, like the nephrons in the kidney

Question 40

simple epithelia have

Answer 40

1 layer of cells

Question 41

strafed epiehtlia have

Answer 41

many layers

Question 42

psyedostratified epihetlic

Answer 42

appear to have many layers due to their differences in heights, but rlly 1 layer

Question 43

connective tissue contribute to

Answer 43

stroma or support structure bone, cartildge, tendons, ligaments, adipose tissue and blood form extracellular matrix through secreting collagen and elastin

Question 44

prokayrotes have circular DNA located in the

Answer 44

nucleoid region

Question 45

archea and bacteria both contain

Answer 45

prokayarotes

Question 46

archae

Answer 46

single celled organisms that are similar to bacteria, but contain genes and many metabolite pathways more similar to eukaryotes harsh environments alternative sources of energy- photosynthetic, chemosynthetic, etc.

Question 47

eukaryote and archaea both share

Answer 47

MET as translation, contain similar RNA polymerases and have DNA with histones

Question 48

all bacteria contain

Answer 48

cell membrane and cytoplasm, and some have flagella or fimbriae

Question 49

bacteria shapes

Answer 49

cocci (spheres), bacilli (tubes), and spirlli (looks like twisted rope)

Question 50

obligate aerobes

Answer 50

bacteria that need O2 for survival

Question 51

anaerobes

Answer 51

no o2, use fermentation | cannot survive in O2 setting- obligate anaerobes

Question 52

obligate anaerobes

Answer 52

cannot survive in O2 setting- create radicals

Question 53

facultative anaerobes

Answer 53

use o2 when present then switch to anaerobic mechanisms if necessary

Question 54

aerotolerant anaerobes

Answer 54

unable to use oxygen for metabolism bu are not harmed by it

Question 55

prok lack

Answer 55

nucleus and membrane bound organelles | single celled! they are!

Question 56

cell envelope

Answer 56

cell wall and cell membrane together

Question 57

cell wall

Answer 57

provides structure and controls the movement of solutes into and out of the bacterium

Question 58

types of cell wall

Answer 58

gram positive (absorbs violet stain) and gram negative (does not absorb stain, bu does safranin and appears pink)

Question 59

gram positive walls

Answer 59

contain peptidoglycan, a polymeric stance made om amino acids and sugars.protection and immunity also contains lipotecichoic acid

Question 60

gram negative walls

Answer 60

rlly thin and also contain peptidoglycan, but in smaller amounts. have outer membrane with phospholipids and lipopolysaccharides (immune response much bigger than in positive walls)

Question 61

flagella

Answer 61

whip like projections to move away from toxins or to food

Question 62

chemotaxis

Answer 62

ability of cell to move to or away from chemical stiujmli and detect it

Question 63

bacterial flagella vs. eukaryote flagella

Answer 63

eukaryote contain microtubules composed of tubulin, in. a9+2 arrangement, bacterial flagella are made of flagellin and consist of filament, basal body and hook

Question 64

binary fission

Answer 64

asexual reproduction seen in prokaryotes - circa;ar chromsomes attaches to wall and replicates while cell grows in size and then cell wall and membrane grow inward and split aMong midlien 2 identical daughter cells

Question 65

plasmids

Answer 65

extrachromosomal material in bacteria carry antibiotic resistance some benefit, like toxins or virulence factors (increase pathogencitiy)

Question 66

episomes

Answer 66

type of plasmid that integrates not genome of bacteria

Question 67

bacteria genetic recombination purpose and steps

Answer 67

increase bacterial diversity and permit evolution | transformation, conjugation and trasduction

Question 68

transformation

Answer 68

integration of foreign genetic material into the host genome | mostly from bacteria that upon lysing, spill their contents into other bacterium

Question 69

conjugation

Answer 69

bacteria form of mating- sexual reproduction 2 cells that form a conjugation bridge and transfer genetic material between them -- unidirectional (donor male to recipient female). Bridge made from sex pili from the male (F factor + and if dont have it they are F-). The sex factor is a plasmid, but through transformation cab be integrated into host genome (deemed Hfr)

Question 70

transduction

Answer 70

contains a vector- a virus that carries genetic material from 1 bacterium to another. cannot reproduce outside of hist cell, so bacteriophages can be incorporated into DNA in assembly. then it can release its trapped DNA into new host ell and integrate it for more genes.

Question 71

transposons

Answer 71

genetic elements capable of inserting and removing themelsves from the genome. prok and eukaryote.

Question 72

bacteria growth

Answer 72

lag phase- adapt to new environment exponential phase or log phase- division increases, increase in number of bacteria in colonu stationary phase- reduction in resources due to this reproduction, and therefore it slows down death phase- after bacteria have exceeded the ability of the environment to support them

Question 73

viruses are composed of

Answer 73

genetic material, protein coat (capsid), sometimes an envelope containing lipids (easy to kill because sensitive) genetic material can be circular or linear, single or double, composed of either DNA or RNA

Question 74

because viruses cannot reproduce independently they are considered

Answer 74

obligate intracellular parasites. must express and replicate genetic information in. host cell because they lack ribosomes to carry out protein synthesis.

Question 75

viral prodigy

Answer 75

virions

Question 76

bacteriophages

Answer 76

viruses that target bacteria. inject genetic material, dont enter. tail sheath acts as a syringe and tail fibers help connect virus to bacteria

Question 77

positive sense

Answer 77

genome may be directly translated to functional proteins by the ribosomes of the host cell, just like mRNA

Question 78

single stranded RNA viruses can be

Answer 78

positive or negative sense

Question 79

negative sense

Answer 79

Rna viruses are complex- negative sense RNA acts as a template for synthesis of complementary stand, which Is used for a template for protein synthesis carry RNA replies in the virion to ensure complementary strand is being synthesized.

Question 80

retoviruses

Answer 80

enveloped, single stranded RNA viruses- virion contains 2 RNA mc. carry reverse transcriptase, which syntheses DNA from single stranded RNA and DNA integrated into host cell and replicated as if host's own DNA. HIV only way to remove infection is to kill the cell.

Question 81

prions

Answer 81

cause diseases by triggering misfolding of other proteins, usually from converting them from an alpha helix structure to a b pleated sheet. cell cannot degrade and insolubility. aggregates for,.

Question 82

viroids

Answer 82

very short circular single stranded RNA that infect plants

Question 83

lytic cycle

Answer 83

bacteriophages replicate in the host cell in high numbers until hose cell lyses and releases virions.

Question 84

lysogenic cycle

Answer 84

bacteriophage enters the host genome and replicates with the host cell as provirus. provirus can leave host genome and used to synthesize new virions.

Question 85

diploid

Answer 85

2n- two copies of each chromosome. autosomal cells are diploid. 46 in humans

Question 86

haploid cells

Answer 86

germ cells. (n)- containing on only one copy of each chromosome. 23 in humans (from each parent we inherit 23)

Question 87

cell cycle

Answer 87

a specific series of phases during which a cell grows, synthesizes DNA and divides. Derangements can lead to unchecked cell division and cancer. Stages are G1, S, G2 and M

Question 88

interphase

Answer 88

G1, S and G2. Longest part of the cell cycle. Chromsones are in less condensed form and called chromatin, so that genes are available for RNA poly to be transcribed. During mitosis, DNA is tightly condensed to chromosomes to avoid losing any genetic material during cell division.

Question 89

cells that do not divide spend all their time in an offshoot of G1, called G0

Answer 89

cell is simply living and carrying out its functions without any prep for division.

Question 90

G1 stage

Answer 90

cells create organelles for energy and protein production (mito, ri, ER), while also increasing size. In order to get into S phase, go through restriction point, which checks if the cell has the proper complement of DNA (DNA good enough for synthesis). If not good enough, then cel goes into arrest until RNA repaired- main protein is p53

Question 91

S stage

Answer 91

cell replicates its genetic material so that each daughter cel will have identical copies. after, each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids that are bound together by a centromere. Still 46 chromosomes.

Question 92

G2 stage

Answer 92

cell passes through another quality control checkpoint. DNA is duplicated and cell checks to ensure enough organelles and cyto for 2 daughter cells. Also checks for error in DNA replication. p53 plays role here.

Question 93

M Stage

Answer 93

Mitoriss and cytokinesis. Mit is divided into 4 stages-prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. Cytokinesis is the splitting of the cyto and organelles bw the two daughter cells. Somatic cells- cells not for sexual reproduction.

Question 94

molecules responsible for cell cycle

Answer 94

cyclins and cyclins-dependent kinases (CDK). CDK activated with cyclins present and phosphorylate TF (transcribe genes required for next stages). Binding fluctuates in cell cycle.

Question 95

cancer

Answer 95

when cell cycle control becomes deranged and damaged cells under mitosis, cancer happens. mutations in cancer are with p53 production gene, TP53. when mutated, cell is not stopped to repair damaged DNA and mutations accumulate and cell divides cont- creating tumors. can start to reach other tissues and invade in blood stream or lymphatic system- metastasis

Question 96

prophase

Answer 96

condensation of the chromatin into chromosomes. centriole pairs separate and more toward opposite poles of the cell. these paired organelles are located in the centrosomes. Centrioles migrate to ends of cells and form spindle fibers, made of microtubules.nuclear membrane dissolves during prophase and these spindle fibers connect to chromosomes . nucleoii dispeappar. kinetochores- attachment points for fibers of the spindle on the centrosome.

Question 97

metaphase

Answer 97

centriole pairs are now at opposite ends, kinetochores align chromosomes at meta plate (equatorial plate, between two poles

Question 98

anaphase

Answer 98

centromeres spoilt so that each chromatid has its own distinct centromere, sister chromatids seperate, shortening kinetochores pull to opposite poles

Question 99

telophase

Answer 99

reverse of prophase. spindle apparatus gone. nuclear membrane reforms around chromosomes and nucleoli appears. chromosomes uncoil with interphase form. each of the two new nuclei receive a copy of the genome identical to the original genome and to each other

Question 100

cytokinesis

Answer 100

end of telophase, separation of the cytoplasm and organelles, giving each daughter cell enough material to survive on its own.

Question 101

meiosis

Answer 101

occurs in gametocytes (germ cells) and results in 4 nonidentical sex cells (gametes).

Question 102

meiosis and mitosis similarities

Answer 102

genetic material duplicated, chromatin condensed to form chromosomes and microtubules emanating from centrioles are involved in dividing genetic material.

Question 103

differences in meiosis compared to mitosis

Answer 103

mitosis- 1 round of replication and divsion | meoissi- one round of replication, 2 rounds of division

Question 104

meiosis 1

Answer 104

homologous chrome being separated, creating haploid daughter cells-- reductional division

Question 105

meiosis 2

Answer 105

similar to mitosis- results in separation of sister chromatids with a change in ploy - equational division.

Question 106

human genome has

Answer 106

23 homologous pairs of chromsomes (homologues), eacch contain 1 chromosomes from each parent. after s phase, there are 92 chromatids, 46 chromosomes and 23 homo pairs

Question 107

meiosis prophase 1

Answer 107

same as mitosis except homologous chromosomes come tg and intertwine with synapsis. So each chromosome has 2 sister chromatids and 4 chromatids in a synaptic pair -- tetrad.

Question 108

chiasma

Answer 108

sister chromatids of the homologue chrome break at chiasma and exchange DNA in crossing over (single or double)

Question 109

crossing over occurs in prophase 1 of

Answer 109

homologue chromosomes , not sister chromatids of same chromosome.

Question 110

recombination

Answer 110

increasing variety of genetic combinations that can produced via gametogenesis.

Question 111

linkage

Answer 111

tendency for genes to be inherited togehter- father away= not likely

Question 112

because of crossing over

Answer 112

each daughter cell will have a unique pool of alleles. from a random mixture of paternal and material orign

Question 113

metaphase 1

Answer 113

homologous pairs (tetrads) align on plate and each pair attaches to ONE (not 2 like mitosis) spindle fiber by kinetochore.

Question 114

anaphase 1

Answer 114

each homologue pair operate- called disjunction. random with what chromosomes end up in either daughter cell.. segregation.

Question 115

telophase 1

Answer 115

nuclear membrane reforms. each chromosome has 2 sister chromatids joined at centromere. cells are haploid (n- 23 chromasomes). cell divides into 2 daughter cells by cytokinesis and there may be interkinesis, chromosomes partially uncoil

Question 116

meiosis 2

Answer 116

similar to mitosis- sister chromatids.

Question 117

biological sex is determined by

Answer 117

the 23rd chromosomes

Question 118

Ova carry the

Answer 118

x chrom

Question 119

X chrom

Answer 119

can cause sex (x) linked disorders- carry most genetic info

Question 120

males are termed

Answer 120

hemizygous . recessively inherited so F express much less than males (if males have it, they show it, cant hide it or be carriers like females)

Question 121

Y Chrom SRY gene

Answer 121

sex determining region Y- codes for transcription factor that imitates tetis differentiation and male gonads. So without Y chromosomes, female.

Question 122

testes:

Answer 122

seminiferous tubules and intersitutal cells of Leydig. Sperm is produced in seminiferous tubes and nourished by Sertoli cells. Cells of leydig secrete testeerone and other m sex H (androgens)

Question 123

testes are located in the

Answer 123

scrotum. as sperm form, they pass through the epididymis and stored until ejculation. travel through vas deferent and enter ejaculatory duct in prostate gland.

Question 124

spermatogensis

Answer 124

formation of haploid sperm through meiosis, occurs in semi tubes. diploid cells are known as spermatogonia.

Question 125

production of female gamates

Answer 125

oogensies . all oogonia formed during detal development

Question 126

primary oocyte

Answer 126

arrested in prophase 1/ at birth.

Question 127

asecondary oocyte

Answer 127

arrested in metaphase 2. at first period. and polar body

Question 128

acrosome

Answer 128

contains enzymes that are capable of penetrating the corona radiate and zone pellucid of the ovum, permitting fertilization to occur ,modified by Golgi.

Question 129

androgens, like testetrone, lead to male sex differentiation. absence of androgens receptors is known as

Answer 129

andoren insentisitvity syndrome, leads to XY genotype with phenotypically female char

Question 130

follicular

Answer 130

high FSH, high LH, drop then high estrogen and down progesterone. egg develop,s endometrial lining becomes vascular and glandular. regrowth

Question 131

ovulation

Answer 131

egg is release from follicle int pweironeal cavity. high FSH and LH and Estrogen. down progesterone. high lH leads to ovulation, release of ovum from the ovary.

Question 132

Luteal

Answer 132

corpus leutum produces progrestrone to maintain endometrium. low FSH, = LH, high estrogen and progesterone. prevent ovulation of too many eggs.

Question 133

menses

Answer 133

shedding of endometrial living. down all H

Question 134

FSH stimulates Sertoli cells and triggers sperm maturation as LH causes

Answer 134

intersisytal cells to produce T

Question 135

estrogen is secreted in response to FSH

Answer 135

leads to thickinign of endometrium and secondary char.

Question 136

progesterone

Answer 136

secreted by the corpus letueum in response to LH. involved with deveopmetn and maintenance of endometrium.

Question 137

menstrual cycle

Answer 137

follicular phase, ovulation, luteal and menses

Question 138

pregnancy

Answer 138

hCG will be secreted- keeps lining in place by nurturing corpus leutum which keeps progrestrone and estrogen working. placenta takes over hCG 's job

Question 139

menopause

Answer 139

ovaries less sensitize to FSH and LH, ovarian atrophy. drop in progresterone and estrogen lead to endometrium down leads to no period.

Question 140

amino acids

Answer 140

contain an amino group (NH2) and a carboxyl group (COOH). alpha carbon is where these groups attach to , the carboxylic acid carbon, central carbon.Also has a H and a side chain (R Group) attached to the central C. R group is specific to each amino acid

Question 141

alpha C

Answer 141

chiral/stereogenic center, as it has 4 diff groups attached to it. most amino acids are optimally active. Exception is glycine, which has H as an R group and makes it achiral. All amino acids (but cystin) are L-amino acids and S confirguartion.

Question 142

amino acids with polar, nonromantic side chains

Answer 142

glycine (small), alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, methionine, proline

Question 143

amino acids with aromatic side chains

Answer 143

tryptophan, phenylamnine, tyrosine

Question 144

amino acids with polar side chains

Answer 144

serine, threonine, asparagine, glutamine, cysteine

Question 145

amino acid with negatively charged side chains

Answer 145

aspartic acid, glutamic acid

Question 146

amino acids with positively charged side chains

Answer 146

ariginine, lysine, histidine

Question 147

hydrophobic

Answer 147

all AA with long alkyl side chains (alanine, leucine, isoleucine, valine and phenyalanine)--- founds interior of proteins away from water

Question 148

hydrophilic

Answer 148

all aa with charged side chains- + charged histidine, arginine, lysine and - charged glutamate and aspartate as well as aspatartic and glutamic acid

Question 149

Abbreivations

Answer 149

``` Alanine- Ala- A Arigine- Arg- R Aparagine- Asn- N aspartic acid- asp- d cystiene-cys- c GLUTAMIC acid- glut-E Glutamine- Gln- Q glycine- Gly-G histidine- His- H isoleucine- Ile- I Leucine- Leu- L lysine- Lys- K metthionine- met- M phenylalanine- phe- f proline-pro-P serine- ser-S threonine- thr- T tryptophan- trp- W Tyrosine- Tyr-Y Valine-Val-V ```

Question 150

amino acids, with both acidic carboxylic group and basic amino acid group

Answer 150

makes them amphoteric species- either accept a proton or donate a proton depending on the pH of the environment.

Question 151

ionnzable groups tend to

Answer 151

gain protons under acidic coniditions and lose them in basic conditions. at low pH= protonated at high pH= deprotonated

Question 152

the pKa of a group is the PH

Answer 152

at which half of the mc of that species are deprotonated if pH is less than pKA = protonated if PH is more than PKA= deproontated

Question 153

amino acids have two pKa

Answer 153

pKa for carboxylic acid= 2 pKa= amino group= 9-10 ionizable side chains- have 3 pKa

Question 154

at very acidic but above 2 value

Answer 154

pH will be +

Question 155

zwitterions

Answer 155

7.5. Amino group is protonated so +, COOH- group is above so deporontated and -.

Question 156

pI

Answer 156

isoelectric point- the Ph at which the mc Is electrically neutral pI= PKA NH3 + group + pKA COOH group/2

Question 157

peptides

Answer 157

amino acid subunits (residues) dipeptides- 2 AA residues tripeptides- 3 oligopeptide- small peptides up to about 20 residues while longer chains are called polypeptides residues joined together via peptide bond-- between -COO- soup of one aa and the NH3+ group of another aa

Question 158

peptide bond formation

Answer 158

dehhydration or condensation reCTION BECUSE IT RESULTS IN THE REMOVAL OF WATER electrophilic carbonyl carbon on the first a is attacked by nucleus amino group on second aa.

Question 159

enzymes break apart of proteins by

Answer 159

breaking apart the amide bond by adding hydrogen atom to the amide nitrogen and an Oh group to the carbonyl carbon

Question 160

primary protein level

Answer 160

linear barrage,net of amino acids in DNA. peptide bond

Question 161

secondary

Answer 161

`hydrogen bonding between neighboring amino acids- alpha helixes and beta pleated sheets. hydrogen bonds

Question 162

proline- kink in the peptide chain when found in the middle of an alpha helix

Answer 162

rarely found therefore, unlesss cell membrane. creates turns in beta sheets.

Question 163

alpha helix is a rod like structure in which the peptide chain

Answer 163

coils clockwise around the central axis. b sheets the peptide chains lie alongside one another, rows together by hydrogen bonds

Question 164

tertiary structure

Answer 164

3D shape of protein, hydrophobic interactions, acid-base salt bridges, disulfide links-- bonds are LDF, H, optic and covalnt

Question 165

quart structures

Answer 165

interaction between separate submits of a multisubunit protein, same bonds as quart.

Question 166

moving Hydrophobic resides to the interior of a protein

Answer 166

increases entropy by allowing water molecules on the surface of the protein to have more possible conjurations .positive delta S makes delta G negative stabilizing proteins

Question 167

prosthetic groups

Answer 167

lipids, carbs, NA--- lipoproteins glycoproteins and nucleoproteins direct protein and determine function example is HEME group

Question 168

denaturation

Answer 168

in which a protein does its 3D- heat and soluytes

Question 169

higher heat =

Answer 169

unfolding

Question 170

solutes

Answer 170

disrupt quart and tertiary structure by breaking disulfide bonds. reducing Cysteinem and breaks apart secondary structures

Question 171

catalysts

Answer 171

enzymes- do not imp the thermodynamics of a biological reaction, delta H and equilibrium position do not change. . Increase reaction rate by lowering activation energy, increasing rate of reaction, not changed or consumed int eh reaction, are pH and temp sensitize, do not effect overall delta G and scenic for a particular reaction or class of reactions

Question 172

enzyme specificty

Answer 172

a given enzyme will only catalyze a single reaction or class of reactions, with these usbtrates

Question 173

oxidoreductases

Answer 173

catalyze oxidation- reduction raccoons- the transfer of electrons between molecules. Have electrons carriers like NADP+. Donor is known as reductant and electron acceptor is oxidant.

Question 174

LIL HOT

Answer 174

ligase, isomerase, lyse, hydrolase, oxidoreductase, transferase

Question 175

transferase

Answer 175

catalyze the movement of a functional group from one molecule to another. ex. moving an amino group. Kinases included, which transfer a phosphate group, from ATP, to another mc

Question 176

hydrolases

Answer 176

catalyze the breaking of a compound into 2 mc using addition of water/- phosphates, peptidases, lipases etc

Question 177

lyases

Answer 177

catalyze the clear of a single molecule into 2 products. not require water.

Question 178

isomerases

Answer 178

catalyze the rearrangement of bonds within a molecule. | stereoisomers and constitutional isomers

Question 179

ligases

Answer 179

catalyze addition or synthesis reactions, generally between large similar molecules and require ATP often. NA synthesis mostly

Question 180

enzyme affects thermodynamics by:

Answer 180

energy states of the reaction.

Question 181

enzyme affects kineticss by:

Answer 181

rate of reaction, how quickly a reaction gets to equilibrium but not the actual equilibrium state itself is touched.

Question 182

lock and key theory vs. induced fit model

Answer 182

in lock and key it assumes active site (lock) is already in appropriate conformation for key to bind as in indices it, enzyme is a foam stress ball and substrate is a hand, they conform together.

Question 183

cofactors

Answer 183

inorganic molecules or metal ions, ingested as dietary minerals, enzymes require these nonprotein molecules to be effective in catalysis

Question 184

coenzymes

Answer 184

small organic groups, vitamins like NAD+, coenzyme A and DAS

Question 185

{s}

Answer 185

concentration of the substrate --starts off increasing rlly high and then levels off as less enzyme becomes available with increasing substrate

Question 186

Michalis-Menten equation

Answer 186

describes how the rate of thr reaction, v, depends on the convention of both the enzyme {E} and the substrate [s] which form [p]. enzyme substrate completes form at a rate Ki. The ES complex can either dissociate at a rate k-1 or E +P at rate K cat v= vmax ([s])/ Km + [s] Km= [s] plot- v vs. [s], creating hyperbolic curve

Question 187

Michaelis constant

Answer 187

Km- substrate concentration at which had of the enzymes active sites are full. measure of enzymes affinity for a substrate. as km increases, an enzymes affinity for a substrate decreases

Question 188

when. substrate concentration is slo

Answer 188

an increase in [s] causes increase in enzyme activity. at high [s], enzyme is saturated and no effect on activity cause max is met

Question 189

increasing [e] will always increase

Answer 189

max, regardless of starting concentration of enzyme

Question 190

line weaver-burk plot

Answer 190

1/v vs. 1/[s], creating a straight line. same as mention plot

Question 191

line weaver-burk plot x and y

Answer 191

x= -1/km, y = 1/vmax

Question 192

enzyme cooperativty

Answer 192

interactions between subunits in a mulitsuunut enzyme or protein. the binding of substrate to one subunit induces a change in other subunits from the T (tense) state to the R (relaxed) state, which encourages binding of substate to others. in unbinding, R to T,

Question 193

as temperature increases, enzyme activity generally increasing.

Answer 193

above body temp, enzyme cavity drops off as enzyme denatures. enzymes are max active within a small pH range, denatured if not. changes I salinity can disrupt bonds within an enzyme, causing distruption of tertiary and quart structures, lose of function

Question 194

ideal temp for enzymes

Answer 194

37 degrees C= 310 K= 98.6 F

Question 195

ideal pH for most enzymes is

Answer 195

7.4. for gastric enzymes: 2, pancreatic enzymes: 8.5

Question 196

feedback inhibition

Answer 196

product of an enzymatic pathway turning off enzymes further bacteria kin that same pathway. maintain homeostasis as a product level rise, the pathway creating the product is downregulated

Question 197

increases km

Answer 197

competetive inhibitor- sub concentration has to be higher to reach the max velocity in th presence of the inhibitor. a mixed inhibitor will increase km only if inhibitor partially binds to the enzyme over the enzyme substreate complex

Question 198

irreversible inhibition

Answer 198

prolonged, permeant inactivation of an enzyme, cannot be renatured to gain function

Question 199

transient modificationa- activated or deactivated enzymes

Answer 199

allosteric or inhibition

Question 200

covalent modifcations- activated or deactivated enzymes

Answer 200

phosphorylation and glucosulation

Question 201

zymogens are precursors of

Answer 201

active enzymes. critical for certain enzymes (digestive enzymes in the pancreas) remain inactive until arriving at target site.

Question 202

neurons

Answer 202

specialized cells capable of transmitting electrical impulses and then translating those imputes into chemical signals.

Question 203

neuron nuc is located in the

Answer 203

cell body, or soma

Question 204

dendrites

Answer 204

received incoming messages from other neurons

Question 205

axon hillocks

Answer 205

integrate the neuron signal- plays a role in AP, which transmit electrical impulses down a axon. Excitotry or inhibitory sugnals

Question 206

axon

Answer 206

long appenadage that terminates in close proximity to a target structure

Question 207

myelin

Answer 207

insulation of fat to prevent signal loss or crossing of signals. also increases speed and maintain electrical signals within 1 neuron. produced by oligodendrocytes in CNS and Schwann cells in PNS

Question 208

nodes of ranvier

Answer 208

small breaks in myelin sheath exposed axon membrane-critical for rapid signal conduction

Question 209

nerve teerminal

Answer 209

max transmission of the signal to next neuron and release NT

Question 210

nerve terminal, synpaticcleft and post synaptic membrane are known as

Answer 210

the synapse

Question 211

multiple neurons may be bundled together t form a nerve

Answer 211

in the PNS- sensory, motor or mixed

Question 212

collection of cell bodies at CNS is

Answer 212

nucleus

Question 213

collection of cell bodies at PNS is

Answer 213

ganglion

Question 214

astrocytes

Answer 214

nourish neurons and form BBB, which control transmission of solutes from bloodstream to tissues in nervous system

Question 215

ependymal cells

Answer 215

Line the ventricles of the brain and produce cerebrospinal fluid, which support the brain and serves as shock absorber

Question 216

microglia

Answer 216

phagocyte cells that ingest and break down wast products and pathogens in the CNS

Question 217

olgiodenrocytes (CNS) and Schwaan cells (PNS)

Answer 217

produce myeline around axons

Question 218

cells resting membrane potential

Answer 218

net electric potential difference that exists across cell membrane, created by movement of charged mc across membrane. -70 mV, inside more negative than outside

Question 219

potassium is more

Answer 219

inside than outside - wants to move out. has potassium leak channels, slowly leak out and create neg inside and pos outside. however negative charge inside the cell attratcs pot to stay. electrical current vs. chemical gradient- equals! 1:1- so equilibrium potential of pot around -90 mV

Question 220

sodium is more

Answer 220

inside than outside- push to rush inside- sodium leak cahnelles. electrical potential pulls sodium back into cell. _60 mV

Question 221

resting membrane poteital

Answer 221

between pot and sod- -70 mV

Question 222

NA/K ATPASE

Answer 222

pump sodium and pot back to where they started- done by ATP

Question 223

exhibitory input causes

Answer 223

depolarization- raising membrane potential frmresting and neuron more likely to fire

Question 224

inhibitory input causes

Answer 224

lowering Mem poetical from its resting- hyperpolizartion and neuron less likely to fire AP

Question 225

threshold value

Answer 225

-55 mV to -40 mV

Question 226

many signals to a post from many pre synaptic

Answer 226

summation

Question 227

types of summation

Answer 227

temoporal and spatial

Question 228

temporal summation

Answer 228

many signals are integrated during short period of time. small excretory signals firing at some moment can bring cell to threshold

Question 229

spatial summation

Answer 229

additive effects are based on number and location of signals- a large number of inhibitory signals firing directly on soma will cause a more profound hyperpolization of the axon hillock then the depolarization caused by a few excretory signals firing on the dendrites

Question 230

AP

Answer 230

if cell is brought to threshold, voltage gated ion sodium channels open in the membrane in response to the change in potential (depol) and permit the passage of sodium ions - strong electrochemical gradient that promotes the migration of sodium into the cell. as well as gradient concentration because more out than in- so NA Rushes in. when Vm approaches +35, sodium channels are inactivated. This makes pot voltage gated channels to open and drive outside the cell through replorization. -- makes th neuron refractory to further AP

Question 231

absolute refractory period

Answer 231

no amount of stimulation can cause anther AP

Question 232

relative refractory period

Answer 232

there must be a greater than normal stimulation to cause an AP because starting at even farther negtaive value I

Question 233

IMPULSE propoganda

Answer 233

for a signal to be conveyed to another neuron, AP use travel down axon and imitate NT release- increased length of axon results in higher resistance and slower conduction. cross sectional allows for faster progofanda due to decreased resistance

Question 234

salutary conduction

Answer 234

signal hops from node to node, nodes of ran view because myelin maximizes speed of transmission

Question 235

Nt

Answer 235

stored in membrane bound vesicles in nerve terminal. when AP reaches, Ca channels open and allow Ca to flow into the cell ad trigger vesicles to let go of NT

Question 236

ligand gated ion channel

Answer 236

deplorized or hyperpolizard

Question 237

GPCR

Answer 237

change sin levels of cAMP or influx of Ca

Question 238

removing NT

Answer 238

by enzymatic reactions, reupake carriers, diffuse out of synapse.

Question 239

sensory neurons

Answer 239

afferent neurons - sensory receptors to brain and spine

Question 240

motor neurons

Answer 240

efferent- transmit motor info from brain to msucels

Question 241

interneurons

Answer 241

most numerous. Brin and spinal cord and reflex

Question 242

brain white mater

Answer 242

axons with myeline sheath

Question 243

grey matter brain

Answer 243

unmyelinate cell bodies and dendrites

Question 244

spinal cord

Answer 244

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral

Question 245

cell bodies of sensory neurons in

Answer 245

dorsal root ganglia

Question 246

PNS connects CNS

Answer 246

to rest of bodylm

Question 247

somatic system

Answer 247

sensory and motor neurons throughout skin, joints and muscles.

Question 248

ANS

Answer 248

heartbeat, respiration, digestion, secretions- involtunary. , body temp

Question 249

relfex arcs

Answer 249

controls reflexive behavior- internerons in spinal cord send out signals instead of waiting for the brain to do it

Question 250

monosyantpic reflex arc

Answer 250

there isa single synapse between the sensory neurons that receives the stimulus and the motor neuron that responds to it- knee jerk reflex

Question 251

polysnaptic reflex arc

Answer 251

at least 1 internerons between the sensory and Motor neurons- withdrawal effect when stepping on a nail-- mono in which u will flex the hurt foot and pull away, bt to maintain balance, have to control other leg too

Question 252

glands

Answer 252

secrete hormones

Question 253

hormones

Answer 253

signalling molecules secreted directly into the bloodstream to distant target tissue. Bind to a receptor and cause a change in gene expression or cell function

Question 254

hormones classified by chemical identifies

Answer 254

peptides, steroids, amino acid derivatives

Question 255

peptides H

Answer 255

made up of aa, ranging from small to large (ADH to insulin). They are charged and cannot pass through the pm - bind to exxtraceullar receptor. Peptide H is considered first messenger, and triggers the transmission a second messenger -- signaling cascade and ampliciation and signal intensity (activate many enzymes)

Question 256

second messeners

Answer 256

cAMP and IP3 and Ca2+

Question 257

peptide hormones are

Answer 257

rapid and short lived bc act through second messenger cascades- wicker to turn them off and on compared with steroid hormones peptide H are water soluble and can travel freely in bloodstream and dont need carrier.

Question 258

steroid hormones

Answer 258

lipid soluble. derived from cholesterol- produced by gonads and adrenal cortex. Easily cross cell membrane because non polar. Receptors are therefore intracellular (in cytosol) or intranueuclar (in nucleus). Binding can cause conformational changes, like binding to DNA and result in increased or decreased transcription of genes. conformational change can be dimerization, pairing of 2 receptors hormone complexes slower and long lived- alter mRNA and protein present by direct action on DNA

Question 259

steroid hormones are not

Answer 259

water soluble and need to be carried by proteins in the bloodstream - proteins can be specific and carry any 1, or general and many. must disscoiate from protein for H to function. levels of carrier proteins change the levels of active hormones

Question 260

amino acid derivative H

Answer 260

epi, nor, triiodothyronine, thyroxine - derived from 1 or 2 amino acids and modification catecholines (epi and nor) bind to GPCR and thyroid H bind intracellularly

Question 261

direct H

Answer 261

secrets and direct bind onto a target tissye | insulin causes increased uptake of glucose by muscles

Question 262

tropic hormones

Answer 262

rehire an intermediate to act | GnRH from hypothalamus stimulate the release of LH and FSH . LH acts on gonasd and stimulate testetrone

Question 263

peptide and aa derivative H have names that end with -in

Answer 263

insulin, vasopressin, throne. many steroid hormones have names that end with -one, -ol, -oid (cortisol, testestrnoe)

Question 264

endocrine glands

Answer 264

hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas, gonads, pineal gland

Question 265

hypothalmuns

Answer 265

bridge between nervous and endocrine systems regulates pit gland with tropic H. in forebrain- above pt gland and below thalamus controls pit gland by release of H into portal system

Question 266

negative feedback

Answer 266

when a hormone later int eh pathway inhibits hormones earlier in the pathway maintains homeeostatsis and conserves energy

Question 267

the hypothalamus secretes compounds into the

Answer 267

hypophyseal portal system which is a blood vessel system that directs connects the hypothalamus with the anterior pit

Question 268

hypothalamus secretes many tropic H

Answer 268

GnRh, RHRH, TRH, CRF

Question 269

GnRH

Answer 269

gonadotropin-releasing H from hypothalamus-- stimulate release of follicle stimulating H (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from anterior pit. target gonads (testes and ovaries) which release Testosterone and estrogen and progesterone

Question 270

GHRH

Answer 270

growth hormone releasing hormone from hypothalamus,us stimulates release of GH (growth hormone) from anterior pit bind to bone muscle

Question 271

TRH

Answer 271

thyroid releasing hormone from hypothalamus and stimulates release of thyroid stimulating H (TSH) from anterior pit targets the thyroid and released triiodothyronine and thyroxine

Question 272

CRF

Answer 272

corticotropin releasing factor from hypothalamus stimulate release of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from anterior pit taget adrenal cortex and release glucocorticoids (cortisol and cortisone ) hypothalamus --> CRG --> ant pit --> ACTH -->adrenal cortex--> cortisol and then cortisol negative feedback to ant pit and hypothalamus

Question 273

dopamine

Answer 273

from hypothalamus released prolactin from ant pit and targets breast tissue

Question 274

posterior pit

Answer 274

DOES NOT RECIEVE TROPIC H THROUGH HYPopheasal pathway but hypothalamus send neurons down the pit stalk to post pit which releases oxytocin and ADH

Question 275

oxytocin

Answer 275

uterine contractions during labor | lactation

Question 276

ADH

Answer 276

antidietutic hormone or vasopressin- increases reabsorption of water in the kidneys

Question 277

products of the ant pit

Answer 277

FLAT PEG F- FSH L-LH A-ACTH T-TSJ P-Prolactin E-Endorphins G-GH

Question 278

prolactin

Answer 278

mlk production in mammary glands

Question 279

GH

Answer 279

growth hormone promotes growth in mescals and bone

Question 280

ADH

Answer 280

secreted in response to blood volume

Question 281

thyroid

Answer 281

controlled by thryoid stimulating homrone from ant pit sets basal metabolic rate (release triiodothyronine- T3 and thyroxnine-T4) and promotes calcium homeotstais (calcitonin release

Question 282

triiodothyronine- T3 and thyroxnine-T4

Answer 282

produced by follicular cells of the thyroid make energy production more or less efficient alter utilization of glucose and fatty acids deficiency in done == hypothyroidism

Question 283

follicular cells produce C cells/parafollicular cells

Answer 283

which make calcitonin- decrease plasma Ca levels by increasing Ca excretion from the kidneys, decreasing ca from the gut or increasing storage of ca in the bone

Question 284

parathyroid

Answer 284

produce parathyroid hormone (PTH) antagonist H to Ca- increasing blood CA levels negative feedback loop activates vitamin D

Question 285

glucagon fro alpha cells of the pancrase

Answer 285

increase glucose levels

Question 286

insulin from the B cells from the pancrease

Answer 286

decrease blood gluc levels

Question 287

ADH from the hypothalamus (released by post pit) increases blood volume and decreases blood osmoarlity

Answer 287

aldosterone from the adrenal cortex increases blood volume with no effect on blood osmoarlity. same with ANP from the heart

Question 288

glucocorticoids

Answer 288

steroid H from adrenal glands that regulate glucose levels cortsol and cortisone -and estrogens increase blood sugar in times of stress under control by ACTH from the anterior pit.

Question 289

mineralocorticoids

Answer 289

aldosterone- increases sodium resorption in the distal convoluted tube and collecting duct of nephron.

Question 290

cortical sex hormones

Answer 290

androgens

Question 291

adrenal medulla

Answer 291

makes epi and nor | sympathetic NS

Question 292

glucagon

Answer 292

secreted during times of fasting when gluc is low- increases gluc production by triggering glycogensies

Question 293

insukin

Answer 293

antagonist to glutton and secrete when blood glucose levels are high cause hypoglycemia

Question 294

diabtes

Answer 294

hyperglkycemia

Question 295

type 1 diabetes

Answer 295

autoimmune destruction often B cells in the pancreases, low insulin production. type 2- receptor level resistance to the effects of insulin

Question 296

somatostatin

Answer 296

inhibitor of both insulin dn glucagon

Question 297

pineal gland

Answer 297

melatonin

Question 298

monosacctdies three carbons, 4 C, 5C, 6C

Answer 298

triode, tetrose, pentose, hexose | glyceraldehyde

Question 299

carbs with an aldehyde group as their most oxidized group, and with ketones

Answer 299

aldoses and ketoses

Question 300

six C sugar with aldehyde

Answer 300

aldohexose

Question 301

d-frustoce, d-glucose, d-galactose, d-mannose

Answer 301

know these structures

Question 302

optical isomers

Answer 302

aka stereoisomers are compounds that have the same chemical formula - only difference by spatial arrangement in space

Question 303

enatiomers

Answer 303

between stereoisomers that are nonidentical, non superimposable mirror images of one another chiral C- 4 different things bonded to it

Question 304

2 sugars that are in th same family (ketoses or aldoses and have the same number of C) that are not identical and not mirro rimages

Answer 304

diastereomers

Question 305

epimers

Answer 305

subset of diastereomers that differentiations in cofirguation at exactly 1 chiral center

Question 306

during hemiacetal and hemiketal formation, the carbonyl carbon becomes chiral and is termed the anomeric carbon

Answer 306

the OH sub on the carbon determines if the sugar molecule is alpha (axial and down tot eh CH2OH) or beta (up and equatorial)

Question 307

exposing hemiacetal rings to water will cause them to

Answer 307

cycle between the open and closed form--- mutarotation- alpha and beta

Question 308

aldoses

Answer 308

considered reducing agents

Question 309

hemiacetal ring

Answer 309

reducing sugar

Question 310

Tollens reagent and Benedicts reagent

Answer 310

both used to detect the presence of reducing sugars Tollen- reduced to produce a silvery error when aldelphydes are present Benedicts- indicated by a reddish precipitate of Cu2O

Question 311

tautomerization

Answer 311

refers tp tje rearrangement of bond in a compound, usually by moving a hydrogen and forming a double bond

Question 312

enol

Answer 312

double bond and an alcohol group

Question 313

starch

Answer 313

amylose (in plants) and amylopectin (glycosidic bonds- more soluble in solution bc branched so decreased intermoleulcaulr bonding between polymers and an increase with environment)

Question 314

enzymes that cleave side activity will more likely cleave

Answer 314

glycogen because it contains more branching than amylopectin.

Question 315

cell (plasma ) membrane

Answer 315

semipermeable phospholipid bilayer chooses which particles to enter and leave- selective fat-soluble cross easily, large and water soluble do not-- by the bilayer and carriers protect interior from exgernal

Question 316

carbs associated with the membrane bound proteins create.

Answer 316

Glycoprotein coat

Question 317

cell memebrane functions

Answer 317

regulate traffic in and out of the cell, communication and signaling. proteins embodied act as cell receptors during signal transuction

Question 318

phosphopliids

Answer 318

move rapidly in the membrane through simple diffusion

Question 319

lipid rafts

Answer 319

collection of similar lipids with or without associated proteins that serve as an attachment for other biomolcules- roles in signaling

Question 320

flippasses

Answer 320

move lids between the membrane layers. this is hard with flipasse because the polar head group of the phospholipid must be forced through the non polar tail region in the interior of the bilayer.

Question 321

membrane components- most plentiful to least

Answer 321

lipids (phosopholipid, cholesterol- fluidity to the layer) then proteins (channels and receptors in the transmembrane), carbs (glycoprotein coat and signaling molecules) and NA are absent

Question 322

fatty acids

Answer 322

carbixlucic acids that contain a hydrocarbon chain and a terminal carboxyl group

Question 323

triacylglycerides

Answer 323

stage lipids involved with human metabolic processes- three FA chains to a glycerol molecule

Question 324

unsaturated fatty acid chains

Answer 324

healthier- one or more double bonds and exist at liquid form in room tmp- fluidity kink

Question 325

saturated fatty acids

Answer 325

soldis in room temp- less healthy | decrease fluidity of membrane

Question 326

glycerophospholid

Answer 326

2 FA tails to a glycol and the last tail is a phosphate group assemble into micelles (small vesicles) or ,liposomes (bilayer vesicles) due to hydrophobic interactions secondd messengers, structure of membrane, phosphate group provides attachment point for soluble groups

Question 327

spingolipids

Answer 327

not glycerol, have a hydrophilic regional's dn 2 FA derived hyodrophobic tails (how they are simile to glycolipids)

Question 328

cholesterol

Answer 328

regulates membrane fluidity and helps synthesized steroids philic and phobiac regions stability is derived from interactions with both of these regions that make up the bilayer takes up space between phospholipids which prevents the formation of crystal structures and increasing flifuity at lower temperature at high temperatures- cholesterol has the opposite effect by limiting movement between membrane and decreasing fluidiuty

Question 329

waxes

Answer 329

cell memrbane of plants extremely hydrophobic long chain Fa and a long chain alcohol, contribeu to teh high melting point stability and rigidity in the nonpolr tail region protection/waterproof

Question 330

fluid mosaic model

Answer 330

reset of 3 membrane proteins- transmamebrane, embodied and membrane-associated proteins

Question 331

transmembrane proteins

Answer 331

pass completley through the bilayer | channels or receptors

Question 332

embedded proteins

Answer 332

only with the interior (cytoplasm) or exterior (extracellular) surface of the cell catalytic activity linked with nary enzymes

Question 333

transmembrane and embedded are considered

Answer 333

integral proteins- associated with interior of the plasma membrane

Question 334

membrane associated (peripheral) proteins

Answer 334

bound through electrostatic interactions with the lipid bilayer (at lipid rafters or transmembrane/embedded proteins) ex. G protein next to the GPCR signalling

Question 335

carbs

Answer 335

attached to the protein molecules on the extracellualr surface hydrophilic and with water can form coat around the cell signalling mc- antigens on rBC are sphingolipids that differ only in carbs sequence

Question 336

membrane receptors

Answer 336

transmembrane protons that activate or decactivate transporters in faciliatied diffusion or active transport ex. ligand gad ion chandelles are membrane receptors that are opened in response of binding by a ligand

Question 337

cell adhesion molecules

Answer 337

proteins that allow cell to recognize each other and contribue to proper cell differentiation adn development in cell to cell junctions, were times form a cohesive layer via intercellular junctions- pathways of communiation

Question 338

tigth junctions

Answer 338

prefent solutes from leaving into the space between cells via paracellular route epithelial cells limit permeable and create voltage difference based on ions on each side bands

Question 339

desmosomes

Answer 339

bind adjacent cells by anchoring to their cytoplasm interactions between transmembrane proteins and intermediate filaments inside decent cels epithetical cells

Question 340

hemidesmosomes

Answer 340

similar function to desmosomes but attach to epithelial cells to underline structures, like the basement membrane.

Question 341

gap junctions

Answer 341

intercellular transport of materials and do not prevent paracellular transport (between cells) of materials bunces around the cells

Question 342

passive transport

Answer 342

spontaneous processes that do not require energy | increase in entropy

Question 343

active transport

Answer 343

nonspotenous and require energy

Question 344

diffusion adn osmosis

Answer 344

increase in rate as temp increases

Question 345

simple diffusion

Answer 345

substrates move down their concentration gradient directly across the memrbane only particles permeable can do this diffusion

Question 346

osmosis

Answer 346

specific kind of simple diffusion that contains water | low solute to high solute water moves

Question 347

osmotic pressure

Answer 347

depends on concentrations of dissolved particles not on the chemical identity.

Question 348

primary active transport

Answer 348

uses ATP as an energy source for the movement o molecules against their concentration gradient transmembrane ATPase used

Question 349

secondary active transport

Answer 349

electrochemicl gradeint to power transport symbort- moves particles in same direction antiport- moves particles across cell membrane in opposite directions protons flow in power particle to move out - coupled

Question 350

the membrane potential is maintained

Answer 350

for a differece in the number of positively and negatively charges on either side of the membrane through the sodium and potassium pumps 3 Na out and 2 K in

Question 351

Nerst equation fo membrane potenail

Answer 351

E= RT/zF ln ion outiside/ion inside

Question 352

outer mito membrane

Answer 352

highly permeable because many large pores that allow the passage of ions and small proteins

Question 353

inner mito memrbane

Answer 353

``` restricted permeability . no cholesterol (which is diff than other membranes) no pH gradient between cytoplasm and intermemrbane space because the outer mito membrane has such high perm to biomolecules ```

Question 354

cytoskelton

Answer 354

3D web composed of proteins that are anchored to the cell membrane by embedded protein complexes

Question 355

strucureal proteins

Answer 355

collagen, Elastin, keratin, actin and tubulin | highly receptive secondary structures- motif

Question 356

collagen

Answer 356

3 left-handed helices woven together to form a secondary right handed helix make up extraceular matrix of connective tissue strength and flexibility

Question 357

elastin

Answer 357

extracellular matrix of connective tissue | stretch and recoil like a spring

Question 358

keratins

Answer 358

intermediate proteins found in epithelial cells mechanical integrity of the cell and also functions as regulatory proteins hair nails

Question 359

actin

Answer 359

protein that makes up microfilaments and the thin filaments in myofibrils. most abundant protein in eukaryote cells. positive and negative side- polarity allows motor proteins to travel unidirectionality along an actin filaments

Question 360

tubulin

Answer 360

protein that makes up microtubules - providing structure chromosome separation in mitosis and meiosis and intracellular transport with kinesis and dynein polarity like actin

Question 361

motor proteins

Answer 361

cilia and flagella, sperm | power the confromational change necessary for motor function with ATPase

Question 362

myosin

Answer 362

primary motor protein thatinteracts with actin thick filament in myofibril. cellular transport head and neck - sarcomere contraction

Question 363

kinesina dn dynenis

Answer 363

motor proteins associated with microtibueles 2 heads, 1 attached to tubulin at all times kinesin (aligning chromosome during metaphase and depolymerizing microtubules of anaphase) dyneins- sliding movement of cili and flagella kinesin brnings vesicle toward positive end of microtubules , as dyeing does move it toward negative end both a role in vesicle transport

Question 364

bindig ptoteins

Answer 364

hemoglobin, Ca binding proteins, DNA binding proteins (TF) stabilize functions trasport or sequester molecules by binding to them

Question 365

Cell adhesion molecules

Answer 365

CAMS. proteins found on the surface of most cells and aid in the binding the cell to the extarcellular matrix cadherins, interns, selectins

Question 366

cadherins

Answer 366

glycoproteins that mediate calcium dependent cell adhesion | hold similar cell types together- like epithethial cells

Question 367

integins

Answer 367

group of proteins the all have 2memrbane spacing chains called alpha dn beta communicating and binding with extracellular matrix cell signalling promote cell division, apop one cell to protein in exttracelliuar matrix

Question 368

selectin

Answer 368

bind to carb molecules that project from other cell surfqces weakest bonds formed by CMAS on WBC and endothelial cells that line blood vessels defense one cell to carb

Question 369

immunoglobulins

Answer 369

antibodies. rid thethe body of foreign invaders. proteins produced by B cells that function to neutralize targets in the body, such as toxins and bacteria, and then recruit other cells to help eliminate the threat. Y shaped made up of 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

Question 370

each antibody has an antigen binding region

Answer 370

at the tips of the Y- with pacify polypeptide sequences that will bind one and only one specific antigenic sequence.

Question 371

when antibodies bind to antigens they

Answer 371

neutralize the antigen, making the pathogen or toxin unable to exert its effect on the body marking the pathogen for destruction by other WBC - opsonization clumping together (aggregating) the antigen and antibody into large insoluble protein complexes that can be phagocytize and digested by macrophages.

Question 372

cytoskeleton vs motor proteins

Answer 372

cyto proteins tend t be fibrous with repeating domains, while motor proteins tend to have ATPase activity and binding heads. both function in cell motility.

Question 373

motor proteins are enzymes

Answer 373

they are proteins with catalytic activity through ATPase

Question 374

if the binding protein present is in rlly high quantities relative to the subtrate

Answer 374

binding can occur despite low affinity

Question 375

biosignalling

Answer 375

cells reciceve and act on signals. proteins can act like extracelularlihands, trnapodrters, recetepro proteins, second messengers. function in soubrette binding or enzymatic activity

Question 376

ion channels

Answer 376

create specific pathways for charged molecules ligand gated, undated Chanels and voltage gated channels all do facilitated diffusion

Question 377

facilitated difusion

Answer 377

a type of passive transport- diffusion of molecules down their concentration graident through a pore in the membrane created by a transmembrane proteins. used for molecules impeccable to the membrane (polar, charged, large)- avoid phobic tails of the bilayer

Question 378

ungated channels

Answer 378

have no gates and are therefore unregulated | ungated potassium channels- flow freely unless in equilibrium

Question 379

voltage gated channels

Answer 379

gate is regulated by the membrane potential change near the channel VG NA channels in neurons- closed during resting but membrane depolarization causes a protein conformation change that allows them to quickly open and close as voltage increases

Question 380

Ligand gated ion channels

Answer 380

the binding of a specific substance or ligand to the channel causes it to open or close. NT at post syn membranes- for ex. GABA binds to Cl- channel dn opens it

Question 381

enzyme linked receptors

Answer 381

catalytic activity in response to ligand binding protein domains: membrane spanning domain, a ligand-binding domain, catalytic domain auto activity

Question 382

membrane spanning domain

Answer 382

actors the receptor in cell memrbane

Question 383

ligand binding domatin

Answer 383

stimulated by liana and induces conformational change that activates the catalytic domain second messenger cascade

Question 384

G protein coupled receptors

Answer 384

large family of integral membrane protein involved in signal transduction heterotrimeric G protein GDP- GTP 2 protein complex

Question 385

Gs-

Answer 385

stimulates adenyl cyclase, which increases levels of cAMP in teh cell

Question 386

Gi

Answer 386

inhibits AC- decreases cAMP in teh cell

Question 387

Gq

Answer 387

activates phospholipase C mind your P and Q cleaved to form PIP2 which is cleaved to form DAG and IP3

Question 388

G protein subunits

Answer 388

inactive- alpha binds to GDP and with beta and gamma | activated- GDP goes to GTP and alpha dissoiaicate sand activates AC

Question 389

electrophoresis

Answer 389

moves compounds according to net charge and size migration velocity electric field negative moves to positive, etc

Question 390

polyacrylamide gel

Answer 390

medium for protein electrophoresis smaller particles pass through easier so move through farthest if small highly charged and in a huge electric field

Question 391

polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis PAGE

Answer 391

analyzing proteins in their native state limited by the varying mass to charge and mass to size ratios of cell proteins because multiple proteins may experience the same level of migration most useful in comparing size and charge of proteins known to be similar in size from other analytic methods like SDS Page or chromatography

Question 392

SDS PAGE

Answer 392

seperates proteins solely on molecular mass alone SDS- interrupts all non covalent interactions neutralize charge

Question 393

Isoelectric focusing

Answer 393

isoelectric point- the pH at which the protein or amino acid is electrically neutral, equal number of positive and negative charges zwitteroin - amino group protonated and carboxyl group is deproonated and side chainneutral

Question 394

chromatography

Answer 394

fractionated through a porous mixture | more similarr the compound is to its surroudnigns, the more it will stick to and slowly move (based on polarity, charge)

Question 395

column chromatography

Answer 395

size and polarity have a role in how quickly the compound moves through the beads or silica. less polar, faster it moves can be used to collect NA and other macromolecules

Question 396

in exchange chromatography

Answer 396

beads in the column are coated with charged substances so they attract or bind compounds that have opposite charge

Question 397

size exclusion chromatprghy

Answer 397

beads contain tiny pores of varying sizes- allow small compunds to enter the beads and slow them down. larger compounds will move around them adn travel through the column faster

Question 398

affinity chromatograpy

Answer 398

crating a column with high affinity for a certain protein | coat beads with certain receptor or antibody and protein can be retained

Question 399

X ray crystallography

Answer 399

NMR. determine proein structure | measures electron density

Question 400

Edman degreadation

Answer 400

uses cleavage enzymes to sequence proteins of up to 50-70 amino acids creates smaller fragments that can be analyzed by electrophoresis

Question 401

DNA

Answer 401

deoxyribose nucleic acid made of: nucleosides nucleotides

Question 402

nucleosides-

Answer 402

5 C sugar (pentose) bonded to a nitrogenous base and formed by covalently linking the base to C-1 of the sugar

Question 403

nucleotides

Answer 403

``` one of more phosphate groups are attached to C-5' of a nucleoside. adenosine di phosphate - ADP adenosine tri phosphate - ATP high E building blocks of DNA ```

Question 404

nucleic acids are classified based on their pentose they cotnain

Answer 404

if sugar is ribose, then RNA | if pentose is deoxyribose then DNA

Question 405

example of base, nucleoside , nucleotide

Answer 405

Adenine- adenosine- AMP, ADP, ATP | Guanine- Guanosine- GMP, GDP, GTP

Question 406

backbone of DNA

Answer 406

alternating sugar and phosphate groups also read 5-3 overall negative charge link nucleosides to 3-5 phosphodiesterase bond

Question 407

purines and pyrdimes are

Answer 407

aromatic- stable ring with cyclic, planar, conjugated (alternating single and multiple bonds)

Question 408

Watson and Crick model

Answer 408

A pairs with T (in DNA) or U (RNA) using 2 H bonds C pairs with G with 3 H bonds (stronger) antiparqaell eDNA sugar phosphate backboned with nitrogenous bases on the inside

Question 409

Chargaffs rule

Answer 409

the amount of A = T and then amount of C = G because of pairing ONLY FOR DNA

Question 410

3 structural difference between RNA and DNA

Answer 410

DNA double stranded, RNA single DNA thymine, RNA Uracil RNA ribose, DNA deoxyribose

Question 411

aromaticity of nucleic acids

Answer 411

stable! and unreactive | storing genetic infromationa dn avoiding sponteous munitions

Question 412

DNA wrapped in histones

Answer 412

chromatin | histones are a type of nucleoproteins- associated with DNA

Question 413

histone proteins

Answer 413

H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. H1 is not in histone core

Question 414

heterochromatin

Answer 414

dense packing, dark , silent transcriptional activity

Question 415

euchchromatin

Answer 415

not dense, light under microscope, activev

Question 416

repeat TTAGGG at the end of DNA

Answer 416

to form a telomere and avoid losing sequences and information when DNA replication telomere replaced by telomerase- highly expressed in dividing cells also high CG content and creates strong strong atttractions at the end of the chromosomes to prevent unraveling - same with centromeres

Question 417

Helicase

Answer 417

eukaryote and prok | unwinds DNA double helix

Question 418

single stranded DNA-binding protein

Answer 418

eukaryote and prok | prevents reannealing od NA double helix during replicaiton

Question 419

primase

Answer 419

eukaryote and prok | places about 10 nucleotide RNA primer to begin DNA replicaiton

Question 420

DNA polymerase 3

Answer 420

Prok | adds nucleotides to growing daughter strands 5-3

Question 421

DNA polymerase alpha

Answer 421

eukaryote | adds nucloetids to growing daughter strands 5-3

Question 422

DNA polymerase 1

Answer 422

prok | fill in gaps left behind after RNA primer excision

Question 423

RNase H

Answer 423

eukaryote | excises RNA primer and fill in gaps

Question 424

DNA ligase

Answer 424

eukaryote and prok | joins DNA strands between ozaraki fragments

Question 425

DNA topoisomerases

Answer 425

euk and prok reduce torsional strain from positive supercoils by introducing nicks in DNA strand supercoils- wrapping of DNA on itself as its helical structure is pushed ever further towards the teloemerases

Question 426

lagging strand is more prone to mutations

Answer 426

becuase cnstantly starts and stops the process of DNA replication more RNA primers that must be removed and filled with DNA

Question 427

telomeres

Answer 427

at the end of eukaryote chromosome and contain repetitive sequences of noncoding DNA. These protect the chromosome from losing important genes from the incomplete replication of the 5' end

Question 428

cancer

Answer 428

able to divide without stimulation from toher cells and no longer subject to controls on cell life.

Question 429

metasis

Answer 429

a migration to distant tissues by the blood stream or lympathetic syste

Question 430

oncogenes

Answer 430

code for cell cycle related proteins- proton-oncogene when mutated , protooncogene- becomes an oncogene promoting rapid cell cycling stepping o the gas pedal

Question 431

antioncogenes

Answer 431

encode proteins that inhibit the cell cycle or participate in DNA repair processes and stop tumor progression

Question 432

tumor suppressing genes code for

Answer 432

repair or cell cycle inhibitign proteins the mutated, cell cycle is allowed to proceed unchecked cutting the breaks to your car

Question 433

proofreading

Answer 433

parent strand is rlly methylated daughter strand is barely methylated DNA polymerase can distinguish between the 2 strands

Question 434

repair mechanisms for proofreading

Answer 434

DNA polymerase - S Mismatch repair- G2- MSH2, MLH1 nucleotide excision repair- G1, G2- excision in endonuclease- cut and patch (corrects legions large enough to distort the double helix) base excision repair- G1, G2- glucosylase, AP endonuclease enzyme- remove damage (corrects lesion pairs that are small enough not to distort double helix)

Question 435

genomic libraries

Answer 435

all of the DNA in an organism's genome, including noncoding regions studyign DNA introns, centromeres and telomeres useful

Question 436

cDNA libaeies

Answer 436

only include expressed genes from a given tissue- can be used to express recombinent proteins or to perform gene therapy

Question 437

PCR

Answer 437

increases the number of copies of a given DNA sequence and can be used for a sample containing very few copies of the DNA sequence.

Question 438

southern blotting

Answer 438

useful when the searchign for a particular DNA sequence because it separates DNA fragments by length and then probes for a sequence of interest

Question 439

Dioyribonucleotides

Answer 439

lack the 3--OH group that is required for DNA strand elongation. thus, once dideoxyribonucleotide is added to a growing DNA molecule no more molecules can be added because no OH group to form a bond with

Question 440

transgenic mice

Answer 440

gene introduced through their germ line or embryonic stem cells to look at the effect of the gene study dominant allies knockout mice- gene has been removed

Question 441

emulsificaion

Answer 441

mixing of 2 normally immesicble things (fats and water)

Question 442

digestion of fats

Answer 442

fats consists of triglyecdies, cholesterol, cholesterol esters. phospholipids, fatty acids transported to Small intestine essentially intact because stomach does not break them down. Upon entry, emsulication occurs which increases surface area of the lipid and permits greater enzyme interaction and processing aided by bile secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. pancreatic lipase, foliage and cholesterol esterase into SI by the pancreas and hydrolyze the lipid components absorption then occurs in SI by intestinal cells- create micelles (clusters of amphipathic lipids that are soluble in aqueous environment of the intestinal lumen-water solubale head and lipid soluable interior)

Question 443

all lipids enter ciruculation

Answer 443

directly

Question 444

a fall in insulin levels activate

Answer 444

hormone sensitize lipase (HSL)- in adipose tissue- that hydrolyzes triacylglycerdies , yielding fatty acid and glyercerol. Epi and cortisol can also activate HSL glycerol from fat may be transported to the liver for glycolysis or glucneogenesis

Question 445

LPL (lipoprotein lipase)

Answer 445

enzyme that can release fatty acids from trigyercerols in lipoproteins

Question 446

an increase insulin levels

Answer 446

increase lipidd storage and decrease lipid mobilization from adipocytes leading to weight gain with people who take insuli

Question 447

the ratio of free fatty acid to glycerol is

Answer 447

3:1triglycerol molecule is made up of a glycerol and 3 FA

Question 448

triglycerides and cholesterol transported through the blood as

Answer 448

lipoproteins- aggregate of apolioprotieins and lipids

Question 449

free FA in teh body transported by:

Answer 449

bonding to albumin and other carrier proteins. a much smaller amount will remain unbonded

Question 450

chylomicrons

Answer 450

highly soluable in both lymphatic fluid and blood and function in the transport of dietary trigylcerides, cholesterol adn cholesterol esters to other tissues. in intestinal lining

Question 451

VLDL

Answer 451

very low density lipoproteins produced and assembled in the liver same function as chylomicrons- transport of triglycerides to other tissues also contains FA synthesized from excess glucose or remnants of chylomicron

Question 452

IDL

Answer 452

intermediate density lipoproteins once triglyceride is removed from VLDL, particle named this. either absorbed by liver by apoloiopoproteins on its exterior or bloodstream transition particle

Question 453

greatest percentage of proteins to least perceptages of proteins for lipoproteins

Answer 453

HDL>LDL>IDL>VLDL>chylomicrons

Question 454

liporpteosin syntheize by the liver and intestine

Answer 454

ys

Question 455

LDL

Answer 455

low density lipoprcholesterol!!! deliver chol to issues for biosynthesis and steroid synthesis and plays a role in cell memrbanes

Question 456

HDL

Answer 456

high density liporptoeins proteins synthesized int eh liver and intesines and released as dense protein particle in blood\clean up excess chol from blood vessels excretion a good chol

Question 457

apolioproproteins

Answer 457

form the protein component of lipoproteins | receptor moleucles involved with signaling

Question 458

chol is either synthesized from LDL and HDL or by de novo

Answer 458

de novo- in iver ad driven by acetyl coA and AT

Question 459

synthesis of mevalonic acid in SER during chol biosynethsis is the

Answer 459

rate limiting step. Cataluyzed by HMG

Question 460

transport of chol

Answer 460

LCAT and CETP

Question 461

LCAT

Answer 461

found in teh bloodtserm and activated by HDL | adds a Fa to chol- catalyzes the esterification of chol to form cholesterol esters.

Question 462

CETP

Answer 462

promotes the transfer of cholesterol esters from HDL to IDL forming LDL

Question 463

saturated FA

Answer 463

no double bonds

Question 464

Unsaturated FA

Answer 464

double bonds

Question 465

steps of attachment of acetyl COa to a FA

Answer 465

1. attach Fa to acyl carrier protein 1. bond formation between molecules 3. reduction of carbonyl group 4. dehyrdation 5. reduction of double bond

Question 466

nontemplate synthesis

Answer 466

lipids and carbs because they do not rely on DNA coding like proteins and NA synthesis

Question 467

FA biosynthesis

Answer 467

in liver tranported to adipose tissue for storage stimulated by insulin palmitic acid is the primary end product of FA synthesis

Question 468

fatty acids are synthesized in the

Answer 468

cytoplasm and modififed by enzymes in the SER

Question 469

b oxidation in unsaturated FA has a

Answer 469

additional isomerase adn reductase which provide the stereochemistry for further oxidation

Question 470

FA degradtiona

Answer 470

results in large amounts of acetyl CO which cannot enter the gluconeogenic pathway to produce glucose only odd number FA can act as a source of C for gluconeogenesis, eveb- malonyl COA energy is packed into keto bodies for consumption by brain adn muscle

Question 471

ketogenesi

Answer 471

favored by prolonged fast and occurs in the liver | stimulated by increasing concentrations of acetyl COA/

Question 472

proteins are more valueable in the cell than

Answer 472

lipids adn therefore not broken doen during lipid synthesis

Question 473

protein digestion occurs in

Answer 473

small intetine

Question 474

fertiliztion

Answer 474

secondary oocyte is ovulated from the follicle on Day 14 of menstruel cycle- ravels up Fallopian tube where it can be fertilized 24 hours after ovulation. occurs in the ampulla of the Fallopian tube sperm that comes into contact with oocyte forms a acrosomal apparatus, which extends to penetrate teh cell membrane. then release cortical reaction, a release of Ca ions which depolarize the membrane of the ovum and can prevent fertilization of ovum by multi sperm cells and can increase the metabolic rate of the newly formed zygote. The now depolarized and impermeable membrane is called fertilization membrane

Question 475

dizygotic twins

Answer 475

dizygotic (fraternal) twins- form from fertilization of two different eggs being release during one ovulatory cycle by two different sperm. Each implant into wall and develop its own placenta, chorion and amnion. No moree genetically similar than siblings

Question 476

monozygotic twin

Answer 476

identical. when as single zygote splits into 2 genetic material is identical if division incomplete- conjoined twins- physically attached

Question 477

Cleavage

Answer 477

after fertilization in the Fallopian tube, zygote myst travel to uterus for implantation. On teh way, undergoes rapid mitotic cell division (cleavage) 1st cleave- creates unicellulaeity increase area for gas and nutrient exchange relative to volume with these many divisions.

Question 478

two types of cleavage

Answer 478

intermediate and determinate

Question 479

indeterminate

Answer 479

results in cells that can still develop not complete organisms. Monozygotiv twins have identical genomes because they both originate rom indeterminate cleavage of the same embryo.

Question 480

determinate cleave

Answer 480

results in cells with fates that are already determined | committing to differntiating into a certain type of cell.

Question 481

order of devlopment

Answer 481

zygote-- emrbyo--morula (slid mass of cells)-- blastula (a hollow ball of cells with a fluid filled inner cavity-- cells give rice to the plata and also organisms)--gatrula

Question 482

implanation occurs in teh

Answer 482

blastula - moves through the Fallopian tube to the uterus and burrows into the endometrium trophoblastic cells--- chorine (extra embryo membrane that develops into placenta) embryo connected to placenta via umbilical cord (2 Arteries- waste and deoxuegnationed O2- 1 vein- oxygen and nutient)

Question 483

gastrulation

Answer 483

the formation fo 3 distinct cell layers

Question 484

germ layer:

Answer 484

ectoderm- epidermis hair nails, epithelia of nose, hair mouth, lens of eye mesoderm- musckosletoal , circulatory. gonads, connective tissue, adrenal corex endoderm- epithelial lining of digestive and respirtory tracts and pancreas, thyroid, bladder

Question 485

inductioon

Answer 485

nearby cells influence at the differeation of adjacent cells. ensures proper spatial location and origination of cells that share a function or have complementary functions

Question 486

neural crest cells

Answer 486

become the PNS - including the sensory ganglia, autonomic ganglia, adrenal medulla and Schwann cells) as well as specific cell type sin other tissues (calcitonin producing cells in thyroid)

Question 487

determination

Answer 487

committment of a cell to a particular lineage

Question 488

differetiation

Answer 488

refers tot eh actual change that occurs in order for the cell to assyme the structure and function of the determined cell type.

Question 489

totipotency

Answer 489

any cell type in the deveoping embryo (primary germ layers) to in extraembryonic tissues (anion, chorion, placenta)

Question 490

pluripotency

Answer 490

any cell type in the developing emyro- primary germ layer

Question 491

mulitpotency

Answer 491

any cell type with a particular lineage (hematopoietic stem cells)

Question 492

autocrine

Answer 492

the signal acts on teh same cell that secretd it

Question 493

paracrine

Answer 493

the signal acts on a local cell

Question 494

juxtacrine

Answer 494

a cell triggers adjacent cells through direct receptor stimulation

Question 495

endorcirn

Answer 495

signal travels via the bloodstream to act on cells at distant sites

Question 496

apoptosis

Answer 496

programmed cell death and resulte din contained blebs of the dead cell that can be picked up adn digested by other cells.

Question 497

necrosis

Answer 497

cell death de to injure and reuslts in spiling cytoplasmic contents

Question 498

the umbilical cord

Answer 498

carris deoxygenated blood.

Question 499

the umbilicl vein

Answer 499

carries oxygenated blood

Question 500

foramen ovale shunt

Answer 500

right atrium to L atrium instead of R ventricle higher pressure so pump blood? revereses when give birth bypass lungs

Question 501

doctor arterioles shunts

Answer 501

shunts leftover blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta. - bypass lungs

Question 502

ductus venosus

Answer 502

shunts blood returning from the placenta via the umbilical cord directly into the inferior vena cava- bypass liver

Question 503

first trimester

Answer 503

organogenesis occurs | develop eyes, heart, gonads, limbs, liver, brain

Question 504

secondary trimester

Answer 504

lots of growth- movement begins | face is human and fingers/toes elongate

Question 505

third trimester

Answer 505

rapid growth and brain development contnue and antibodeis to the fetus

Question 506

first phase of birth

Answer 506

cervix things out and amniotic sac ruptures

Question 507

second phase of birth

Answer 507

uterine contractions, coordinated by prostaglandins and oxytocin, result in birth of the fetus

Question 508

third phase of birth

Answer 508

placenta nad umbilical cord are birthed

Question 509

membrane lipids are amiphatic

Answer 509

hydrophilic (polar head) and hydrophobic regions (fatty acid tails) form micelles when in aqueous solutions.

Question 510

fatty acid tails

Answer 510

form the bulk of the phospholipid bilayer and play a structural role. memrbane lipids have constant exposure to the exterior environment (either inside or outside the cell) and degree of unsaturation can play a functional role.

Question 511

phospholipids

Answer 511

a phisphate and aclcohol polar head group and a hydrophobic tail by phosphodiester bonds. varying backbones classify them furhter- glycerol and sphingosine

Question 512

saturated

Answer 512

only single bonds no pi bonds butter stable

Question 513

unsaturated

Answer 513

one or more doule bonds kinks difficult to stay adn solidify and thereffore are liquid at room temo olive oil

Question 514

glycerophospholipids

Answer 514

phospholipids that contain a glycerol back bonded by ester linkages to 2 FA tails and a phosphodiester linkage to a polar head group cell recognition, signaling, binding

Question 515

sphinglipids

Answer 515

blood typin on RBC antigen (the spingholipid) have a spinghospine backboned and long chain FA non polar tails and polar head groups ceramide- H as a head group if has a phosphodiester bond- a phospholipid nonphospholipid sphingolipids include glycolipids- with a glycosidic linkage to sugar

Question 516

sphingomyeline

Answer 516

phospholipid with phosphatideylethanolamine adn phosphatidylcholine as functional groups

Question 517

glycosphingolipid

Answer 517

glycolipid with sugars as functional groups

Question 518

gangioside

Answer 518

glycolipid oligiosaccaradies and NANA as functional groups have a polar head group and functional groups

Question 519

waxes

Answer 519

esters of long chain FA with long chin alc

Question 520

terpenes

Answer 520

class of lipids built from isoprene moieties and share a common structural pattern with carbons grouped in multiple of five diterpene- 20 C molecules. one terpene is made from 2 isoprene units, each of which have 5 C

Question 521

steroids

Answer 521

``` defined by its structure- includes 3 cyclohexane ring and a cyclopentane ring oxidation state of the rings = function a steroid H is a molecule within this class but also functions as a hormone, meaning that it travels in teh bloodstream, is active at low concentrations, has high affinity for receptors adn affects gene expression adn metabolism ```

Question 522

prostaglandins

Answer 522

regulate the synthesis of cAMP which is involved in many pathways includign ones that drive pain adn inflammation

Question 523

vitamins

Answer 523

A- carotene- retinal (vision), as retionic acid (epithelial development), growth and mine unsaturated hydrocarbon D- cholecalicerfol -as calcitriol (calcium and phosphate regulation) - UV with skin. in kidney and liver adn promote bone production by uptake of calcium decrease= rickets E- tocopherols- antioxidants, using aromatic rings lipids, hydrophobic destroy free radicals helps with cancer and aging K- phylloquinione and menaquinone- posttranslational modifcations of prothrombin, addition of calcium bindign sites on many proteins clotting in blood

Question 524

human body stores E as

Answer 524

glycogen and triacylgerols. Triacylglycerols are preferred because their carbons are more reduced, resulting in larger amount of E yield per unit weight. They are also hydrophobic so no extra weight from water

Question 525

triacylglycerols

Answer 525

triacylglycerides AKA. composed of glycerol backbone sterfried to 3 FA used to E storage esters bonds are broken to form a glycol molecule and salts of FA non polar and phobic

Question 526

sponification

Answer 526

ester hydrolysis of triacylglycerols using a strong base | FA leave and NA and glycerol- soap

Question 527

soaps dissolve in water bc

Answer 527

their amphiphatic free FA salts form micelles with hydrophobic FA tails toward the center and carboxylate groups facing outward toward the water. Fat soluble particles can then dissolve inside micelles the soap water solution and wash away.

Question 528

lungs are located in the

Answer 528

thoracic cavity: the structure used to perform breathing

Question 529

gas exchange in the lungs

Answer 529

air enters the respiratory tract through the external nares of nose, pass through nasal cavity adn filtered by mucous membranes and nasal hairs. Then passes through pharynx (behind nasal- food to esophagus and air to lungs) and larynx (below the pharynx and solely air). Opening of the larynx (glottis) has the epiglottis during swallowing to block food from going to the respiratory tract. From larygyn, our passes into the trachea and then one of the 2 bronchi.

Question 530

bronchi adn trachea contain

Answer 530

cilitated epithelial cells to catch material that made it past mucous memranes

Question 531

bronchi divide into smaller structures

Answer 531

bronchioles---> alveoli (small balloon like structures)

Question 532

alvelio

Answer 532

coated with a surfactant - lowers Surface tension and prevents alveoli from collpasing on itself. capillaries surroudn alveoli to cary O2 and CO2

Question 533

pleurea

Answer 533

surround each lung and forms a closed sac against which the lungs expand

Question 534

lungs require skeletal muscle to

Answer 534

generate the negative pressure for expansion-- diaphragm (thin, muscular structure that divides the chest cavity fro the abdominal cavity)

Question 535

inhalation

Answer 535

use diaphragm and external intercostal muscles to expand the thoracic cavity.AS the diaphragm flattens and the chest wall expands, the intrathoraic volume increases (and a decrease in pressure)

Question 536

exhalation

Answer 536

relax extneral inercostal muscle and diaphragm, chest cavity decreases in volume, pressure increases by Boyles Law and air is pushed out active exhalation uses abdominal msucles and internal intercostal muscles

Question 537

vital capacity

Answer 537

sum of the inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume and tidal volume VC = IRV + ERV + TV

Question 538

when CO2 levels are too low

Answer 538

brain can decrease teh respiratory rate in order to raise CO2 levels

Question 539

total lung capacity (TLC)

Answer 539

max volume of air in teh lungs when one completely inhales

Question 540

residual volume (RV)

Answer 540

volume of air remainig in the lungs when one exhales completely

Question 541

TV tidal volume

Answer 541

volume of the air inhaled or exhaled on. normal breath

Question 542

expiratory reserve volume ERv

Answer 542

volume of additional air that can be forcible exhaled after normal exhalaion

Question 543

inspiratory reserve volume

Answer 543

IRV. volume of additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inhalation

Question 544

ventiltion

Answer 544

regulated by neurons in the medulla (called the ventiliation center) - regular contractions of respiratory muscles . contain chemoreceptors that are sensitize to CO2 concentration

Question 545

As CO@ increase (hypercarbia)

Answer 545

resp rate increases so more CO2 is exhaled and leave blood

Question 546

capillaries around alvelpoi

Answer 546

bring deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary Arties, which originate from teh R ventricle of the heart. Thin walls so diffusion of CO2 from the blood into the lungs and O2 into teh blood is easy. O@ blood returns to left atrium of the heart via pulmonary veins

Question 547

thermoregulation

Answer 547

regulation of body temp vasodilatin adn vaso contrición of blood vessels expand- more blood pass through- thermal energy dissipated (lost)

Question 548

immuen defenses in lungs

Answer 548

vibrissae in th nares/nasal cavity (small hairs that trap infectious particles), lysozyme in the mucous membranes Enzyme in nasal and tears and salivia- attack walls of pathogens), muscociliary escalator (propel mucus up thehe respiratory tract to the oral cavity), macrophages in the lungs (engulf and signal other immune responses there is an invader) and muscele IgA anibodies and mast cells (antibodies on their surfaces- when aothogen binds, release inflammatory chemicals that promote immune)

Question 549

respirtory play a role in bicarbonate buffer system

Answer 549

CO2 + H20 --> H2CO3 --> H+ + HCO3- body attempts to maintain a pH between 7.35 and 7.45 when pH is lower, H+ concentration is higher (academia) and increase repository rate via acid sensing chemorecetpros to teh brain greater CO2

Question 550

if blood is too basic

Answer 550

alkalemia- boddy will seek to increase acidity- respirtory rate is slowed, CO2 retained, shifting buffer equation to the R and producing more H+ and bicarb ions and Lowe pH

Question 551

two types of digestion- intracellular

Answer 551

intracellular (metabolism- involves the oxidation of glucose and fatty acids for Energy extracted from our foods)

Question 552

extracellular digestion

Answer 552

the process by which nutrients are obtained from food occurs within the lumen of the alimentary canal (mouth to anus- sectioned off by sphincters or circular smooth muscle around teh canal that allows compartilization)

Question 553

digestion

Answer 553

involves the breakdown of food into its continuent organic molecules - starches and other carbs into monosaccharides, lipids (fats) into FA and glycerol, proteins into AA. subdivided into mechanical and chemical processes

Question 554

mechanical digestion

Answer 554

physical breakdown of large food particles into small food particles, not involved with breaking chemical bonds

Question 555

chemical digestion

Answer 555

enzymatic cleave of chemical bonds such as peptide bonds of proteins

Question 556

absorption

Answer 556

invovlesx the transport products of digestion from teh digestive tract into teh circulatory system for distribution

Question 557

digestive tract

Answer 557

begins with oral cavit (mouth) followed by the pharynx (food and air entering ), then esophagus which transports to stomach. stomach to small intestine and then large adn then waste enters rectum where feces are stored until released. salicary glands, pancreas, liver, and gallbladder produce enzymes and lubrication needed to aid in this processq

Question 558

enteric nervous system

Answer 558

govern GI system neurons trigger peristalsis, or rhythm conractios of the gut tube, to move materials through the system. regulated by autonomic NS.

Question 559

parasympathetic for digestion

Answer 559

stimulation of digestive activities, increasing secretions from exocrine glands and promotoing perstalisis

Question 560

sympathetic for digestion

Answer 560

inhibiotion of these activities - slows digestion

Question 561

hromones invlolved with feeding

Answer 561

ADH (antidieturitc/vasopressin) and aldosterone- sensatin of thirst is triggered glucagon- secreted by pancreas and gherkin- secreted by stomach- stimulate hunger feelings leptin and cholecystokinin- feelings of full

Question 562

mastication

Answer 562

- helps increase SA of food for enzyme digestion

Question 563

oral cavity

Answer 563

both mechanical (chewing) and chemical digestion

Question 564

Saliva

Answer 564

chemical digestion by moistening and lubrciating food stimulate parasympthatic NS salivary amylase (hydrolyzing starch into smaller sugars), and lipase (catalyzes the hydrolysis of lipids)

Question 565

pharynx

Answer 565

mouth to posterior nasal cavity to the esophagus divided into 3 parts food cannot enter larynx by epiglottis

Question 566

esophagus

Answer 566

connects pharynx to the stomach top is under voluntary control - sketlal muscle bttom- involuntary control- smooth muscle top is under voluntary control muscles, bottom is autonomic

Question 567

the stomach can be divided into 4 divison

Answer 567

funds and body - gastric glands antrum and pylorus- pyloric glands upper L quadrant of abd. Uses HCL and enzymes to digest food, harsh environment lining of stomach- rugae

Question 568

the muscoa of the stomach contains gastric glands and pyloric glands

Answer 568

gastric glands- responds to signals from the vagus nerve of the parasympathetic system , whic is activated by sight, taste adn smell of food

Question 569

gastric glands cell types

Answer 569

mucous cells, chief cells and parietal cells

Question 570

mucous cells

Answer 570

produce the bicarbonate rich muscus that protects the muscular wall/lining (from the ph=2) and increases acidic and proteolytic environment of teh stomach

Question 571

cheif cell

Answer 571

secrete pepsinogen (inactive form of pepsin, a proteolytic enzyme).

Question 572

parietal cells

Answer 572

Secretes H+ from secreting HCL and cleave pepsinogen to pepsin. Pepsin digests proteins by cleaving peptide bonds near aromatic amino acids, resultign in short peptide fragments. Activated by teh acidic environment (low ph) HCL decreases pH, kills microbes , dentures poteins, carries out some chemical digestion intrinsic factors: absorption of vitamin B12

Question 573

plyrouc cells contain the G cells

Answer 573

secretes gastrin, a peptide H, which increases HCL production adn gastric motility (mixing in stomach)by stimulating parietal cells results in chyme- acidic semi fluid mixture

Question 574

ADH and adlosteron

Answer 574

trigger sensation of thrist

Question 575

glucagon an ghrelin

Answer 575

stimulate feelings of hunger.

Question 576

leptin and cholecystokinin

Answer 576

simulte fullness

Question 577

reversal of peristatlysis

Answer 577

vommitting/emesis

Question 578

swallowing

Answer 578

initated by the muscles in the oropharynx, which constitute the upper esophageal sphincter.

Question 579

digestion of carbs and fats

Answer 579

initate in the mouth by enzymes but minimal

Question 580

gastric juice

Answer 580

combination of secretion from chief cells and parental cells

Question 581

acidic environment of stomach

Answer 581

kills most harmful bacteria and helps denature proteins and break down bonds that hold food together

Question 582

small intestine has

Answer 582

dueodenum, jejunum and ilium

Question 583

duodunum

Answer 583

responsible for majority of chemical digestion and a lil bit in absorption (the other 2 parts mostly)

Question 584

food leaves stomach through

Answer 584

pyloric sphincter and enters duodenum. Chyme in duodenum causes the release of Bursh border enzymes like disarrachridases (break down carbs)(maltase, lactase) and peptidases (break down proteins). Break down so that are absorbable monomers.

Question 585

dueodum secretes

Answer 585

enteropeptidase - involved in teh activation of other digestive enzymes from teh accessory organs of digestion also secretes secretin and cholecystokinin into the bloodstream

Question 586

disarracidases

Answer 586

``` digest diasaccrahides maltase- maltose isomaltase- isomaltose lactase- lactose sucrase- sucrose if not break down- intestines hydrolyze disaccharide and produce methane gas and can cuse diarrhea by pulling water into teh stool explains lactose intolerant ```

Question 587

peptidases

Answer 587

break down proteins aminopepidase- pepidase secreted by the glands in the duodenum that removes the N terminal amino acid from a protein dipeptides- cleave peptide bond of dipeptides to release free AA broken down into di and tri peptides and absorbed through intestine wall (not monomers)

Question 588

enteropeptidase

Answer 588

an enzyme critic for the activation of trypsinogen, a pancreatic protease, to trypsin. Trypsin then intiates a an activation cascade

Question 589

secretin

Answer 589

hormone that increases pancreatic secretions esp bicarbonate , reduces HCL secretions and decreases motility

Question 590

cholecystokinin

Answer 590

hormone that recruits secretions from gallbladder adn pancreases,promotes satiety. secreted in response to chyme in duodenum stimulates release of both bile and pancreatic juices

Question 591

bile salts

Answer 591

``` derived from cholesterol faciliate chemical digestion in lipids emusilfy fats an chol into micelles so they are accessible to pancreatic lipase mechanical digestion of fats increase SA ```

Question 592

pancreatic juices

Answer 592

bicarb rick alkaline solution with enzymes bicarb helps neutralize acidic chyme and provide a good working environment for digestive enzymes digest carbs fats and proteins

Question 593

pancreatic lipase

Answer 593

chemical digestion (pancreatic lipase) by breaking ester bonds of fats

Question 594

pancreas

Answer 594

endocrine and exocrine functions endocrine- release of insulin, glucagon, somatostatin- maintenance of blood sugar levels exocrine- made up of acing cells that produce pancreatic juices - bicarb rich alkaline secretions containing many digestive enzmes that work on all 3 classes of biomolecules

Question 595

pancratic amylase

Answer 595

breaks down large polysaccharides into small disaccrhaires and is therfore esponsbiel for carb digestion

Question 596

pancreatic peptidases

Answer 596

trypsinogen, chemotrypsinogen and carboxypeptidases A and B are respomsble for protein digetion enteropeptidase- trypsinogen to trypsin which activation other zymogens (above) and also procarboxypeptidase

Question 597

pancreatic lipase

Answer 597

break down fats to FA and glycerol

Question 598

bile

Answer 598

composed of bile salts (amphipathic molecules derived from chol that emulsify fats), pigments (bilirubin from the breakdown of hemoglobin secreted into bile for excertion- if not- result in jaundice) and chol

Question 599

bile ducts connect liver with

Answer 599

gallbladder adn SI | bile is produced in teh liver and travels down bile ducts to be stored int eh gallbladder

Question 600

liver

Answer 600

processes nutrients (through glycogenesis and glyconeolysis) , produces urea, detoxifies chemicals, activates or inactivates meds, produces bile, synthesis albumin (pressure in vessels and carries drugs)and clotting facotrs

Question 601

gallbldder

Answer 601

stores adn concentrates bile release of CCK releases bile chol and bilirubin sone formation= inflammation of gall bladder

Question 602

accessory organs of digestion originate from

Answer 602

the primary germ layer embryonic endoderm

Question 603

jejunum an ilium

Answer 603

involed in absorption

Question 604

vili

Answer 604

increase SA for absotopion on SI epithelial lining small finger like projections capillary bed for absotopion of water soluable nutients and a lacteal - a lympathic channel that takes up fats for transports into teh sympathetic system

Question 605

simple sugars- glucose, fructose , amino acids

Answer 605

absorbed through secondary actie transport and faciliated diffusionn into the epithelial cells lining the SI then move across lining to intenesitional capillarities - blood carries these molecuels away creates a concentration gradient such that blood has lower concentration of sugars and AA then inside epithelial cells so they can diffuse across to capilarries go to liver via heptic portal circulation

Question 606

fats

Answer 606

follow the same process as carbs and aa by diffucing directly into the capillaries no transportes bc nonpolar larger fats break apart and then reform after going across packaged into chylomicrons and enter lumpathic cirucltion (not blood) through lacteals - enter venous circulation

Question 607

vitamins

Answer 607

``` absorved in SI fat soluable (A, D, E K) or water soluable (B and C) ```

Question 608

large intestine

Answer 608

cecum (accepts fluids from SI- has to do with appendix), colon (absorb water and salt from undigested material from SI), rectum (storage site for feces) absorb water is main job, bu SI actually absorb more water- watery dirrhea more liely to be SI problem than large

Question 609

excretory system

Answer 609

serves many functions, including the regulation of blood pressure, blood osmolarity, acid-base balance adn removal of nitrous waste. kidney, ureters, bladder adn urthtra

Question 610

kidney

Answer 610

nephron- empathy to renal pelvis and form the ureter adn urine travels through the ureter to the bladder

Question 611

kidney structure

Answer 611

cortex - outmost layer- and medulla | portal system- 2 cap beds in series through which blood must travel before returning to the heart

Question 612

portal system in kidney

Answer 612

renal artery branches out , passes through medulla and enters cortex as aafferent arterioles. capillaries derievd from these arterioles are known as glomeruli. after blood passes through glomeruli, efferent arterioles form a second cap bed around the loop of henle (known as vasa recta)--- renal vein

Question 613

Bowmans capulsa

Answer 613

around glomerus proximal convoluted tubule-- descending and ascending limbs of loop of henle-- distal convoluted tubule adn collecting duct-- renal pelvis - ureter -- bladder- urethra

Question 614

parasympathetic causes

Answer 614

contraction of detrusor muscle (bladder lining)

Question 615

filtration

Answer 615

the movement of solutes from the blood into filtrate at bowmans capsule. nephron function

Question 616

secreation

Answer 616

is the movement of solutes from the blood into filstrate anywhere besides bowmans campulse nephron secrete salts acid bases and urea

Question 617

reabsorption

Answer 617

the movement of solutes from filtrate into teh blood | glucose, AA, vitamins

Question 618

bowmans capulse

Answer 618

site of filtration, through which water, ions and AA and vitamin and glucose all pass (everythign besides cell and proteins)

Question 619

proximal convoluted tubule

Answer 619

controls solute identity , reabsorbing vitamins, AA and glucose, while secreting potassium adn hydrogen ions, ammonia and urea

Question 620

the desendign limb of loop of henle

Answer 620

water reabsorption and concentration graident used (medullary)

Question 621

ascending limb of loop of hnele

Answer 621

salt reabsorption and dilution of urine in the diluting segment

Question 622

distal convoluted tubile

Answer 622

solute indentity in reabsorbign salts while secreting potassium and hydrogen ions, ammonia an durea

Question 623

collecting ducts

Answer 623

urien concentrations - variable permeability allows water to be reabsorbs based on needs of the body

Question 624

aldosterone

Answer 624

sterioid hormone that is secrete by the adrenal cortex in response to decreased blood pressure

Question 625

skin layers (deep to superifical

Answer 625

hypodermis (subcutaneous), dermis, epidermis

Question 626

keratinocytes

Answer 626

primary cells of the epidermis- produce keratin- resistant to damage and provide protection against injury, water and pathogen

Question 627

layers of epidermis (superifical to deep)

Answer 627

stratum: coreneum (flat keratinocytes- forming a barrier that prevents invasion of athogens and prevents loss of fluid), lucidum (thick hairless skin like palm, granulosum (the kertaincyte die and lose their nuclei), spinous (site of langerhand cells - antigens to T cells to activate immune), basale ( stem cells and keratinocytes )

Question 628

dermis layers

Answer 628

papillary layer - loose connectieve tissue. below this is the reticular layer. sweat glands, blood vessel and hair follicles originate in dermis and sensory receptors

Question 629

body cool itself through

Answer 629

vasodilation (blood to skin to help with evaporation) adn sweating (autonomic - evaporation of water from teh skin which absorbs body heat

Question 630

body warms itself through

Answer 630

vasoconstriction, ploerection (hairs stand up- trap heat) adn shivering

Question 631

`information travels from the CNS to periphery

Answer 631

cerebral cortex- spinal cord- efferent neurons- interneneurons- motor neurons- muscle tissues

Question 632

take information to the CNS

Answer 632

afferent nerves

Question 633

relay instructions from the CNS

Answer 633

efferent neurons

Question 634

sensory and motor nerves either connect to the spinal cord

Answer 634

spinal erves

Question 635

senosry and motor nerves connect directly into the skull

Answer 635

cranial nerves

Question 636

osmoreceptors

Answer 636

respond to the osmolarity of blood

Question 637

LDOPA

Answer 637

increases dopamine concentration as it is the precursor to dopamine , nor and epi

Question 638

GABA

Answer 638

hyperpolarizes cells to reduce action potential firing

Question 639

glycine

Answer 639

inhibitory NT found in the spinal cord adn brainstem

Question 640

parkinsons

Answer 640

loss of dopamine in sub nigra

Question 641

endorphins

Answer 641

suppress pain and produce euphoria

Question 642

serotonin

Answer 642

effects intestinal movement in teh GI

Question 643

muscle activation requires releases of

Answer 643

CA from sacroplastic reiculum

Question 644

depolirzation

Answer 644

characterized by a rapid influx o Na+ into the neuron

Question 645

action porential

Answer 645

-70 mV --> -55 mV if excitatory stimulus is strong enough and then depolarize and Na rush into cell til +40 mV, in which the Na channels close adn K+ channels open (rush in to out) and cause repolarization and back past -70 mV (replication) called hte refractory period

Question 646

action potentials start at the

Answer 646

axon hillock and move down teh axon towards the synapse

Question 647

spinal cord transection

Answer 647

condition in which the nerves that run inside the vertebral column are damaged. This interrupts the conduction of efferent signals that cause the motor evoked potentials

Question 648

cross sectional studies

Answer 648

investigate a population at a single point in time, lookin for predictive relationships among variables show correlations, not causations need to look at changes overtime to assess whether a cause and effect relationship is present

Question 649

experimental design

Answer 649

manipulating a certain variable to see what effect it has

Question 650

negative controls

Answer 650

treatments with no effect

Question 651

positive controls

Answer 651

treatments that are known to have a certain effect and can be used to assess whether the experimental metholody was sound

Question 652

confouding variabls

Answer 652

external variables affecting both the IV and DV

Question 653

moderating vaiabls

Answer 653

strengthen or weaken relationship | if you have high SES

Question 654

mediating

Answer 654

link between IV and DV

Question 655

nonoverlapping error bars

Answer 655

significant difference

Question 656

totipotent stem cells

Answer 656

ability to differentiate into any cell type in the body

Question 657

cancer stem cells may be responsile for recurrence after chemo

Answer 657

implies they an resist chemo, replicate and differentiate as needed- self renewal

Question 658

tumor

Answer 658

any abnormal proliferation of cells

Question 659

benign tumors

Answer 659

remain localized, whereas malignant tumors can invade other organs and tissues in teh body by metastasis

Question 660

tumor initation

Answer 660

single cell to proliferate abnormally- cell develops ability to bypass regulatory steps of teh cell cycle that normally help to limit mitotic prolifeeration

Question 661

malgnate cells also undergo mutations that

Answer 661

prmote their own growth and the development of blood vessels to feed them (angiogenesis)

Question 662

oncogenesis

Answer 662

mutations that occur by random chanc and elude the normal DNA repair machinary , or as a result of mutagenic complies like mutagens or carcinogens (UV light, chemicals) also dysregulation of gene expression= elevated levels of genes involved with growth and proliferate

Question 663

genes invovled in oncogeneisi

Answer 663

oncogenes; tumro suppressor genes | promote abnormal growth and proliferation; prevent tumorigenic properties

Question 664

oncogenes

Answer 664

arise from mutations of other genes called proto-oncogenes. if not mutated, not cancer, but if mutated e= elate gene expression and turn into oncogenes

Question 665

higher levels of pro-apoptopic gene expression

Answer 665

preidcted to slow proliferation

Question 666

peptide bond that forms the backbone of proteins is stable because it

Answer 666

exhbits resonance stabilization it is an amide linage between the amine group of one amino acid and the carboxylic acid group of another amides are stable because they exhibit resonance stabilization between the lone pair on teh N and the doube bond in the carbonyl group resonance stable- peptide bonds are planar and do not rotate freely- structural stabity

Question 667

amino acids nd peptide bonds

Answer 667

formed by teh condensation reaction of -COOH group of one amino acid with teh -NH2 group of another production of water

Question 668

pepide bonds are broken through hydrolysis

Answer 668

reverse of condensation

Question 669

mall and nonpolar like oxygen adn Co2 can

Answer 669

diffuse across the membrane

Question 670

Tf

Answer 670

TATA box

Question 671

RNA polymerase travels along teh template strand in teh (antisense)

Answer 671

3-5 direction, synthesizing an antiparaell complement in teh 5-3 direction (sense)

Question 672

post transcriptional modifications

Answer 672

3' poly A tail, 5' cap (of 7-methylguanyate triphosphate) prevent transcript being degraded in teh cuctsol and prepares RNA for export to nuc and splicing introns removed and axons together each gene has its own transcription initiation site

Question 673

polymerization

Answer 673

process by which nucleotides are strung together to form a single stranded RNA strand

Question 674

hybridization

Answer 674

process of binding through complemntary nculeodies | small RNA binds to an mRNA to degrade it or prevent translation

Question 675

adding of subunits to make a longer strand of macromolecule

Answer 675

elongation

Question 676

transcrption

Answer 676

process of creating RNA from DNA

Question 677

DNA

Answer 677

two complementary streams of deoxyribonucleic acid are connected via hydrogen bonding to form a DNA helix

Question 678

frist stein PCR

Answer 678

heat the DNA to renature it and disurpt hydorgen bonds between bases

Question 679

at a pH oof 7.4

Answer 679

a protein will have a - charge on deprotonated carboxylic acid terminal and a +1 charge on its protonated amino terminal net charge of 0.

Question 680

cationic

Answer 680

positie charge on side chain, so must be basic

Question 681

innate immune system

Answer 681

includes nonspecific immune responses general protection rather than prohection against specific pathogens that have already been encountered and remmebred so inflammatory responses like increased vasodilation, blood vessel permeability and pain cytokines (signalling), WBC, monocytes, eosinophils, etc.

Question 682

eosinophils

Answer 682

granulocytes that have granules in cytoplasm and play role in promoting inflammatory responses

Question 683

adaptive immune system

Answer 683

directed against a particular patten in which body has been previously exposed to remembered adn quicker response B cells and T cells- lympthocytes produced in the bone marrow

Question 684

passiv immunity

Answer 684

involves the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another

Question 685

antibodies

Answer 685

specific proteins produced by B lymphocytes

Question 686

B cells

Answer 686

reconize antigen and secrete large amounts of antibodies in repeponse

Question 687

T cells

Answer 687

correspond to the cell meditated branch of the adaptive immune system recognizes cells that were originally self, but have been damaged by viral infections or have malfunctioned inways liely to turn them into cancel cells

Question 688

erythrocute

Answer 688

RBC without n nucleus no DNA more space for oxygen carrying hemoglobin

Question 689

in eukaryote, the residue most proone o phosphorylation are

Answer 689

serine, tyrosine (Y) and threonine (T)

Question 690

phophomimetic

Answer 690

mimic effect of phosphorylation

Question 691

glutamic acid

Answer 691

t E, whic is like aspartic acid

Question 692

polar amino acids tend to be located on the exterior of globular proteins, facing watery environmen

Answer 692

nonpolar- buried inside

Question 693

glycine is

Answer 693

achiral- not roatte plane polarized light

Question 694

increasing plasma oncentrtion of aldosterone

Answer 694

increases sodium reabsorption in teh distal tubile release from adreneal corex in response to low blood pressure increase sodium resorption drives water absorption increases extortion of possum adn hydrogen ions in urine

Question 695

antidiuretic hormone

Answer 695

reuce the osmolarity of blood by increasing water present without changing hte solute levels

Question 696

meosisis does not mtinatian geneti cintegrity

Answer 696

genetic recomb for diversity

Question 697

arranging nuclear DNA for transmiion to offpsirng is

Answer 697

noncyclical | happens once

Question 698

double crossover eent

Answer 698

chrom arms of homologous chrom cross over in 2 diff places and therefore middle

Question 699

troponin

Answer 699

3 types- I, C and T | skeltal muscuele and caracid not smooth

Question 700

peptide bond possess a partial double bond character

Answer 700

due to delocalzaition of electron density from the peptide (amide) nitrogen through th epeptide carbonyl C onto the eptide carbonyl ocyegn resonance stabilization is there

Question 701

FAD2+ and NAD+

Answer 701

to FADH2 and HADH + H+ is oxidized

Question 702

free radicuals

Answer 702

contain one pair of unpaired valence electrons | highly reactive oxidizing agents

Question 703

aldosterone

Answer 703

released from teh adrenal cortex in response to low blood pressure pumps 3 na out of the nephron lining towards the blood for every 2 potassium ions it pumps in favors water resorption as well as sodium

Question 704

too little fluid in body

Answer 704

reduced blood volume (lil water in blood plasma), reduced blood pressure (less liquid present to exert pressure againt teh walls of the blood vessles) and increased blood osmolarity (same solutes are present, lil solvent)

Question 705

ADH

Answer 705

vasopressin | reduce osmolarity of hte blood by increasing the amount of water present without changing the solute levels

Question 706

ANP

Answer 706

opposute of aldosterone released in response to high blood volume adn decreases sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

Question 707

single crossover events only affect

Answer 707

thend ends of chrom arms

Question 708

insunlin increase

Answer 708

secreted in response to high blood sugar. if the body detects that there is plenty of blood sugar, stop making more, sstarting storin gas glycogen adn build up fatty acids into fats for storing energy (increasing lipid synthesis). by esterifying lipids (packing them into storage as well as increasing glycogen synthesis and decreasing gluconeogenesis (production of glucose from other non carb sources)

Question 709

acylcarnitine translocate defificny

Answer 709

NOT hyperglycemia - enzyme stated is essential for th catabolism of FA to occur. this means that without it there will be a great abundance of FA int eh body and less energy available. glucose relied more heavily as a source of ATP nd therefore little glucsoe in the blood will have msucele weakness, high ammonia levels , liver damage

Question 710

mitcondiral DNA

Answer 710

from mom only!! if you see inheritance patterns with all female give to offpsirng- think mitochonridral

Question 711

basic groups

Answer 711

NH3+: positive

Question 712

beta oxidation

Answer 712

step 1: replace OH With thiol (a COA) Step 2: dehydrgenate- create a double bond step 3: FAD-FADH2 (oxidization 1) step 4: add H20- hydrolyze- beta hydroxy ! step 5: oxidize again with b hydroxy group via NaD+-NADG to make ketone step 6: another COA attack and leave OG acetyl coA leave and chain is minus 2 C

Question 713

x linked rec

Answer 713

all males have it

Question 714

x link dom

Answer 714

1 or 2 females have it, but mostly male

Question 715

autosomal dom

Answer 715

no difference between males and females offspring

Question 716

lacteals

Answer 716

are structures in the intestines associated with absorbing fat into the lymphatic system.

Question 717

viable offsprings of trisomies

Answer 717

trisomy 21, 18 and 13.

Question 718

aceylation

Answer 718

acetylation of histones is known to increase the expression of genes through transcription activation.

Question 719

histone acetylation of lysine resides

Answer 719

Lysine is a basic amino acid and typically has a positively-charged side chain at physiological pH. When lysine is acetylated, this charge becomes neutral. Since DNA is negatively charged due to its phosphate backbone, the charge on lysine allows for tight histone-DNA interactions thanks to electrostatic attraction between the charged atoms on each molecule. Acetylation of lysine makes the residue neutral, lessening these interactions and promoting a looser structure. Loose chromatin structure is typically associated with euchromatin, the less dense, transcriptionally active chromatin structure that appears light under a microscope. In contrast, histone deacetylation will restore the positive charge to the residue, allowing the electrostatic attractions to return. Therefore, deacetylation of lysine residues on histones should lead to a denser chromatin structure and lowered transcription/gene expression.

Question 720

euchchroatin

Answer 720

less dense , active

Question 721

hetrochromaatin

Answer 721

tight, dense

Question 722

goes from

Answer 722

N to C terminus in amino acid of a protein | positive to negative

Question 723

competitive inhibition

Answer 723

the inhibitor directly competes with the substrate for the active site on the enzyme. This increases Km since it now takes more substrate to ensure half of the active sites are occupied. If enough substrate is supplied, it will outcompete the inhibitor; therefore, Vmax does not change, although more substrate is needed to reach it.

Question 724

Noncompetitive inhibition

Answer 724

when the inhibitor does not compete with the substrate for the active site, but reduces enzyme activity by binding to another site (the allosteric site) on the enzyme. In noncompetitive inhibition, the inhibitor can combine with either the enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex. In pure noncompetitive inhibition, the value of Vmax is decreased. Since these inhibitors do not compete with the substrate, their activity is unaffected by substrate concentration. with Km the same

Question 725

Uncompetitive inhibition

Answer 725

when the inhibitor binds to only the enzyme-substrate complex, and inactivates it. This causes the number of active enzyme-substrate complexes to decrease, thereby decreasing Vmax. Km also decreases to exactly the same degree as Vmax. Si

Question 726

bacteria

Answer 726

lacks introns

Question 727

ALA and LEU

Answer 727

smallest amino acids | heaviest- trypothan

Question 728

siRNA exert

Answer 728

Post-transcriptional control-interfere with gene expression after transcription has already occurred, but before translation. Specifically, it prevents the translation of mRNA corresponding to the target protein.

Question 729

repression

Answer 729

Repressors are defined as protein molecules that bind with DNA or RNA to prevent eventual translation of a protein. Therefore, siRNA is not technically a repressor.

Question 730

promotion

Answer 730

Promoters are regions of DNA that lie upstream to a given gene and initiate transcription by binding specific transcription factors that contribute to the binding of RNA polymerase

Question 731

Acetylation promotes transcription by attaching acetyl groups to lysine residues on histones, making them less positively-charged and causing a looser wrapping pattern that allows transcription factors to access the genome more easily.

Answer 731

yep

Question 732

enhancers

Answer 732

expression is upregulated by enhancers, which are DNA sequences that can be located further from the gene of interest, and work by binding transcription factors that twist DNA into a hairpin loop, bringing distant regions into close proximity for transcription to begin.

Question 733

hypergylcemia

Answer 733

insulin cant take up glucose so in urine so is ketone bodies_ In a state of extended hyperglycemia, the body relies on fat metabolism to generate energy, which produces ketone bodies that are also excreted in the urine . not proteins because thats notn due to insulin

Question 734

western blotting

Answer 734

Western blotting gives us information about the amount of protein expressed in a cell identify protein and RNA sequences,

Question 735

PCR

Answer 735

gives us information about the amount of RNA expressed. “laboratory DNA replication,” and uses a thermostable DNA polymerase and successive cycles of denaturation, annealing of primers, and extension of a new complementary strand to produce many copies of a sequence of interest.

Question 736

southern blot

Answer 736

Southern blots are used to probe DNA for specific sequences;

Question 737

Immunoassays

Answer 737

ntibodies cultured from antibody-producing cells can bind with great specificity to a protein antigen of interest. A protein in a mixture can be detected using a radioimmunoassay (RIA); in an RIA, the protein concentration can be assessed indirectly by measuring the extent to which the protein competes with a radioactively labeled standard for antibody binding sites.

Question 738

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

Answer 738

olid-phase enzyme immunoassay that detects the presence of an antigen The intensity of this signal is related to the quantity of protein antigen present in the original sample.

Question 739

hybridization

Answer 739

binding of complementary nucleic acid strands)

Question 740

electrophoresis

Answer 740

movement of molecules toward a charged electrod

Question 741

northern blot

Answer 741

identify protein and RNA sequences,

Question 742

edman degradation

Answer 742

technique used to sequence proteins via successive cleaving of terminal amino acid residues.

Question 743

hypoxia

Answer 743

oxygen deprivation.

Question 744

hyperventilization

Answer 744

loss of Co2 and increase of O2- leading to increased phH and and increased hemoglobin affinity to O2

Question 745

organic acids

Answer 745

folic acid, ascorbic acid, citric acid | need a hydrogen atom directly binded to caarbon

Question 746

hyperaldosteronism

Answer 746

low renin concentration (produces angiotensin, raises blood pressure if it is high renin) aldosterone increase H20 and Na reabsorption in the kidneys while exhacnging Na ions for K+ ions- high blood sodium and low k+ ions which increases blood pressure

Question 747

cell membrane is different than

Answer 747

endosomal membrane

Question 748

transduction

Answer 748

form of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria in which bacteriopahes (viruses thet infect bacteria) transmit genomic material

Question 749

conugation

Answer 749

horizontal gene transfer process in bacteria in which plasmid DNA is transferred from 1 bacteria to another through a pilus- viruses not invovled

Question 750

transformation

Answer 750

drect uptake of genetic material from teh environment in bacteria and is not mediated b yviruses

Question 751

binary fission

Answer 751

bacteria reproduce assexually

Question 752

intra interaction

Answer 752

located on the same chain

Question 753

epithelial cells

Answer 753

G0 phase is unliley due to it need to divide

Question 754

Malonyl-CoA is an intermediate in cytosolic fatty acid biosynthesis. Its inhibition of the β-oxidation of long-chain fatty acids:

Answer 754

by preventing the movement of long-chain acyl groups into the mitochondrial matrix, thereby preventing a futile cycle of fatty acid synthesis followed by immediate β-oxidative catabolism of those newly synthesized fatty acids.

Question 755

Methylation and deamination cannot convert a purine to a pyrimidine or vice versa

Answer 755

because purines and pyrimidines differ based on whether they have a 1-ring structure (pyrimidines) or a 2-ring structure (purines), and the loss or addition of a single functional group (as in (de)methylation or (de)amination) is insufficient to convert between these very different structures.

Question 756

DS-PAGE is used to grant a uniform negative charge to all proteins in an assay.

Answer 756

so if a lot of positive charges, less distances

Question 757

beta sheets

Answer 757

3 strands

Question 758

SN2 promotion

Answer 758

acetone due to dipole moment

Question 759

natural immunity

Answer 759

immunity that is presnet in teh iniviuda at birth prior to exposure to pathogen or antigen, adn includes intact skin, salivary enzymes, neutrophils, etc

Question 760

cell mediated immunity

Answer 760

immune response that doe snot invove antibodies, but hagocutes, lympthocutes and cutlines in response to an antigen

Question 761

passive immunity

Answer 761

transfer of immunity from mom to fetus - antibodies to mom o baby

Question 762

nonspecific immunity

Answer 762

anatomic barriers, secretory moleucles and cell components

Question 763

splicing

Answer 763

DNA not RNA

Question 764

Since gastrointenstinal cells divide more often than neurons, they would be not be expected to spend the same amount of time in all cell cycle phases.

Answer 764

and instead spend less time in G0 since they divide mre than neurons

Question 765

looking glass self

Answer 765

a person's self grows out of society's interpersonal interactions and the perceptions of others.The term refers to people shaping their self-concepts based on their understanding of how others perceive them. If the man feels bias from society and/or police (as mentioned in paragraph 1) the looking-glass self theory states that he will internalize the bias/stigmatization directed towards him.

Question 766

ecocentric bias

Answer 766

the tendency to overstress changes between the past and present in order to make oneself appear more worthy or competent than one actually is. According to the results from several conducted studies, individuals are also more likely to favor circumstances that are beneficial to themselves compared to those that favor the people around them.

Question 767

attrbutional bias

Answer 767

a cognitive bias that refers to the systematic errors made when people evaluate or try to find reasons for their own and others' behaviors. People constantly make attributions regarding the cause of behaviors; however, attributions do not always accurately mirror reality. Rather than operating as objective perceivers, people are prone to perceptual errors that lead to biased interpretations of their social world. If police know the welfare schedule and they make harsher judgements based on their perceptions of those on welfare, this would be attributional bias.

Question 768

framing bias

Answer 768

``` Framing bias (or the framing effect) is one of many factors which affect a person's decisions. Just like how a picture may be framed in many different ways to change the viewer's impression, the way an option or decision is presented to a person will change how they feel about it and influence their likelihood to make a particular choice. An example from everyday life could be the way that two different people frame their beliefs about the same used car. One person might say, "oh, it's a real reliable car", giving off a positive impression, and the other might say, "it's old and worn", spinning a negative impression. ```

Question 769

automation bias

Answer 769

the tendency to excessively depend on automated systems, which can lead to erroneous automated information overriding correct decisions.

Question 770

intragenerational mobility

Answer 770

describes changes in social class that occur within one lifetime.

Question 771

intergenerational mobility

Answer 771

describes upward or downward movement in social class between two or more generations.

Question 772

meritocracy

Answer 772

escribes a society in which individuals’ mobility is determined by their achieved status, talent, and work. In a meritocracy, every individual will have equal opportunity to succeed.

Question 773

social reproduction

Answer 773

Social reproduction describes a phenomenon in which poverty tends to beget poverty, and wealth tends to beget wealth across generations. This is not an example of social reproduction because the second generation of immigrants experiences less poverty than the first generation.

Question 774

self serving bias

Answer 774

the tendency to attribute good outcomes with internal factors (for example, hard work), and ascribe bad outcomes to external factors (boss not giving a raise).

Question 775

motor neurons are

Answer 775

EFFERENT

Question 776

sensory nerons are

Answer 776

AFFERENT

Question 777

availbailty heuristic

Answer 777

recallign information most available

Question 778

confirmation bias

Answer 778

selectively finding evidence to support your vies

Question 779

expectatio bias

Answer 779

expectations influence behavior

Question 780

ecological validity

Answer 780

how findings from an experimental setting can be generalized to the environmental considerations in the real world.

Question 781

construct validty

Answer 781

does it rlly measure what is it supposed to measure

Question 782

Rorschach inkblot test

Answer 782

subjective personality assessment (patients project their own subjective feelings, perceptions, and thoughts onto the assessment stimuli, yielding results that are open for inaccuracy ) and projective personality assessment (participant to respond, and then their response is assessed for meaning )

Question 783

objectuve personality test

Answer 783

measures specific personality characteristics based on a set of discrete options, s

Question 784

webers law

Answer 784

Weber’s law postulates that there is a linear relationship, not a non-linear relationship, between the intensity of a stimulus and its detection.

Question 785

differential association theoretical perspective?

Answer 785

individuals engage in criminal choices because they are exposed to it, while individuals who don’t commit crimes have not been exposed to this type of behavior.

Question 786

labeling theory

Answer 786

Repeated messages in school that students are expected to uphold prosocial values an individual who commits actions that are frowned upon by society, becomes regarded as a criminal or a deviant only when he is labeled as such.

Question 787

strain theory

Answer 787

Deemphasizing the importance of values, such as material wealth, that would lead individuals to commit crimes , strain theory states that social structures within society may pressure citizens to commit crime

Question 788

behavioral approach

Answer 788

Increasing penalties for crime to a degree that individuals are dissuaded from committing it

Question 789

Wernickes aphasia

Answer 789

may speak in long, complete sentences that have no meaning, adding unnecessary words and even creating made-up words.

Question 790

aphasia

Answer 790

is the loss of the ability to understand speech or communicate using language.

Question 791

Broca's aphasia

Answer 791

esults from damage to a part of the brain called Broca's area, which is located in the frontal lobe, usually on the left side.ay understand speech and know what they want to say, but they frequently speak in short phrases that are produced with great effort.

Question 792

expert power

Answer 792

ends to motivate through using his knowledge of subject matter, which would likely appeal to high-motivation and high-knowledge people.

Question 793

referent power

Answer 793

exerts control by appealing to others' desire to belong to a group. This type of control is most likely to appeal to individuals through external factors, such as appearing desirable or feeling included and not knowledge or logic or evidence. Thus, a low-motivation, low-knowledge individual would most likely be motivated by this type of persuasion.

Question 794

legitamate power

Answer 794

such as a president, exert power through the legitimacy of their role.

Question 795

coercive power

Answer 795

exert control through force or its threat.

Question 796

confabulation

Answer 796

aking up memories to fill in gaps and then believing that those memories are true. When asked to recognize sentences, Korsakoff’s patients (at a rate vastly higher than normal) picked incorrect sentences, suggesting they were confabulating the memory of having heard those sentences.

Question 797

declarative memory.

Answer 797

memory of fqcts and events | hippocampus

Question 798

Korsakoff's syndrome

Answer 798

is a neurological disorder that is most often seen in people who have severe prolonged alcoholism, as a result of which they experience severe thiamine deficiency.

Question 799

estrogen inhibits

Answer 799

bone reabsorption

Question 800

sperm is produced in the

Answer 800

sertoli cells, not leydig

Question 801

externl vadlity

Answer 801

External validity describes the generalizability of the study,

Question 802

implicit attitudes

Answer 802

unconcious attidues

Question 803

covert

Answer 803

unobservabale

Question 804

Attitude polarization

Answer 804

Attitude polarization describes changes in attitudes among people in groups – tendency to go to the extreme.

Question 805

learned helplessness

Answer 805

depression, escribes a situation in which a person makes many attempts to solve a problem and they are not effective.

Question 806

status quo bias

Answer 806

Status quo bias is the tendency to avoid situations or actions that may produce change, instead preferring to choose action that will keep normalcy, or the status quo.

Question 807

moral hypocrisy

Answer 807

Moral hypocrisy is a situation in which a person appears to be a moral person but doesn’t actually try to pursue moral behavior.

Question 808

Symbolic interactionism

Answer 808

meaning and symbols highlight people interactions with each other

Question 809

Social constructionism

Answer 809

Social constructionism wxamines the development of jointly constructed understandings of the world. It assumes that understanding, significance, and meaning are developed not separately within the individual, but in coordination with other human beings.

Question 810

exchange rational theory

Answer 810

Exchange-rational theory posits that patterns of behavior in societies reflect the choices made by individuals as they try to maximize their benefits and minimize their costs.

Question 811

Weber–Fechner law

Answer 811

states that the just-noticeable difference between two stimuli is directly proportional to the magnitude of the stimuli. If a 3 kg change creates a just-noticeable difference starting at 5 kg, tripling the initial mass will require triple the difference. Thus, the answer is 9 kg.

Question 812

increased blood pressure

Answer 812

increased

Question 813

During the Krebs cycle, each unit of acetyl-CoA forms three molecules of NADH and one molecule of FADH2. In other words, the NADH-to-FADH2 ratio is 3:1.

Answer 813

yes

Question 814

how many molecules of ATP are formed per molecule of acetyl-CoA?

Answer 814

12

Question 815

sugar phosphate backbone is held together by

Answer 815

phosphodiester bonds

Question 816

The normal flora of the large intestine consists mainly of:

Answer 816

bacteria

Question 817

Bacterial antibiotic resistance is frequently conveyed by:

Answer 817

Plasmids are small, circular segments of DNA that can be shared between bacteria. Antibiotic resistance can be spread via genes carried on plasmids.

Question 818

lac operon:

Answer 818

The lac operon is an inducible system. When lactose is absent, a repressor binds to the operator region of the operon, blocking expression. When lactose is present, allolactose binds the repressor instead, allowing expression.

Question 819

he formation of a disulfide bond involves oxidation, so it can be coupled with a reduction reaction.

Answer 819

NAD+ is reduced to form NADH.

Question 820

all steroid hormones are derivatives of cholesterol.

Answer 820

including estrogen and testertrone

Question 821

e role of cholesterol in the membrane is to provide fluidity within the otherwise rigid phospholipid structure.

Answer 821

fluid not rigid

Question 822

A lipid is saponified to yield two fatty acid salts and one glycerol-based molecule.

Answer 822

2 NAOH

Question 823

Disulfide bonds between two cysteine residues

Answer 823

teritary adn quart structures of proteins

Question 824

Side group interactions between amino acids

Answer 824

tertuary structure of proteins

Question 825

The two most commonly encountered secondary structures of a polypeptide chain are α-helices and β-pleated sheets. S

Answer 825

Secondary structure refers to the shape of a folding protein due exclusively to hydrogen bonding between its backbone amide and carbonyl groups. Secondary structure does not include bonding between the R-groups of amino acids, hydrophobic interactions, or other interactions associated with tertiary structure.

Question 826

The membrane potential is always measured in terms of the inside of the cell relative to the extracellular fluid.

Answer 826

for membrane potential

Question 827

Since it is a transmembrane protein most of the amino acids must be hydrophobic.

Answer 827

VILP-TAMP

Question 828

comp inhibitors

Answer 828

Kmax increase, Vmax same

Question 829

noncomp inhibtors

Answer 829

vmax decrease, Km same

Question 830

uncomp

Answer 830

vmax and km decrease

Question 831

Hund’s rule.

Answer 831

states that every orbital at the same energy level needs to be occupied by one electron before any one orbital can be occupied by 2. This rule is followed on the diagram. For example, if π*2px was occupied by an up and down spin electron, this rule would be violated.

Question 832

Hund’s rule.

Answer 832

states that every orbital at the same energy level needs to be occupied by one electron before any one orbital can be occupied by 2. This rule is followed on the diagram. For example, if π*2px was occupied by an up and down spin electron, this rule would be violated.

Question 833

Aufbau principle

Answer 833

The Aufbau principle says that electrons fill orbitals of the lowest energy first. Remember that energy increases as you go up the diagram – thus the two orbitals at the π*2pmust be filled before the σ*2p level can have an electron. If this is your first time seeing a molecular orbital diagram, remember that it follows the same rules as a regular energy level diagram, and energy still increases going up the diagram.

Question 834

Pauli exclusion

Answer 834

The Pauli exclusion principle states that no two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers. This rule is followed on the diagram. For example, if π*2px was occupied by two up spin electrons, this rule would be violated.

Question 835

keratin, which is an intermediate filament.

Answer 835

yes

Question 836

ntaining the greatest number of degrees of unsaturation (6) is most likely to be oxidized.

Answer 836

yes

Question 837

ntaining the greatest number of degrees of unsaturation (6) is most likely to be oxidized.

Answer 837

yes